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99 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which control do you use to select the meter’s different measurement functions?
The rotary switch.
List the four types of information presented in the multimeter’s display section.
(1) Digital display.
(2) Visual annunciators.
(3) Analog bar graph.
(4) Range indicator.
Which information in the display section shows the absolute value of the input?
Analog bar graph.
Describe the function of the range push button.
Lets you manually select the measurement range.
What is the purpose of the touch-hold push button?
Locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a
new measurement.
List the multimeter’s four input jacks.
(1) Amperes.
(2) Milliamps/microamps.
(3) Volts/ohms/diode.
(4) Common.
When does the 8025A perform a power-up self test?
When you move the rotary switch to any position from the OFF position.
What two ranges of DC voltages can you measure using the 8025A multimeter?
(1) −1,000 to +1,000 volts DC.
(2) −320 to +320 millivolts DC.
What is the maximum amount of continuous AC current that you can measure with the
multimeter?
10 amps.
When using the Fluke 8025A, how do you know you’re in the resistance measurement function?
The Ω annunciator is showing in the display.
How do you determine if you’re testing a “good” diode with the 8025A?
Placing the leads across a “good” diode produces “OL” in the display while reversing the leads produces a
continuous audible tone.
What type of display does the oscilloscope present?
Amplitude vs. time.
On which axis of an oscilloscope is voltage, time, and depth information presented?
Voltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity.
What is the purpose of the delay line at the input of the vertical amplifier?
It allows the sweep generator circuitry time to start a sweep before the signal reaches the cathode ray tube
vertical deflection plates. This enables you to view the leading edge of the signal waveform.
What position of the input coupling switch is used to view digital-type or square wave signals?
DC coupling.
What is the basic purpose of the oscilloscope probe?
To provide isolation for scope inputs and prevent circuit loading.
List four types of probes?
(1) The high resistance.
(2) Passive divider and x1 probes.
(3) Active (field effect transistor).
(4) Current probes.
What is the typical input impedance of most oscilloscopes?
One megaohm shunted by 20 pF of capacitance.
When making an amplitude measurement and the source impedance is unknown, greatest
accuracy is achieved when the probe’s Z is what?
Highest (maximum).
What is the biggest difference between digital storage oscilloscopes and analog scopes?
Digital storage oscilloscopes digitize the input signal for storage or display.
What is the function of charged coupled devices in the digital storage oscilloscope’s signal
sampling process?
Charged coupled devices accept fast-changing data and send it to the analog-to-digital-converter at a slower
rate for more accurate data collection.
Define the following waveform storage terms:
a) Waveform points.
b) Waveform record.
c) Record length.
(a) Sampled data points stored in the digital storage oscilloscopes memory.
(b) Stored waveform points that make up the waveform record.
(c) Number of waveform points used to make the waveform record.
What advantage does retrieving data from memory have on the cathode ray tube?
It allows the cathode ray tube to receive data at a slower rate as opposed to keeping up with some of the
high frequency signals fired directly on a cathode ray tube in an analog scope.
List two digital storage oscilloscope sampling techniques.
(1) Real-time.
(2) Repetitive-sampling.
Define interpolation.
This is a process that estimates what the signal will look like between samples and “fills in the blanks”
between data points.
What are the two types of interpolation?
(1) Linear.
(2) Sine.
What is the difference between sequential and random sampling?
Sequential sampling takes a sample at a predetermined time after the trigger in a progressive order until
there are enough data points to reconstruct several periods of the signal. Random sampling takes samples at
an undetermined point on a signal and stores them.
What is a common cause of aliasing?
Undersampling due to having the time base turned down too low, thus reducing the sample rate for a
frequency that is too high for a given setting.
Describe the three types of acquisition modes.
(1) In sample mode, the digital storage oscilloscope creates a record point by saving the first sample in a
collection of sample points.
(2) In peak detect mode, the digital storage oscilloscope saves the highest and lowest points in a
collection of samples.
(3) In averaging mode, the digital storage oscilloscope shows a record that is a collection of several
acquisitions of a repeated signal that is averaged over time.
What is the function of the acquisition controls?
To set the digital storage oscilloscope’s sampling rate, determine what type of processing will occur and
how many record points can be shown.
What is the range of record points that the Tektronix 2230 digital storage oscilloscope can
acquire?
1,000 (1K) to 4,000 (4K) points.
Which control sets up acquisition either before a trigger or at the beginning of a waveform?
PRETRIG/POST TRIG switch.
What happens to the NORM and P-P AUTO trigger modes while in ROLL mode?
These triggers are disabled allowing the digital storage oscilloscope to continuously acquire and display
incoming signals.
In the NORM trigger mode, how are the pretrigger waveform and post trigger scan updated?
By the trigger and post trigger scan from the trigger position to the right.
In the SAVE mode, what happens to the acquisition and display update in progress?
It stops.
What types of measurements in the STORE mode are made with CURSORS controls?
Delta volts, delta time, one over delta time, and delay time measurements.
Which switch establishes the function of the CURSORS position control?
POSITION/CURS/SELECT WAVEFORM switch.
Explain how a 4K record length is shown on the display.
A 4-bar graph on the screen indicates which portion of the record you are viewing. A 4K record length
displays 1K samples at a time. You have to look at four different screens to see the entire record length.
In the SELECT WAVEFORM mode using the SELECT C1/C2 (cursor-select) switch, what
happens when the C1/C2 switch is pressed?
It moves the cursor set between displayed waveforms.
What is the purpose of the MEMORY and menu controls?
They control the MENU operation while the MENU is displayed, and they control the storage and display
of the SAVE reference waveforms when the MENU is not displayed.
What is the purpose of the BERTS?
To provide a bit error detection system that can determine the received data quality.
What type of test can the BERTS perform?
Bit error analysis, timing analysis, or delay measurements. Also the BERTS is a source of PCM data used
to test a communications data link or a bit synchronizer output. Many BERT can generate command test
patterns, telemetry PCM formats, and bit coding patterns at telemetry data rates.
What is the purpose of the internal clock generator?
To provide an internal clock reference—usually selectable from the front panel.
What is the purpose of the voltage controlled oscillator, and how is it calibrated?
As the basic clock generator, it provides all clock phases. It is periodically frequency calibrated by a
crystal-controlled oscillator in the AUTO-CAL section.
What is the purpose of the countdown section of the internal clock generator?
To divide the voltage controlled oscillator clock and provide a frequency equal to the bit rate selected.
What is the purpose of the digital-to-analog converter and the decode range splitter, and for what
purpose does this section use the binary coded decimal information?
To use the binary coded decimal information to control the voltage controlled oscillator center frequency,
and to control the range the countdown circuits will decode. They use the binary coded decimal information
to control the voltage controlled oscillator center frequency, and to control the range the countdown circuits
will decode.
What is the purpose of the pattern simulator?
To accept either the external or internal clock and generate either a pseudo-random noise pattern or a 48-bit
pattern you program from the front panel.
Which pattern simulator section controls the clock selector and selects either the external clock or
the internal clock for processing?
Data/clock selects encoder.
What is the purpose of the pseudo random noise generator?
To receive the internal clock from the clock selector and generate a 2,047 bit long pseudo-random pattern.
What is the purpose of the pseudo random noise blanking generator, and what are the blanking
periods?
To provide a blanking period at the start of the 2,047 bit pseudo random noise frame (under the control of
the blanking selector switch). The blanking period can be 0, 32, 64, 96, or 128 bits long.
What is the purpose of the 48-bit register and 8-bit word display?
To accept six 8-bit words, one word at a time, from the data entry switches and stores them in a 48-bit
register.
What controls the data/clock select encoder, and what does it generate?
The pattern select and clock select switches; it generates a data select code and a clock select code.
Which pattern simulator section selects either pseudo random noise data, external data, or 48-bit
data—depending on which data select code is received?
Data/sync selector.
What is the purpose of the code converter?
To convert the NRZ-L data into the desired coding, such as NRZ-M.
What is the purpose of the clock drivers and the data drivers, and where are their outputs sent?
The clock drivers convert the selected clock signal to a system compatible level and a buffered TTL level,
and the data drivers convert the encoded data signal to a system compatible level and a buffered TTL level.
The outputs are input to the pattern synchronizer and error counter data/clock receivers block.
What is the output from the output amplifier?
After mixing the three input signals linearly, it provides a front panel adjustable offset and output level for a
low impedance load.
What is the purpose of the pattern synchronizer and error counter?
To receive the selected pattern, automatically synchronizes on the pattern, and determine the bit error rate
induced after transmission through the system.
What are the inputs to the data/clock receivers?
Either system-compatible data or buffered TTL data from the clock drivers and the data.
Which pattern synchronizer and error counter sections combine the system compatible and TTL
signals together so only one signal will be present at one time?
Data/clock receivers.
To what sections are the outputs from the data/clock receivers sent?
To the 48-bit synchronizer/comparator, the pseudo random noise synchronizer/comparator, the external
data synchronizer/comparator, and the error rate counter and display sections.
What is the purpose of the 48-bit synchronizer/comparator?
To accept the received clock and data, and synchronize on the pattern when it’s equal to the 48-bit parallel
input.
What is the purpose of the pseudo random noise pattern synchronizer/comparator?
To accept the received clock and data, from the data/clock receivers, and will synchronize with the pattern
when it’s equal to its own 2,047 bit pseudo random noise pattern.
What is the purpose of the external data pattern synchronizer/comparator?
To accept the external data, delay it under the front panel control, and compare it with the received data
from the data/clock receivers.
Where does the error/IN SYNC selector send the correct error and IN SYNC signals?
To the error rate counter and display.
When will the pattern synchronizer and error counter error/IN SYNC section provide an output to
the front panel display, and what will interrupt this output?
At the end of the count cycle or when you push the reset switch. A reset pulse will interrupt this output.
What is the primary means of measuring the quality of transmitted digital information?
To compare the number of bits in error to the total number of bits transmitted. The ratio of the number of
bits in error to total number of bits transmitted.
What is the basic quality measurement for a transmission channel?
The bit error rate.
What is the difference between random distribution of errors and an error rate with a clustered
distribution?
In a random distribution, each bit is equally likely to be in error. In a clustered distribution, the errors occur
in clusters.
What are the steps in the basic bit error rate testing procedure?
(1) A known bit pattern, usually pseudo random, is generated at the sending end of the data channel or
equipment under test, and is transmitted through the channel.
(2) At the receiving end, an identical pattern is generated and synchronized with the incoming signal.
(3) The received signal is compared to the locally generated pattern in the receiving equipment.
(4) If any bit in the received signal is not the same as the generated bit, it is assumed the received bit is in
error.
(5) An error signal is generated and used to operate a counter.
Although BERTSs use the same basic technique to count errors, how do you interpret the results
and display information?
In many different ways. So, you must use and understand the technical manual for the particular test
equipment.
What are some significant bit error rate test equipment parameters?
(1) Bit rate and timing.
(2) Test patterns.
(3) Synchronization.
(4) Interface and data coding.
(5) Readouts and special features.
How can the BERTS, with internal timing for a low or intermediate bit rate range, be used to
operate at higher bit rates?
With external timing.
What data circuit speed would normally use the shorter generated bit error rate test pattern
lengths, and what is the data circuit bit rate?
Low to intermediate; 1,200 to 9,600 bps.
What data circuit speed would normally use the longer pattern lengths, and what is the data
circuit bit rate?
Higher speed circuits; 50 kbps to 64 kbps.
What data circuit speed would normally use a 1,048,575 bit pattern length, and what is the data
circuit bit rate?
Very high speed T–1 circuits; 1.544 Mbps.
What bit rate would you use to test a 9,600 bps data circuit?
A bit rate of 9,600 bps, or the closet bit rate available, to test the maximum output of the equipment.
What bit rate would be used to perform a bit error rate test on a 64 kbps data circuit?
64 kbps.
What subsection in the receiving section of the BERTS must be synchronized with the received
pattern from either the bit synchronizer or the distant end?
The pattern generator.
What is one of the major problems encountered in making bit error rate tests?
The detection of an “out-of-sync” condition by the test set receiver.
What should you know about synchronization in order to interpret the bit error rate test data
correctly?
You need to know how test equipment responds to the out-of-sync condition.
What type of connectors do test sets, designed to operate with data modems, usually use?
25-pin connectors, usually the EIA RS–232 type.
What must you check to determine impedance and voltage levels before connecting the BERTS to
the point of test?
The technical manuals.
What information must be available to you from the BERTS readout or special features?
Information to count the number of errors that occur in a specified number of transmitted bits.
Why do we test ground?
To verify the ground-resistance specification that the ground rod or grid must meet.
What test equipment is used to identify poor ground?
Earth ground tester.
How many points of contacts are used in the Fall of Potential testing method?
3.
What is each point of contact called in the Fall of Potential testing method?
The test ground, voltage probe, and current probe.
What distance represents the closest value to the theoretical true resistance measurement?
61.8% of the total distance.
How is the earth stake placed in the soil?
In a direct line away from the earth electrode.
Which law is used to calculate the resistance of the earth electrode automatically with the earth
ground tester?
Ohm’s Law.
Where are the probes placed in order to achieve the highest degree of accuracy?
Placed outside the sphere of influence of the ground electrode under test and the auxiliary earth.
What is the recommended ground resistance value by the NFPA and IEEE?
5 ohms or less.
What are the primary capabilities provided by a protocol analyzer?
Digital network diagnostics and software development.
Explain the difference between a protocol analyzer NIC and other NICs.
The NIC in a protocol analyzer is configured to process all frames.
What function of the protocol analyzer excludes specific types of frames?
Capture filters.
List four types of specific occurrences that can be displayed by counters.
Any four of the following:
(1) Packets transmitted.
(2) CRC errors.
(3) Undersize packets.
(4) Oversize packets.
(5) ARP requests.
(6) Collisions.
(7) Bit errors.
What menu is best used to report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad FCS, short
frames, and jabbers?
MAC node statistics.
What kind of information does the connection statistics menu provide?
Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of
connections that are related to specific nodes.
Identify the three types of active tests that are conducted with a protocol analyzer.
(1) PING.
(2) Trace route.
(3) Traffic generator.