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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A requirement for military explosives is that raw materials must be a. cheap b. nonhygroscopic. c. common to America. d. vital to the war effort. |
a. Cheap
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Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce a. pressure b. energy c. vapors d. heat |
d. heat
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what property of an explosive do we refer to by the word "hygroscopicity"? a. Moisture-absorbing property. b. tendency to produce sensitive metallic salts. c. ability of an explosive to be cast into a mold or form. d. ability to liberate gases during detonation. |
A. Moisture-absorbing property
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Upon what factor does the rate of detonation depend? a. Degree of confinement and load density. b. Degree of confinement and volatility. c. Volatility and loading density. d. Loading density only. |
a. Degree of confinement and load density
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What are the basic components of an explosive train? a. Fuze, detonator, booster, and bursting charge. b. Detonator, booster, and a bursting charge. c. Fuze, booster, and a bursting charge. d. Detonator and booster only. |
b. Detonator, booster, and a bursting charge.
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What does an explosive train booster do? a. Detonates the fuze. b. Detonates the main charge. |
b. Detonates the main charge.
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How can you achieve and airburst with a general-purpose bomb? a. Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train. b. With a super quick action HE train. c. With a delay action HE train. d. Use a nondelay delay. |
a. Use a time action high-explosive (HE) train.
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What effect does more damage than the fragmentation effect of a specific bomb? a. Heat. b. Blast. c. Detonation. d. Penetration. |
b. Blast.
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The penetrating action of a shaped charge is the result of the a. size of the burster charge. b. type and amount of explosive. c. shock wave and a jet of dense gas. d. density and thickness of the target. |
c. shock wave and a jet of dense gas.
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The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candlepower, color, weather, and a. light. b. altitude. c. humidity. d. chemical composition |
a. light.
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What are the classifications of pyrotechnics? a. Illuminants and signals only. b. Illuminants and igniters only. c. Illuminants and combinations of signals only. d. Illuminants, signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators. |
d. Illuminants, signals, combinations of signals and illuminants, and simulators. |
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When considering pyrotechnics, two types of effects for signals are a. fire and flash. b. heat and flash. c. smoke and heat. d. light and smoke. |
d. light and smoke.
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What do the colored bands, letters, or patches on signal munitions indicate? a. Color of the signal produced. b. Type of pyrotechnic ammunition. c. Different factory modification of signals. d. Different manufacturer identification codes. |
a. Color of the signal produced.
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What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN–MK13 signal? a. Noise only. b. Flare and noise. c. Smoke and flare. d. Smoke and noise. |
c. Smoke and flare.
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When and where is the MK124 Mod 0 signal used? a. Day and land use only. b. Night and sea use only. c. Day or night, land use only. d. Day or night, land or sea use. |
d. Day or night, land or sea use.
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How much light does the M127A1 signal produce? a. 50,000 candlepower. b. 100,000 candlepower. c. 1,000,000 candlepower. d. 2,000,000 candlepower |
a. 50,000 candlepower.
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What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms"? a. Caliber .38. b. Caliber .50. c. 5.56 millimeter. d. 7.62 millimeter. |
b. Caliber .50.
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What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle? a. .22. b. .30. c. .50. d. .410. |
d. .410.
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What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition? a. Ejection of the primer. b. The wad can cause injury. c. There is no significant hazard. d. Fragmentation of the projectile |
b. The wad can cause injury.
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What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge? a. Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant. b. Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and detonator. c. Cartridge case, shot pellets, and propellant. d. Cartridge case, propellant, and tracer. |
a. Cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant.
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What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade? a. Inert powder. b. Black powder. c. Composition B. d. White phosphorus. |
b. Black powder.
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How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone? a. 50 meters. b. 100 meters. c. 250 meters. d. 300 meters. |
c. 250 meters
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How far behind an M18A1 mine should personnel take cover before they fire it? a. 50 meters. b. 100 meters. c. 250 meters. d. 300 meters. |
b. 100 meters.
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What mortar has a short range and a small explosive charge? a. Short. b. Light. c. Heavy. d. Medium. |
b. Light.
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What device(s) do we use to detonate high explosives (HE)? a. Firing wire. b. Blasting caps. c. Galvanometer. d. Detonating cord clip. |
b. Blasting caps.
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What device is used to initiate time fuse? a. M60 igniter. b. Firing wire. c. Galvanometer. d. Blasting machine. |
a. M60 igniter.
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The M112 demo block is made of what substance? a. Ammonia. b. Nitroglycerin. c. Black powder. d. Composition C–4. |
d. Composition C–4.
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The difference between commercial dynamite and military dynamite is that military dynamite does not contain a. initiators. d. Composition C–4. c. gelatin dynamite. d. ammonia dynamite. |
d. Composition C–4.
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In what length is fire wire issued? a. 50 feet. b. 100 feet. c. 500 feet. d. 1000 feet. |
c. 500 feet.
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How do we classify bomb fuzes? a. Action and contents. b. Position and action. c. Method of arming and contents. d. Position, action, and method of arming. |
d. Position, action, and method of arming
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The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and a. electrical. b. hydraulic. c. proximity. d. inertia. |
c. proximity
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Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb? a. Nose. b. Tail. c. Nose and tail. d. Between the lugs. |
a. Nose.
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In an electronically-timed fuze, what component replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuzes? a. Battery-firing device. b. Arming lanyard assembly. c. Electric charging assembly. d. Electronically timed sensor. |
c. Electric charging assembly.
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The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuze is being handled? a. Seal wires. b. Cotter pins. c. Safety blocks. d. "Detonator safe" feature |
b. Cotter pins.
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What action must you take to set the "SECONDS TO ARM" setting below six seconds on an M904 fuze? a. Depress the time lock. b. Install the stop screw in the fuze body. c. Remove the stop screw from the fuze body. d. Depress the detent pin on the arming vane shaft. |
c. Remove the stop screw from the fuze body.
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What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze? a. T44. b. T45. c. T46. d. FZU–2/B. |
b. T45
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In a bomb body, where is the M905 fuze installed? a. Either the nose or the tail. b. The nose fuze well. c. The tail fuze well. d. Between the lugs. |
c. The tail fuze well.
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The FMU–54 series tail fuzes are used in a. laser-guided bomb series. b. BLU–109/B series guided bombs. c. MK80 and M series general-purpose bombs with conical fins. d. MK80 series general-purpose bombs with an air inflatable retarder. |
d. MK80 series general-purpose bombs with an air inflatable retarder. |
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With electrical fuzes, which device is used in place of arming wire? a. Bungee cord. b. Battery-firing device. c. Linear-shaped charge. d. Target-detecting device. |
b. Battery-firing device.
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How many FZU–2/B boosters are used with the FMU–81/B fuze when installed in the nose fuze well and the tail fuze well, respectively? a. One; four. b. Four, two. c. Two; four. d. Four; one. |
d. Four; one. |
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What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–139A/B fuze? a. FZU–39/B sensor. b. FZU–48/B initiator. c. Battery-firing device. d. MK32 Mod 1 arming device. |
b. FZU–48/B initiator.
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The FMU–143 series fuze was designed for use in a. chemical bombs. b. penetration bombs. c. land and sea mines. d. blast and fragmentation bombs. |
b. penetration bombs.
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What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU–143 series fuze? a. FZU–39/B sensor. b. FZU–48/B initiator. c. FZU–55 series fuze initiator. d. FZU–32 series fuze initiator |
d. FZU–32 series fuze initiator |
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What hazard is associated with the DSU–33 proximity sensor? a. Explosives. b. Fragmentation. c. Thermal battery. d. Radio frequencies. |
c. Thermal battery.
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Which sensor is a radio frequency (RF) radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)–64/B, SUU–65/B, and SUU–66/B dispensers? a. FZU–39/B. b. FMU–56/B. c. FMU–110/B. d. FMU–124/B. |
a. FZU–39/B.
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What does HOF stand for on the FZU–39/B proximity sensor? a. Hour of flight. b. Hour of function. c. Height of function. d. Height of fragmentation. |
c. Height of function.
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What component is used to adapt a nose fuze for an M series bomb? a. Fuze adapter. b. Bomb adapter. c. Adapter booster. d. Adapter burster. |
c. Adapter booster.
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Which fin provides a high-drag, low-altitude bombing capability for the M117 bomb? a. BSU–50/B. b. BSU–49/B. c. BSU–93/B. d. MAU–103. |
c. BSU–93/B.
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Which air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK82 bomb? a. BSU–49/B. b. BSU–50/B. c. BSU–92. d. BSU–93/B. |
a. BSU–49/B.
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What air inflatable retarder (AIR) fin is used on the MK84 bomb? a. BSU–49/B. b. BSU–50/B. c. BSU–92. d. BSU–93/B. |
b. BSU–50/B.
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Which bomb is used as the warhead in the GBU–28A/B? a. BLU–113. b. BLU–118. c. BLU–122. d. BLU–126. |
a. BLU–113.
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Which bomb is filled with a thermobaric explosive? a. BLU–113. b. BLU–118. c. BLU–122. d. BLU–126. |
b. BLU–118.
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Externally, the M129 leaflet bomb is similar to the a. M117, 750-pound bomb. b. MK82, 500-pound bomb. c. MK84, 2,000-pound bomb. d. BLU–109, 2,000-pound bomb. |
a. M117, 750-pound bomb.
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Which suspension utility unit (SUU) does the PDU–5/B utilize? a. SUU–64/B. b. SUU–65/B. c. SUU–66/B. d. SUU–76C/B. |
d. SUU–76C/B.
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The BLU–126/B bomb is identical to the a. M117, 750-pound bomb. b. MK82, 500-pound bomb. c. MK84, 2,000-pound bomb. d. BLU–109, 2,000-pound bomb. |
b. MK82, 500-pound bomb
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What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU–126/B? a. 27 pounds. b. 92 pounds. c. 192 pounds. d. 270 pounds. |
a. 27 pounds.
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What is the weight of the BDU–33 series practice bomb? a. 10 pounds. b. 20 pounds. c. 25 pounds. d. 45 pounds. |
c. 25 pounds.
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The BDU–48/B resembles the ballistics of the a. MK82 high-drag munition. b. MK82 low-drag munition. c. M117 high-drag munition. d. MK84 low-drag munition. |
a. MK82 high-drag munition.
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Which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser does the CBU–87 cluster bomb use? a. SUU–66. b. SUU–65. c. SUU–64. d. SUU–30. |
b. SUU–65.
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Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU–87 cluster bomb? a. BLU–61 bomblets. b. BLU–63 bomblets. c. BLU–97 bomblets. d. MK118 bomblets. |
c. BLU–97 bomblets.
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What is the only difference between the CBU–87/B and the CBU–87A/B cluster bombs? a. The A/B has modified bomblets. b. The A/B has the live FZU–39/B sensor installed. c. The B comes in a different container. d. The B has the live FZU–39/B sensor installed. |
b. The A/B has the live FZU–39/B sensor installed.
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How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single CBU–89/B cluster bomb at one time? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. |
b. 2.
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How many projectiles are contained in each BLU–108/B submunition? a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. |
d. 4. |
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What ejects the BLU–108 series submunition into the airstream? a. Thermal battery. b. Drogue parachute. c. Airbag ejection system. d. Linear shape cutting charge. |
c. Airbag ejection system.
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The components of a wind corrected munitions dispenser consist of a fin guidance system, a variable position umbilical connector, and a. dummy fuze. b. rocket motor. c. signal cartridge. d. operational flight program. |
d. operational flight program. |
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Which wind-corrected munitions dispenser component cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight? a. Gas grain generator. b. Fin lanyard assembly. c. Fin stabilizer assembly. d. Control actuation assembly. |
d. Control actuation assembly.
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What 20 millimeter (mm) round is used for drill or testing feeder assemblies? a. Target practice tracer. b. Target practice. c. Dummy. d. Inert. |
c. Dummy.
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What M505 series fuze safety feature prevents accidental arming during handling? a. Fuze is bore safe. b. M505 series fuze is inertia armed. c. Rotor assembly is safety pinned until loading. d. M505 series fuze does not have a safety, but it does require very careful handling. |
a. Fuze is bore safe.
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What is the arming delay distance for the M505 fuze? a. 5–10 feet. b. 10–35 feet. c. 45–50 feet. d. 50–55 feet. |
b. 10–35 feet.
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The identifying information on a 20 millimeter (mm) round of ammunition is marked on the a. bourrelet. b. projectile. c. primer. d. fuze. |
b. projectile.
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When 20 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds may you expect to find in an M548 container? a. 50–100. b. 150–175. c. 200–250. d. 275–300. |
c. 200–250.
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What aircraft cannon fires the 25 millimeter (mm) round? a. GAU–2. b. GAU–8. c. GAU–12. d. GAU–18. |
c. GAU–12.
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How can you tell a 25 millimeter (mm) dummy cartridge from other 25 mm rounds? a. Dummy cartridge is painted blue. b. Dummy cartridge is hollow and lighter. c. Dummy cartridge projectile is nonseparable and the total cartridge is gold in color. d. Dummy cartridge projectile is gold in color with white lettering on the cartridge case. |
c. Dummy cartridge projectile is nonseparable and the total cartridge is gold in color.
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When 25 millimeter (mm) ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds you expect to find in a CNU–405 container? a. 80 or 100. b. 150 or 175. c. 200 or 250. d. 275 or 300. |
a. 80 or 100.
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How is ignition from the primer carried to the propellant in a 30 millimeter (mm) target practice round? a. The primer vents directly into the propellant. b. The propellant is ignited electrically when the gun is fired. c. The primer ignites black power in a flash tube, which ignites the propellant. d. The primer activates the M505 time delay fuze, which ignites the propellant after it is fully armed and detonates. |
c. The primer ignites black power in a flash tube, which ignites the propellant.
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What device holds the ball rotor of the 30 millimeter (mm) M505A3 impact fuze in an unarmed position until it is fired? a. Lock ring. b. Split latch. c. Safety block. d. Detonator safety latch. |
a. Lock ring.
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Which component allows the 30 millimeter (mm) armor-piercing round to achieve target penetration? a. Fumer charge. b. Linear shape charge. c. Munroe effect shape charge. d. Depleted uranium penetrator |
d. Depleted uranium penetrator |
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What is the purpose of the 30 millimeter (mm) dummy ammunition? a. As ballast. b. For target practice on small ranges. c. For use in static displays and award presentations. d. As familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system. |
d. As familiarization training and mechanical cycling of the gun system.
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How long does the red tracer composition burn in the 40 millimeter (mm) AAA, target practice tracer (M91) round? a. 10 seconds. b. 12 seconds. c. 14 seconds. d. 16 seconds. |
b. 12 seconds.
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Name the components of a 40 millimeter (mm) round. a. Ignition booster, cartridge case, and projectile. b. Propellant, cartridge case, and ignition booster. c. Propellant, cartridge case, ignition booster, and fuze. d. Primer, cartridge case, propellant charge, projectile, and fuze |
d. Primer, cartridge case, propellant charge, projectile, and fuze |
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What is the total number of rounds can the MK1 ammunition box hold? a. 36. b. 24. c. 20. d. 16. |
d. 16.
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What aircraft fires 105 millimeter (mm) ammunition? a. B–52. b. B–1B. c. KC–10. d. AC–130. |
d. AC–130.
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What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105 millimeter (mm) high-explosive (HE) round? a. Comp B. b. Comp C. c. Cyclonite (RDX). d. Pentaerythritol Tetranitrate (PETN). |
a. Comp B.
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Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation (HF) PGU–45/B projectile produce? a. 300. b. 1,300. c. 3,300. d. 13,000. |
d. 13,000.
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What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU–160/B fuze to optimize lethality? a. 15 feet. b. 30 feet. c. 32 feet. d. 42 feet. |
a. 15 feet.
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The 105 millimeter (mm) clearing cartridge was designed to a. clean the bore of a 105 mm cannon. b. prepare the 105 mm cannon for shipping. c. clear the immediate area around a ground target. d. clear a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon. |
d. clear a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon.
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What are countermeasure flares designed to do? a. Emergency signaling by a downed aircraft. b. Illuminate emergency landing fields at night. c. Emergency signaling to rescue aircraft from the ground. d. Divert enemy aircraft infrared/heat-seeking missiles from friendly aircraft. |
d. Divert enemy aircraft infrared/heat-seeking missiles from friendly aircraft. |
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Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU–7/B flare? a. BBU–35/B. b. BBU–36/B. c. BBU–46/B. d. BBU–47/B. |
b. BBU–36/B.
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The SD–206 infrared flare (Smokey Devil) provides a. less heat than the M206 flare. b. more heat than the M206 flare. c. more flexibility due to its smaller size. d. smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes |
d. smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes |
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Which impulse cartridge does the RR–170 chaff cartridge use? a. BBU–35/B. b. BBU–36/B. c. BBU–45/B. d. BBU–46/B. |
a. BBU–35/B.
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The LUU–2 series aircraft flare produces a. 500,000 candlepower for an average burn time of three minutes. b. 300,000 candlepower for an average burn time of two minutes. c. two million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes. d. one million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes. |
c. two million candlepower for an average burn time of five minutes.
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What output does the LUU–5/B target marker produce? a. Red light. b. Green light. c. White light. d. Yellow light. |
b. Green light.
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What output does the LUU–19 series illumination flare produce? a. Red light. b. Green light. c. Visible light. d. Light in the near-infrared region. |
d. Light in the near-infrared region.
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In which direction are flares launched from the SUU–25E/A flare dispenser? a. Downward. b. Rearward. c. Sideward. d. Forward. |
b. Rearward
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What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU–25E/A dispenser? a. ARD 446–1. b. ARD 863–1. c. MK2 Mod 0. d. MK107 Mod 0. |
b. ARD 863–1.
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The gas pressure produced by the impulse in an SUU–25 ejects the flare at a speed of approximately a. 50 feet per second (fps). b. 60 (fps). c. 65 (fps). d. 75 (fps). |
c. 65 (fps).
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What are initiators, found in cartridge-actuated devices (CAD), designed to do? a. Supply gas pressure to operate other CADs. b. Supply gas pressure to remove aircraft canopies. c. Eject external stores. d. Eject seats. |
a. Supply gas pressure to operate other CADs.
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What are removers, found in cartridge-actuated devices (CAD), designed to do? a. Remove obstacles from the ejecting pilot’s path. b. Remove the aircraft seat from the aircraft. c. Eject crew members safely. d. Eject aircraft canopy. |
d. Eject aircraft canopy. |
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What are the two types of impulse cartridges found in propellant-actuated devices (PADS)? a. Electric and gas. b. Explosive and gas. c. Percussion and electric. d. Explosive and nonexplosive. |
d. Explosive and nonexplosive. |
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What must you do before you handle any impulse cartridge? a. Ensure service life is not expired. b. Ensure shelf life is not expired. c. Install shorting clips. d. Ground yourself. |
d. Ground yourself.
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