2T370

Front 1

Statistically, which factor contributes to over 90 percent of most accidents?

Back 1

Human Error

Front 2

Which maintenance sections must an unathorized personnel coordinate with to gain access to vehicle maintenace shops?

Back 2

CSC& VM&A

Front 3

what process causes the most equipment damage and personnel injury in a vehicle maintenance shop?

Back 3

Moving vehicles

Front 4

What is the definition of a confinded space?

Back 4

Enclosed area that may have contained flammable or toxic material

Front 5

What is a good rule of thumb concerning wear of jewelry in the shop?

Back 5

Leave your jewelry at home

Front 6

which vehicle maintenace shop requires the two person concept?

Back 6

refuiling maintenace

Front 7

what is the mazimum ohm rating that a static ground in a refueling shop can have?

Back 7

10000 ohm

Front 8

what does an explosimeter detect?

Back 8

excessive fuel vapor to air concentations.

Front 9

how long do you maintain an AF Form 55 after an individual has separated or retired

Back 9

12months

Front 10

What is considered to be tyhe major cause of back injuries on the job?

Back 10

Improper lifting techniques

Front 11

what orgnaization do you contact if you suspect an area might contain a noise hazard?

Back 11

base bioenviromental.

Front 12

which vehicle maintenace shop can be the most dangerous to work in?

Back 12

Tire shop

Front 13

what is the single most important factor related to shop safety?

Back 13

Common sense

Front 14

When on the job, what must be the mechanic's most important consideration?

Back 14

Doing the job safely.

Front 15

Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) Standard 48-21, Hazard communication, covers all of the following, except

A) sets minimum requirements for activities that handle or use hazardous material.
B)sets minimum requirements for activities that handle or use hazardous waste
C)provides guidance for informing employees about hazardous materials
D)provides guidance for the AF hazard communication program.

Back 15

sets minimum requirements for activities that handle or use hazardous waste.

Front 16

what does the af Ovvupational safety and health standard 91-12 machinery, require for the use of abrasive wheel machinery in the shop?

Back 16

the machine must be mounted and the grinding wheels guarded.

Front 17

what personal protective equipment is required when personnel are working in the refueling shop?

Back 17

cotton/polyester uniform

Front 18

when operating a wire wheel that has an eye shield, AF occupational safety and health standards require personnel wear?

Back 18

safety glasses

Front 19

Which AF occupational safety and health standard covers vehilcle maintenace battery shops?

Back 19

91-32 emergency shower and eyewash units

Front 20

where can you get a copy of the msds if yours is missing?

Back 20

civil engineering enviromental flight

Front 21

keeping a comlete file of msds for each hazardous chemical and mixture used in the workplace

Back 21

can effectively reduce waste

Front 22

when detemining what type of fire extinguisher to use on a chemical fire, you should know the chemicals

Back 22

specific gravity

Front 23

what basic duty do vehicle maintenance shops have for hazardous waste managemnet?

Back 23

Collect, identify, and document waste produced.

Front 24

who must determine whether a solid waste is hazardous, as defined in the regulations?

Back 24

person who generated it.

Front 25

which hazardous waste will most likely be generated by vehicle maintenance shops?

Back 25

degreasing solvent

Front 26

What is the best definition of a hazardous waste generator?

Back 26

anyone who first produced the waste

Front 27

At a minimum, how long must hazardous waste records be maintained after the initial shipmnet is made?

Back 27

3 years

Front 28

At or near the point of generation, a generator may be allowed to accumulate

Back 28

55 gallons of hazardous waste or 1 quart of acutely hazardous waste

Front 29

which country is the largest user of energy

Back 29

US

Front 30

What is the best thing individuals can do to help reduce air pollution?

Back 30

Use public transportation where practical.

Front 31

What can individuals do to help reduce water pollution?

Back 31

Turn in used oil to recycling centers

Front 32

an effective self inspection program checks performance indicators, monitors the organizations most serious concerns and

Back 32

reminds the people of their priorities

Front 33

self inspection responsibilities for squadron commanders are to appoint a squadron monitor and alternate

Back 33

request Si staff assistance visits and approve all squadron OPRs

Front 34

the best way to conduct a thorough self-inspection spot check ist to

Back 34

use an SI check list

Front 35

if you are required to prepare a written report after a self inspection

Back 35

immediately report all safety items to the VMM or VMS before you start the written report

Front 36

After the flight monitor compiles all self inspectin reports the reports are forwarded to the

Back 36

squadron monitor.

Front 37

What is especially useful in identifying best practices from other maintenance activities

Back 37

inspection crossfeeds.

Front 38

as a supervisor your main purpose and responsivility is to

Back 38

implement approved policy by leading airmen of lower grades

Front 39

Some specific responsibilites of a work center supervisor include

Back 39

ensuring proper tools are readily available assigning work, enforcing safety procedures and meeting training needs.

Front 40

who is the focal pointy for coordinating and generating all work through your shop?

Back 40

VM&A

Front 41

Aside from VM&A and Materiel control what other two shops will mainshop supervisors coordinate with daily

Back 41

Tire and Body

Front 42

One of the best ways to interviewindividuals to find out how much they know about their job is to

Back 42

simultaneously conduct informal feedback sessions and review their OJT records

Front 43

in general an initial feedback session is held within 30days of

Back 43

a CRO, or the closeout of an EPR that was not due to a CRO

Front 44

A ratee may rquest a feedback session from his or her rater at any time

Back 44

provided that 60days have passed since the last feedback

Front 45

when would you pull a mechanic off a job and place him or her on another

Back 45

when a higher priority vehicle needs repair and mission requirements are impacted.

Front 46

as a supervisor how should you assign a specific repair to individuals

Back 46

by ability and knowledge

Front 47

Choose the phrase that best describes personnel

Back 47

the military personnel that fill the positions required to accomplish a particular mission

Front 48

What is a vehicle equivalent

Back 48

A numeric value assigned to a vehicle based on its maintenace complexity

Front 49

which statement best describes the man hour availability factor

Back 49

the amount of time an individual is normally available to do the task identified in the AFMS

Front 50

where can you find information on how manpower variabces affect specific bases

Back 50

AFMS

Front 51

What is one of the biggest contributions you can make to supply discipline

Back 51

avoid requesting more than is needed

Front 52

how many categories of property are in the supply system

Back 52

2

Front 53

What type of equipment item is required by field units to do their jobs

Back 53

Organizational

Front 54

what document is used when outfitting a specific shop with equipment

Back 54

ASC 457

Front 55

items that are needed to outfit an individual stationed in cold weather area are called

Back 55

Equipment

Front 56

what is the code used to idnetify repairable cycle assets that are primarily under depot level control?

Back 56

XD

Front 57

for vehicle maintenance shops a repairable item is as important as a servicable item

Back 57

Becaouse it maybe the only source of supply

Front 58

Consumables are expendable nonrepairable items that have the idnetifying indicator

Back 58

XB

Front 59

which publication is used to idnetify shop specific equipment by type and quantity

Back 59

ASC 457

Front 60

what pumvlications are used as source documents for individual toolboxes

Back 60

ASC 403& GSA catalogs

Front 61

the main objective of management and equipment evaluation program is to

Back 61

Enhance transportation and civil engineering by idnetifying more effective and economical equipmnet

Front 62

under the USAF War mobilization plan, orgnaizations having common distinguishing characteristics are categorized by the

Back 62

UTC

Front 63

What role does the LRS play in the war planning process

Back 63

provide necessary forces to accomplish the in theatre mission

Front 64

during which war planning phase are forces selected and time phased

Back 64

III, Plan development

Front 65

what is the computer supported datavase portion of an operation plan called

Back 65

TPFDD

Front 66

who is responisvle for developing the concept of oprerations upon receipt of tasking to support a national security objective and military objectives

Back 66

Supported Commander

Front 67

Of the following which is not deployable as an individual unit? a. AEW
b. AEG
c. AES
d. AEF

Back 67

AEF

Front 68

to support the USAF's War Mobilization Plan on function of vehicle maintenance is to

Back 68

determine equipment suited for deployment

Front 69

during wartime which factor would most likely drive a lower leverl of serviceablilty compared to peacetime operations

Back 69

spare parts availability

Front 70

for how many days after arrival to a forward location can a maintenance documentation be limited to AF Forms 1823, 1827, and 1832

Back 70

twenty

Front 71

Which data source provides the national command authourities a measure of a unit's existing resources and state of training against its mission requirements

Back 71

SORTS

Front 72

How many levels of unit combat readiness are there for status of resources and training systems reporting

Back 72

five

Front 73

Which status of resources and training systems unit combat rating equals substantially combat ready

Back 73

C-2

Front 74

which areas are measured to determin the objective factors that primarily determine the status of resources and training systems level of readiness

Back 74

equipment condition, equipment on hand, and training

Front 75

the overall combat readiness rating in the status of resources and trainging systems is detemined by the

Back 75

unit commander

Front 76

the term used for the act of marshalling assembilng or bringing together forces and their equipment to prepare for action is

Back 76

mobility

Front 77

who is responsible for ensuring their people are proplerly trained and evaluated and records are maintained

Back 77

UDM

Front 78

In which workcenter is the movement of cargo and personnel monitored an coordinated

Back 78

CDF

Front 79

the resonsiblity for insuring vehicles to be deployed are ready to load belongs to the

Back 79

UDCC

Front 80

on an internal combustion engine as the piston begines the intake stroke

Back 80

the intake valve is open and the exhaust valve is closed

Front 81

which of the following statements best describes an ihead engine

Back 81

both the intake and exhaust valeves are in teh cylinder head

Front 82

the most vommon way to drive the camshaft on a single overhead camshaft engine is by using

Back 82

a timeing belt

Front 83

the two types of cylindersleeves are

Back 83

wet and dry

Front 84

the function of a crankshaft's counterweights is to

Back 84

prevent vibrations of the crankshaft

Front 85

on engines that use auxilary balance shafts the shafts rotate at

Back 85

twice the speed of the crankshaft

Front 86

what types of vearings are nomally used for crankshaft main bearings

Back 86

split sleeve

Front 87

what radiator cap pressure valve assembly component holds the valve against the seal?

Back 87

a calibrated spring

Front 88

the function of the vacuum valve in the radiator cap is to

Back 88

prevent the radiator for collapsing

Front 89

the main components of a typical air operated shutter system are the shutters,

Back 89

shutterstat, air cylinder and air filter

Front 90

what component is the power unit for operation of a shutterstat system

Back 90

air cylinder

Front 91

Which of the following statements best describes fluid coupling fan operation

a. fan speed increases as underhood temperature increases
b. fan speed decreases as under hood temperature increases
c. less oil flows into the fluid coupling as its temperature increases
d. more oil flows into the fluid coupling as its temperature decreasesss

Back 91

fan speed increases as underhood temperature increases

Front 92

the two most common types of engine oil pumps are

Back 92

gear and rotor

Front 93

the releif valve is usually located in the

Back 93

oil pump

Front 94

what does the term full flow design mean

Back 94

all the oil flows through the filter before reaching components

Front 95

the primary difference in lubricatin systems among different models of engines is in how the

Back 95

upper part of the engine is oiled

Front 96

the purpose of windage trays used on some engines is to

Back 96

prevent oil from sloshing

Front 97

what is the angle of most valve seats

Back 97

30 or 45 degrees

Front 98

sodium is used in engine valves to

Back 98

help the valve cool faster

Front 99

in an overhead camshaft engine the valve tappets are loacated

Back 99

between the camshaft and the valve stem

Front 100

what componen restricts air flow through the carburetor throat

Back 100

Venturi

Front 101

the main pars of the float circuit ar the float

Back 101

Bowl, float mechanism, needle, and seat

Front 102

the passage in the carburetor that intersects the idle passage and provides for better fuel atomization is called

Back 102

an air bleed.

Front 103

what carburetor system supplies fuel when the engine runs above low speed?

Back 103

main metering system

Front 104

in a mechanical enrichment system, when the throttle is opened wide, the metering rods

Back 104

are raised out of the jets allowing more fuel to flow.

Front 105

a check valve is located in the accelerator pump discharge passage to

Back 105

prevent air from entering the system as the pump makes its refill stroke

Front 106

what is the most common method used to warm-up the choke spring

Back 106

use electricity to heat the choke

Front 107

the basic difference between a conventional carburetor and a computer-controlled carburetor is the

Back 107

way fuel is metered in the main jets

Front 108

what controls the flow of air to the engine on a multipoint fuel injection system

Back 108

throttle plate

Front 109

which pollutant is a colorless odorless poisonous gas

Back 109

Carbon monoxide (CO)

Front 110

Large quantities of oxides of nitrogen are formed at combustion temperatures of

Back 110

2500-3000 degrees F

Front 111

what component protects the fuel tank from damage in case the vent line is restricted

Back 111

fuel tank cap

Front 112

when the engine is at full throttle and manifold vacuum drops to zero, the positive crankcase ventilating valve (PCV) is

Back 112

closed by spring tension

Front 113

what can be put in a catalytic converter to improve effectiveness during certain conditions

Back 113

fresh air

Front 114

the air injection systems were developed to help rduce

Back 114

HC and CO emissions

Front 115

what catalyst in a catalytic converter converts hydrocarbon and carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide and water

Back 115

Platinum

Front 116

what are the two main forms of substrate material used in catalytic converters

Back 116

pellet and monolith types

Front 117

_________ is not a stage of computer system operation

Back 117

Memorizing

Front 118

An active sensor produces what internally

Back 118

voltage

Front 119

which module processes data from sensors and control units

Back 119

vehicle control

Front 120

current flow through solenoid windings will produce a

Back 120

magnetic field

Front 121

Two stoke cycle engines are equipped with

Back 121

exhaust valves only

Front 122

what type of oil pumps are exclusively used on dielel engines

Back 122

gear

Front 123

a cloudy apperance of diesel fuel may be caused at

Back 123

low temperatures because of the formation of wax crystals

Front 124

the result of a diesel fuel system using a too-low viscosity diesel fuel is the fuel

Back 124

will inadequately lubricate the injectors

Front 125

on some diesel engines the heater element in the fuel filter first operates at

Back 125

58 degrees F

Front 126

what component on some diesel injection pumps controls the amount of fuel that enters the circular charging passage

Back 126

metering valve

Front 127

at what injection pressure is the fuel in the direct injection diesel fuel system regulated?

Back 127

40-60psi

Front 128

what force causes the intensifier piston in the hydraulic actuated electronically controlled unit injectors to be pushed down

Back 128

high oil pressure

Front 129

when the injector solenoid is energized on a direct injection diesel enginge the

Back 129

poppet valve becomes unseated allowing high pressure oil to enter the injector

Front 130

what is the function of the turbo charger wastegate valve

Back 130

allows exhaust gases to bypass the turbine wheel

Front 131

what is used to protect the main terminal for the glow plug controller

Back 131

fusible link

Front 132

which switch is wired between the glow plug relay and the controller to prolong glow plug life an reduce glow plug cycles

Back 132

glow plug temperature inhibit

Front 133

what component provides vacuum to operate the exhaust gas recirculation valve

Back 133

belt driven vacuum pump

Front 134

the purpose of the exhaust gas recirculation system is to lower the formation of

Back 134

oxides of nitrogen

Front 135

what is the normal prssure range of a compressed natural gas cylinder

Back 135

2400-3600 psi

Front 136

the timing adaption system on a compressed natural vehicle

Back 136

controls engine timing

Front 137

the inverter on an elecric automovile changes

Back 137

direct current to alternating current

Front 138

what is used to charge the 12 volt battery on an electric automobile

Back 138

a DC-DC converter

Front 139

What theory are fuel cells based on

Back 139

reverse electrolysis

Front 140

what is a by product of a fuel cell

Back 140

water

Front 141

what does a catalyst do in a fuel cell

Back 141

accelerates the reverse electrolysis reaction

Front 142

what is a catalyst used on some types of fuel cells

Back 142

platinum

Front 143

Electricity is produced by atom to atom transfer of

Back 143

electrons

Front 144

the brushes and slip rings in an alternator

Back 144

provide a means of connecting the field windings to an outside source of current

Front 145

Alternator output is controlled by controlling the

Back 145

amount of current flow through the rotor

Front 146

what can supplement or replace the conventional voltage regulator on a computer controlled alternator

Back 146

power train control module

Front 147

most automotive starters contain

Back 147

four brushes and four field coils

Front 148

in a solenoid actuated starter the shift fork is moved to its original position when the solenoid coil is deactivated by a spring in the

Back 148

solenoid housing and spring on the overrunning clutch

Front 149

what component actuates the starter drive in a positive engagement starter

Back 149

moveable pole shoe

Front 150

what component is responsible for opening the set of grounding contacts in a positive engagement starter

Back 150

an extension of the movable pole shoe

Front 151

what is the primary difference between permenent magnet starters and conventional starters?

Back 151

permanent magnent starters have no field coils

Front 152

what compoent forces the ignition breaker points to open

Back 152

distrubutor cam lobe

Front 153

what factor determines a spark plugs heat range

Back 153

the length of the insulator tip

Front 154

what component in an electronic ignition system performs the same function as the points perform in a conventional ignition system

Back 154

control module

Front 155

what type of material must a hall effect switch have to function

Back 155

semi conductor

Front 156

what type of pickup is used in an optical pick up system

Back 156

photo diode

Front 157

a spark plug firing sooner on the engines compression stroke is known as

Back 157

timing advance

Front 158

what are the three main types of computer system components

Back 158

input, ouput, and processing and storage

Front 159

what component within the engine computer is known as the calculating part of the computer

Back 159

microprocessor

Front 160

what type of computer memory is erased automatiaclly when the engine is shut off

Back 160

Random access memory (RAM)

Front 161

what type of computer memory stores permanent information

Back 161

Read only memory (ROM)

Front 162

liquid crystal displays use what type of panels to illuminate a dash display

Back 162

semi conductor

Front 163

what component allows the operator to input data to the instrumentation computer

Back 163

driver informaiton center

Front 164

what is used as a quick referance chart for following and understandking a schematic

Back 164

legend

Front 165

what type of schematic shows a repersentation of actual component by using symbols

Back 165

diagram

Front 166

fluid power refers to the

Back 166

engergy transmitted via a fluid under pressure

Front 167

what is meant by a tandem hydraulic pump

Back 167

two pumps connected together operating seperate systems (one input shaft)

Front 168

a hydraulic actuator converts pressure energy to

Back 168

mechanical energy

Front 169

what component converts fluid power to linear mechanical power

Back 169

cylinder

Front 170

what is the purpose of an accumulator

Back 170

store energy and keep system pressure relatively constant

Front 171

a small amount of metal debris on the magnet of a manual transmission case indicates

Back 171

normal engine wear

Front 172

what componet is not a major shaft found in a manual transmission

Back 172

reverse

Front 173

on a typical manual transmission, the filrst, second, third, fifth, and reverse gears will ride on the machined journals of the

Back 173

main shaft

Front 174

why are helical cut gears rather than straight cut gears used in todays manual transmission

Back 174

less noise is produced

Front 175

which gear ratio gives you the best overdrive gear range

Back 175

0.79:1

Front 176

how is the clutch pressure plate mounted

Back 176

bolted to the engine flywheel

Front 177

the clutch release bearing fits on the

Back 177

release fork

Front 178

what is meant by the axis on a gear

Back 178

the centerline around which a gear, wheel, or shaft rotates

Front 179

in a gear set the drive member is known as the

Back 179

input member

Front 180

what component drives the input shaft which in turn drives the forward clutch cylinder in neutral operation of a typical automatic transmission

Back 180

torque converter turbine

Front 181

what is the typical gear ratio for an automatic transmission in third gear

Back 181

1:1

Front 182

during fluid coupling the driving member of a torque converter is the

Back 182

impeller

Front 183

the inner race of the torque converter stator's one-way clutch is mounted on

Back 183

a splined support on the transmission pump housing

Front 184

whatin a torque converter, the multiplication phase occurs when

Back 184

fluid leaving the turbine vanes strikes the front fo the stator vanes

Front 185

which pump is not a typical automatic transmission pump type

Back 185

lobe

Front 186

what type of valve will increase hydraulic pressure during certain operating conditions like acceleration in an automatic transmission

Back 186

boost

Front 187

what valve type controls the direction and distribution of fluid flow in an hydraulic system

Back 187

flow directing

Front 188

what automatic transmission valve circuit transforms engine load into a pressure signal used to control the shift valves

Back 188

throttle

Front 189

what type if linkage configureation is not typical hydraulic actuator configuration used in an automatic transmission

Back 189

cam and lever

Front 190

in an automatic transmission, the check ball in the multiple-disc clutch housing is used to

Back 190

allow oil to exit the cylinder bore during certain conditions

Front 191

a torque converter clutch will now apply when

Back 191

the throttle is closed

Front 192

what must be accomplished before you can shift in or out of 4 low (4L) and neutral in a typical transfer case?

Back 192

stop the vehicle

Front 193

what component is not controlled by an electronic control module in and electronic shift transfer case

Back 193

mode selection switch

Front 194

the speed sensor, mounted on the rear of an electronically controlled transfer case provides information to the electronic control module that is used to

Back 194

determine the range shifts

Front 195

what manual-locking front axle hub component forces the inner clutch ring over the axle shaft sleeve when the hub control is turned to the lock position

Back 195

pressure spring

Front 196

one common way to unlock automatic locking hubs is to slow down, move the shifter from four-wheel drive to two and the hubs will disengage while continuing to drive forward. another method is to change transfer case range and unlock the hubs is to

Back 196

move the shifter from 4wd to 2wd, stop and then move the vehicle in the opposite direction

Front 197

what is the term that generally refers to the parts that transfer power from a vehicle's transmission to its drive wheels

Back 197

driveline

Front 198

what type of bearings are used in cross and roller universal joints (u-joints)

Back 198

needle

Front 199

a removable carrier-type differential is arranged so the entire assembly can be removed from the

Back 199

axle housing

Front 200

with what type of axle assembly can you remove the axle shaft without removing the wheels

Back 200

full floating

Front 201

transaxle refers to

Back 201

a transmission and a differential combined in a single assembly

Front 202

what should you do if you find a constant celocity joint (CV-joint) boot with a small tear but no grease leaking out from it

Back 202

replace the boot

Front 203

what is the most common type of front driveaxle malfunction

Back 203

a worn constant velocity joint (CV-joint)

Front 204

in an effort to prevent mismatched rim components, what does federal law require?

Back 204

the rim size and type must be stamped on the wheel and rim components

Front 205

which type of small wheel and tire assembly is usually found on the steering axle of special purpose industrial vehicles

Back 205

split rim

Front 206

what component is not part of a three piece wheel assembly

Back 206

split side ring

Front 207

what piece of equipment can be utilized to prevent back injuries when removing a heavy and awkward wheel and tire assembly

Back 207

wheel dolly

Front 208

when initially inflating a tire that has been rebuilt you only want to inflate the tire to approximately 15psi because this

Back 208

ensures that all the components have seated properly

Front 209

what does a static imbalance cause on a wheel and tire assembly

Back 209

vibration up and down

Front 210

the track rod is used in the rear suspension of some vehicles to prevent

Back 210

side to side movement of the axle

Front 211

ball joints are connected to the control arm by all of the following methods except

Back 211

welding

Front 212

what prevents the vehicle from bouncing too much when going over a bump

Back 212

shock absorbers

Front 213

in the vehicle suspension system how are the ends of the stabilizer bar connected

Back 213

each end is linked to each side of the suspension

Front 214

what type of suspension leveling system incorporates air shocks a height sensor and a compressor

Back 214

automatic

Front 215

in a parallelogram steering system the steering gear is connected to the rest of the steering linkage by a

Back 215

pitman arm

Front 216

in a parallelogram steering system the movement of the pitman arm is transmitted to the tie rods by

Back 216

a center link

Front 217

in a parallelogram steering system the outer tie rod is connected to

Back 217

a steering arm

Front 218

the two most common types of power steering pumps are

Back 218

vane and slipper

Front 219

in the vane type power steering pump what causes the vanes to move out against the inner surface of the cam ring as the rotor begins to turn

Back 219

centrifugal force

Front 220

what power steering pump component uses pressure differential to regulate the volume of fluid leaving the pump

Back 220

flow control valve

Front 221

in an external power steering system what is connected directly to the steering center link and pitman arm on the steering gear

Back 221

a control valve

Front 222

in a power rack and pinion steering gear the two hydraulic chambers in the housing are divided or separated by the

Back 222

rack piston

Front 223

when the rear of the tires is closer together than the front of the tires describes what alignment angle

Back 223

toe out

Front 224

the usual cause of an out of specification steering axis inclination is a

Back 224

bent steering knuckle

Front 225

the most common cause of premature tire wear is

Back 225

improper tire pressure

Front 226

a thrust angle is when the

Back 226

front wheels are aligned in relation to the rear wheels

Front 227

what is the purpose of a brake booster

Back 227

assist brake pedal application

Front 228

brake fluid that should be free flowing at all temperatures refers to

Back 228

viscosity

Front 229

which types of brake fluid can be mixed together

Back 229

DOT3 & DOT4

Front 230

brake fluid contaminated with a petroleum based substance is indicated by

Back 230

swollen rubber parts

Front 231

which vehicle is most likely to be equipped with a single master cylinder

Back 231

tug

Front 232

what master cylinder component allows fluid to enter the rear of the cylinder as the piston is pushed forward during brake application

Back 232

intake port

Front 233

why are the master cylinders piston cups designed to deflect during brake release

Back 233

to prevent a vacuum from developing in front of the piston

Front 234

what light duty hydro-booster system component makes some power assisted brake applications possible if steering pump pressure fails

Back 234

accumulator

Front 235

what hydro-max booster system component provides hydraulic power for reserve stops if the hydraulic pump fails

Back 235

electric motor pump

Front 236

in a non-servo brake the brake shoes are held against the backing plate by

Back 236

hold down springs

Front 237

on a system with basic cable automatic adjustment mechanism the cables eye is attached to the

Back 237

anchor pin

Front 238

what component of the one shot automatic adjustment mechanism meshes with the teeth of the adjuster strut

Back 238

adjuster quadrant

Front 239

in a disc brake system what caliper component forces the piston back into the bore after the brakes are released

Back 239

seal

Front 240

what caliper type is not rigidly mounted to the steering knuckle

Back 240

floating/sliding

Front 241

in a disc brake system a fixed caliper is attached to the steering knuckle with

Back 241

bolts

Front 242

when does maximum braking action occur

Back 242

just before wheel lockup

Front 243

what anti-lock brake system type has a standard master cylinder which is separate from the hydraulic actuator

Back 243

non-integral

Front 244

how many wheel speed sensors are generally found on a three channel anti-lock brake system

Back 244

4

Front 245

the rear wheel speed sensor for generic rear anti-lock brake systems is located on the

Back 245

differential

Front 246

what is the purpose of an exciter ring in the rear wheel anti-lock brake system on a vehicle with a differential mounted speed sensor

Back 246

produces a pulsing voltage signal as the exciter ring teeth pass the rear wheel speed sensor, which is the interpreted by the electronic control unit

Front 247

to send a signal to the electronic brake control module the vehicle speed sensor calibrator changes the

Back 247

analog signals to digital signals

Front 248

the major components of a hydraulic control valve include all of the following except the

a. isolation valve and solenoid
b. valve and solenoid
c. flow switch
d. accumulator

Back 248

flow switch

Front 249

when anti-lock braking is required what component prevents rear wheel lock up as needed

Back 249

isolation/dump solenoid valves

Front 250

on a vehicle equipped with a rear wheel anti-lock system, energizing what hydraulic control valve component prevents master cylinder pressure from reaching the rear brakes

Back 250

isolation valve

Front 251

in a four channel anti-lock brake system how many electro-hydraulic valves are found in the system

Back 251

4

Front 252

if the amber warning is turned on in a four channel anti-lock brake system what system component is disabled

Back 252

ABS

Front 253

how does a wheel speed sensor generate and send a voltage signal to the computer

Back 253

magnetic induction

Front 254

what is the purpose of a hydraulic spring accumulator in an anti-lock brake modulator assembly

Back 254

store pressurized brake fluid for use during anti-lock brake operations

Front 255

where is the differential pressure switch located on an anti-lock brake system

Back 255

on the junction block

Front 256

if a trailer has an electric brake system the emergency brake away regulation requires that the trailer be provided with what

Back 256

battery back up

Front 257

what is required as an additional component for a hydraulic drum brake system on a trailer to reduce hydraulic pressure and deactivate the brakes when backing up

Back 257

reverse solenoid

Front 258

with electric brakes as power is applied to the electromagnets in the brake cluster, what component applies the brake shoes to the drum

Back 258

magnets pull directly on the brake shoes

Front 259

Most air compressors are lubricated by using oil

Back 259

from the engine oil

Front 260

which air system reservoir is connected to the output line of the air compressor

Back 260

supply

Front 261

which air system reservoir supplies the rear brakes with air pressure

Back 261

primary

Front 262

which air system reservoir supplies the front brakes with air pressure

Back 262

secondary

Front 263

which air system component protects against excessive air pressure build up in the event of governor failure

Back 263

safety valve in the supply tank

Front 264

what air system circuit component closes the primary exhaust valve when the foot valve is applied

Back 264

primary piston

Front 265

the main difference between a floor mounted foot valve and a suspended type foot valve is the

Back 265

way they are mounted

Front 266

what air brake component is connected to the relay valves supply port by an air line

Back 266

reservoir

Front 267

in order to release the parking brakes how is the parking brake control valve actuated

Back 267

pushing the button in

Front 268

what valve protects the truck's air system if there is an air loss in the trailer's air system

Back 268

Tractor protection valve

Front 269

a simple brake chamber's body and cover are held together by

Back 269

A Clamp

Front 270

to service the basic parking brake chamber you must manually cage the power spring by

Back 270

using a special release stud

Front 271

on the manual slack adjuster, what component prevents the adjusting screw from inadvertently turning

Back 271

lock-sleve

Front 272

what are the main components of the wedge asssembly

Back 272

wedge, roller cage, and return spring

Front 273

where is the front tone ring mounted on an anti-lock air brake system

Back 273

spindle

Front 274

what shuts down the central tire inflation system if air pressure drops below 80 PSI

Back 274

CTIS low-pressure switch

Front 275

the failure of the central tire inflation system to function properly is caused by the flollowing conditions except

a. air system leak
b. malfunctioning controller
c. faulty vavle or defective solenoid
d. terrain switch set for wrong driving conditions

Back 275

Terrain switch set for wrong driving conditions

Front 276

when checking the central tire inflation system main control valve for propler valve actuation you heard an audible click what does this mean

Back 276

the valves are operating correctly

Front 277

what typer of restraint is an air bag.

Back 277

passive

Front 278

in an air bag system, how is the inflator assembly electrically connected between the safing sensor and crash sensors

Back 278

in series

Front 279

which location is not a common location of the safing sensor

Back 279

inside the trunk

Front 280

what component is responsivle for transferring electricity from the steering column to the inflator on an air bag equipped vehicle

Back 280

Clock spring

Front 281

how long will the air bag diagnostic monitor store a back up power charge after the battery is disconnected

Back 281

30 Mins

Front 282

what is the minimum amount of time you should allow an air bag to cool before handling it after deployment

Back 282

10 mins

Front 283

how many resistor coils of the resistor block are in series with the blower motor when the blower switch is in the "HI" position

Back 283

None

Front 284

an air conditioning system cools the passenger compartment by

Back 284

absorbing heat with an evaporator

Front 285

what chemicla is R-12 composed of that makes it harmfull to the ozone layer

Back 285

chlorofluorocarbon

Front 286

what kind of compressor oil is used in refrigeration systems

Back 286

R-12 uses mineral based oil
R-134a uses polyalkylene glycol

Front 287

what is the function of the fixed orifice tube

Back 287

provides a restriction to refrigerant flow entering the evaporator

Front 288

what component of a fixed orifice tube system is designed to prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor

Back 288

reciever dryer

Front 289

if not on the receiver/dryer, where is the sight glass normally located on vehicles so equiped

Back 289

in the liquid line between the condensor and evaporator

Front 290

what kind of compressor constantly produces the same output volume of refrigerant relative to revolutions per minute

Back 290

Fixed displacement

Front 291

How many cylinders are contained in radial compressor and what kind of displacement is produced

Back 291

Four; fixed displacement

Front 292

what kind of force locks the compressor's hub and pulley together

Back 292

Magnetic

Front 293

the unique feature of the high mobility mutipurpose wheeled vehicle differential is that they are

Back 293

interchangeable

Front 294

what is the max speed for hmmwv runflats if the two rear tires are punctured

Back 294

20 mph

Front 295

what is the drawbar pull rating of the MS51335 pintle hook assembly

Back 295

18000 lbs

Front 296

what gauge wire does most M-series automotive circuits use

Back 296

14 gauge

Front 297

what HMMWV starting system component prevents the starter from reengaging while the engine is running

Back 297

protective control box

Front 298

what provides a ground for the HMMWV generating system

Back 298

circuit 3

Front 299

how many forward and reverse gears are available when using the transmission in conjunction with the transfer case on the 2 1/2-ton M-Series

Back 299

eight forward and two reverse

Front 300

what major exterior components of the 5 ton mseries permit towing by another vehicle

Back 300

lifting shackles

Front 301

which component on the 5ton mseries front winch engages the winch drum gear to the drive gear of the winch motor

Back 301

clutch lever

Front 302

what hydraulic component is primarily used to rescue vehicles that become deeply stuck

Back 302

rear winch

Front 303

what major component for raising and lowering the wrecker crane eleminates twisting of the hydraulic lines connecting reservoir to the stationary pump

Back 303

swivel valve

Front 304

which component on the 5 ton mseries front whinch engages the winch drum gear to the drive gear of the winch motor

Back 304

clutch lever

Front 305

what hydraulic component is primarily used to rescue vehicles that have become deeply stuck

Back 305

rear winch

Front 306

what major component for raising and lowering the wrecker crane eliminates twisting of the hydraulic lines connecting reservoir to the stationary pump

Back 306

swivel vavle

Front 307

the fuel injectors on the maxxpro cat1 vehicle are actuated by

Back 307

high pressure oil

Front 308

the run flat on the maxpro cat1 vehicle allows the vehicle to operate at speeds up to

Back 308

35 miles per hour for 30 miles

Front 309

what voltages can the electrical system of the maxpro cat 1 protected vehicle provide

Back 309

12,24, and 110v

Front 310

which areas protected by the fire supperssion system on the maxpro cat 1 vehicle operate manually

Back 310

fuel tank and tires

Front 311

on the maxpro cat 1 vehicle, which armor component attaches externally to the base armor

Back 311

catcher plates

Front 312

on the maxpro cat 1 vehicle, which armor component attaches to brakets and is held several inches from the vehicle body

Back 312

effector assemblies

Front 313

on the maxpro cat 1 vehicle what assists the operator in opening and closing the forward doors

Back 313

air

Front 314

on the maxpro cat1 vehicle what assists the operator in opening and closing the rear door/ramp

Back 314

hydraulics

Front 315

what condition does the nuclear biological chemical system in the couger cat 2 vehicle create in the cab

Back 315

pressurized

Front 316

the ballistic glass on the cougar 6x6 cat 2 vehicle is protected by

Back 316

laminates

Front 317

what part of the crane includes the engine transmission and drive axles

Back 317

carrier assembly

Front 318

what does the crane's digital engine monitor display if a critical fault if found

Back 318

warning, the fault code and its description

Front 319

which best describes the arva crane axle locks

Back 319

hydraulic cylinders connected to the transmission

Front 320

brake fluid pressure in the arva crane brake system in supplied by the

Back 320

15 gallon per min hydraulic pump

Front 321

the hydraulic pump on the arva crane is a

Back 321

tandem gear type pump

Front 322

what do the crane's joystick manipulators use to manipulate the main control valve spools

Back 322

pilot pressure

Front 323

how many rated capacity indicator system transmitters are on the crane

Back 323

2

Front 324

if the crane goes into a two block condition which functions are disabled

Back 324

boom down, winch up, boom extend

Front 325

what is used in place of the older, standard control cables to provide more precise operation of the controls on the crawler tractor

Back 325

hydraulics

Front 326

oil pressure at the bottom side of the shigt lever spool valve on the crawler tractor is used to

Back 326

lock the shift lever into position

Front 327

the parking brake used on the crawler tractor is

Back 327

external contracting

Front 328

how many spool valves are in the main control valve on the crawler tractor

Back 328

2

Front 329

what type of pilot pump is used for the hydraulic implement system on the crawler tractor

Back 329

gear type

Front 330

what crawler tractor component provides the connectin between the final drive and the track

Back 330

drive sprocket

Front 331

how many forward and reverse gears are produced by the MB-4's transmission

Back 331

four forward and one reverse

Front 332

in the event of a hydraulic pump failure or when the mb4 needs to be towed what can you use to release the parking brake if the engine is inoperable

Back 332

use a hand pump to pressureize the system

Front 333

what component stops the air compressor from continually compressing air

Back 333

governor

Front 334

the p19 power divider is mounted on the flywheel housing between the

Back 334

engine and transmission

Front 335

which p19 component allows the operator to maneuver the vehicle while pumping water or foam

Back 335

modulating clutch

Front 336

the p19 water pump clutch is a

Back 336

dry-type, snap over center clutch

Front 337

what min air pressure activates the p19 water pump clutch air chamber

Back 337

90psi

Front 338

which p19 componet lubricates the moculating clutch center output shaft and all gears within the power divider

Back 338

gear type pump

Front 339

which p19 component controls the power divider low oil light that is located on the cab dash

Back 339

flow switch

Front 340

the p19 controlled traction clutch pack applies when an operator engages the

Back 340

differential lock switch

Front 341

what must you do before filling the p19 water tank from a hydrant

Back 341

open the top hatch

Front 342

all piping on the p19 is made of `

Back 342

stainless steel, bronze or brass

Front 343

which two p19 components make up the foam proportioning system

Back 343

multimetering manifold and enductor

Front 344

the p19 multimetering manifold delivers foam consentrate using three orifice controlled by

Back 344

air valves

Front 345

the p19 dispensing system pressure relief vavle is located in the system piping

Back 345

onthe outlet side of the water pump

Front 346

which p19 dispensing system valv econtrols the operation of the pressure relief valve

Back 346

piolot relief valve

Front 347

the p19 roof turrent is a remote

Back 347

manual type

Front 348

the p19 dispensing system hose reel is returned to the stored positino

Back 348

electrically or manually

Front 349

where are the p19 winterization system controls located

Back 349

left dash panel

Front 350

the p19 winterization system consist of how many systems

Back 350

three

Front 351

in order to purge the combustion chamber of unburned fuel and fumes after combustion stops, the p19 winterization system booster heater blower motor relay should remain closed for

Back 351

2 1/2 to 3 mins

Front 352

the p19 air system uses a three way control valve commonly called the

Back 352

agent selection valve

Front 353

the main purpose of the air double check valve is to

Back 353

direct air pressure to various components

Front 354

the p19 air system inversion valve piston is forced back to the normal position by

Back 354

a spring

Front 355

the p23 torque converter/power divider is connected to the agent water pump drive by the

Back 355

pto

Front 356

during a fire fighting operation the p23 power divider agent pump clutch is engaged from the cab by using the

Back 356

electric swich

Front 357

how many nine inch rockford clutch pack assemblies are in the p23 transmission

Back 357

1

Front 358

what is the overall lubrication capacity of the p23 transmission

Back 358

120 quarts

Front 359

how many on off solenoides does the p23 transmission control module control

Back 359

6

Front 360

the electronic pressure regulator in the p23's despensing system is located

Back 360

inside the shift tower console

Front 361

what term do we use to describe the foam propotioning system used on the p23's despensing system

Back 361

around the pump

Front 362

how many winterization systems are there on the p23

Back 362

2

Front 363

under normal conditions how often do you change the coalescent filter in the air dryer of the p23

Back 363

annually

Front 364

what color are the axxessory air system lines on the p23

Back 364

yellow

Front 365

on the south west mobile 25k the operation of the hydraulic system is accomplished using hydraulic cylinders which are activated by electrically controlled

Back 365

manifold assemblies

Front 366

on the south west 25k the emergency power source connector is mounted on the side of the

Back 366

battery box

Front 367

on the halverson loader what contains all the switches gauges and indicator lights for starting and shuting down the engine

Back 367

dash panel

Front 368

on the halverson loader what provides the base for mounting front drive steer axle rear axle, power unit, electrical, hydraulic and fuel systems

Back 368

the chassis

Front 369

how does the rear axle on the halverson loader attach to the chassis

Back 369

pivot pins

Front 370

the 60k loader steering system is

Back 370

hydraulic over mechanical

Front 371

if a hydraulic pump on the 60k loader fails what enables continued hydraulic operation

Back 371

crossover manifold

Front 372

what type of drive pump does the 60k loader hydrostatic drive system use

Back 372

swash plate type

Front 373

how many drive hubs on the 60k produce final drive output power from the drive motor to the wheels

Back 373

4

Front 374

what allows for connection of external air pressure on the 60k

Back 374

glad hands

Front 375

what preheats the 60k loader batteries for cold wather starting

Back 375

pan liner

Front 376

what component on the 60k loader is protected from over heating by a circuit breaker in the a16 module

Back 376

emergency power unit

Front 377

what drives the fuel system lift pump on the hyster 10k forklift

Back 377

camshaft eccentric

Front 378

the main hydraulic control valve of the hyster 10k includes

Back 378

4spool valves, four load check valves, and a two stage relief valve

Front 379

what valve on the hyster 10k prevents the carriage from quickly dropping incase of a hydraulic failure

Back 379

fail safe relief valve

Front 380

how are the two 12vt batteries on the cat at wired

Back 380

series

Front 381

what prevents the cat at forklift from aticulating during maintenance procedures

Back 381

steering frame lock link

Front 382

the vehicle frame and body are combined together s a unit in a

Back 382

unitized body

Front 383

what type of frame misalignment do you have if the vehicle receives a side impact collision and the vehicle's rear wheels will not track properly

Back 383

sway

Front 384

if you do not have specialized measuring equipment determining frame misalignment; what other method are you using if you transfer checkpoints to a level floor

Back 384

plum bob

Front 385

what auto body shape has the appearance of a curved surface

Back 385

crown

Front 386

what type of auto body curved surface will not spring back once enough force pushes the body surface out of shape

Back 386

high crown

Front 387

if you are repairing an auto body surface with concave damage which hammer should you use to repair the surface

Back 387

crowned face bumping hammer

Front 388

what auto body repair hammer do you use for finish work

Back 388

dinging

Front 389

what auto body repair tool do you hold against the inside of the body panel to back up the blows of a hammer

Back 389

dolly block

Front 390

how much heavier should a dolly block be than the hammer you are using for body repair

Back 390

three times the weight of the hammer

Front 391

when making auto body repairs with a bumping spoon where do you place the spoon in relationship to the metal surface

Back 391

between the metal surface and the hammer

Front 392

what type of hammer do you use to strike a bumping spoon

Back 392

ball-peen

Front 393

which spoon would you use as a pry tool on a damaged vehicle panel

Back 393

body

Front 394

what do you call the damage to the body panel where there is an increase in surface area

Back 394

stretch

Front 395

after you inspect and analyze the body damage your next step in the straightening is to perform

Back 395

bumping

Front 396

the auto body repair process where you release a stretched area with a cross -peen hammer and a specialized dolly is called

Back 396

cold shrinking

Front 397

in which auto body repair process do you use a torch, a flat faced hammer, dolly block, and a sponge with water

Back 397

hot shrinking

Front 398

when is it necessary for you to measure horizontal and vertical diagonals from a like vehicle of the same model and body design

Back 398

when there is damage to the vehicle on both sides

Front 399

before you apply any heat to any severe body bends for straightening you should first

Back 399

remove any upholstery from around the damaged area

Front 400

what two methods can you use to straighten a deck lid

Back 400

manually and hydraulically

Front 401

estimating guides list vehicle parts in what order

Back 401

front to back, outside to inside

Front 402

what type of vehicle construction requires inspection of undamaged areas unrelated to the actual point of impact

Back 402

unibody

Front 403

before you order any abrasive disc for the circular disc grinder, consult the operators instructions that come with the grinder or

Back 403

mesure across the disc to see what size you have

Front 404

name the two parts of plastic filler that require mixing when applying body filler

Back 404

resin base and catalyst

Front 405

what type of applicator pressure is used when you apply to a metal surface

Back 405

firm hand

Front 406

when you are preparing a fiberglass panel, how much of the total material thickness should you bevel from both accessible sides of the panel

Back 406

1/3

Front 407

which type of plastic softens when heated and hardens as it cools and can be heated/cooled repeatedly with the same result

Back 407

thermoplastic

Front 408

the best way to match up the proper plastic welding rod material with the material being repaired is to

Back 408

match the iso symbol

Front 409

which composite plastic repair uses a backing patch

Back 409

double sided

Front 410

what should you consider when storing vehicle paints

Back 410

weather and extreme temp changes

Front 411

paint flextive agents

Back 411

are usually used in primers and clear coats

Front 412

what is a disadvantage of low VOC paints

Back 412

equipment requirements

Front 413

if the pressure switch malfunctions on the electric motor air compressor excessive air pressure is relieved by the

Back 413

safety valve

Front 414

if the pressure switch malfunctions on the electric motor air compressor excessive air pressure is relieved by the

Back 414

safety valve

Front 415

to control the width of the paint spray pattern on a spray gun adjust the air

Back 415

control screw

Front 416

to comply with some air quality rules relating to VOC, paint gun pressures must be below

Back 416

10 psi

Front 417

which type of HVLP paint systems generates oil free, dry, air and high temps

Back 417

turbine

Front 418

which type of HVLP paint systems uses standard shop compressed air and special orifice to reduce air pressure in the air nozzle

Back 418

step up unit

Front 419

you should adjust the spray gun to operate at the max speed consistent with the paint, rate of flow, body surface, and

Back 419

individual skill

Front 420

before using a paint stripper to remove paint from a vehicle you should consult with

Back 420

environmental or bioenviromental engineering

Front 421

which type of sand paper is good for use on paint finishes

Back 421

silicon carbide

Front 422

you are going to mask an area 31 by 27 inches to do this properly you should cut the masking paper to a dimension of

Back 422

31 1/2 by 27 1/2 inches

Front 423

the type of paint solvent you use will control paint flow and the

Back 423

drying time

Front 424

within what time period should you apply a primer with a spray gun after you clean and prepare the body surface

Back 424

with in 24 hours

Front 425

what type of sanding should you perform after the primer thoroughly dries

Back 425

wet

Front 426

which are properties of the basecoat in the base coat/clear coat paint system

Back 426

it has no shine and is susceptible to the uv rays of the sun

Front 427

at least what grit sandpaper should be used to scuff sand the clearcoat in a base coat/clear coat spot or full panel repair

Back 427

1200

Front 428

allowing the solvents to evaporate between applications of coats (a short period of time) is the definition of

Back 428

flash time

Front 429

what area of the under body do you pay close attention to as you clean the loose under coating rust deposits mud and other foreign material off the vehicle

Back 429

seams welds and corners

Front 430

when cleaning the under body of loose undercoating do not use

Back 430

the steam cleaner

Front 431

you should be sure to keep you hands away from the nozzle of the airless spraying apparatus when applying undercoating because the materiel coming out of the nozzle

Back 431

is under high pressure

Front 432

what allowances must you provide for automotive glass when temperature is a factor

Back 432

expansion and contraction

Front 433

what type of auto glass can be used for replacement of side and rear windows on a vehicle but nota windshield

Back 433

tempered

Front 434

what type of glass is used for a windshield on a vehicle

Back 434

laminated

Front 435

what is the problem if you notice a rainbow or colored spots on a windshield when sunlight strikes it at different angles

Back 435

decomposition of the plastic layer

Front 436

the plastic layer inside the windshield allows for it to bend out of shape after breakage and still provide protection for

Back 436

the vehicle occupants

Front 437

what would you use to install the seal around the rear window glass in a bus

Back 437

window seal installation kit

Front 438

why should you wash the new glass thoroughly with clean water at low pressure after you finish the edges with an edger

Back 438

to remove the grinding compound or grit

Front 439

what device at the bottom of the door window on a vehicle provides support for raising and lowering the window into the door

Back 439

channel

Front 440

how should yo install a channel to the window glass

Back 440

force the channel on the glass

Front 441

regardless of the type of door hinge, what procedure is common to replacing both bolted and welded door hinges

Back 441

marking cribing the position of the old hinge

Front 442

doors are removed from welded on hinges by

Back 442

drilling out the circular welds in the hinge

Front 443

before installing a new door with welded hinges, you should corrosion protect the drilled holes in the pillar with

Back 443

a med bodied sealer

Front 444

what item can save much of the labor involved in hinge replacement

Back 444

bushings

Front 445

if your vehicle has gas filled absorbing bumper unit what actually attaches to the bumper and retracts when the bumper collides with an object

Back 445

piston ram

Front 446

you should never weld on or near a gas filled bumper unit because it could

Back 446

explode

Front 447

during installation of a seat belt as part of an accident repair what should you do with the damaged retractor mounting area

Back 447

return it to the original shape

Front 448

before you do any welding on the frame work of a vehicle seat you must first remove the

Back 448

padding

Front 449

what do some manufactures use for extra strength and support in seat covers

Back 449

bolster wire

Front 450

on what axis is the sewing hook on the 206RB sewing machine and what part drives the hook

Back 450

horizontal, hook driving shaft

Front 451

which component on the sewing machine surrounds the feed dog and keeps the material from slipping

Back 451

needle plate

Front 452

from the thread stand of the sewing machine the thread proceeds next to the

Back 452

tension controller

Front 453

when setting the needle bar on the sewing machine adjust the stitches per inch (SPI) to the

Back 453

8 SPI setting

Front 454

which component do you move to time the sewing hook with the needle

Back 454

hook collar shaft

Front 455

when in time the sewing machine hook will be

Back 455

1/16 inch above the needle eye

Front 456

after how many hours of use should you lubricate the sewing machine

Back 456

4

Front 457

what cooling system component keeps the coolant in the engine until it reaches a certain temp

Back 457

the thermostat

Front 458

as manufacturers lowered hood design on vehicles it became necessary to lower the height of the radiator this brought the creation of the

Back 458

cross flow radiator

Front 459

name the radiator core components that radiate heat away from the coolant flowing through the core

Back 459

fins

Front 460

what device on the combination test bench allows you to submerge the radiator in the test tank

Back 460

elevator work platform

Front 461

before you conduct an oil cooler pressure test you must firs

Back 461

make sure the inlet and outlet openings to the radiator are open

Front 462

what collects and sticks to the interior walls of the entire cooling system and interferes with heat transfer by slowing the circulation of coolant

Back 462

rust and scale

Front 463

forcing water through the radiator in the reverse direction of normal flow is known as

Back 463

back flushing

Front 464

what does the second digit of the SAE metal id number indicate

Back 464

percentage of predominate alloying agent

Front 465

as a safety factor acetylene cylinder valve fittings have

Back 465

left handed threads

Front 466

the oxygen cylinders valve fittings have

Back 466

right handed threads

Front 467

when using acetylene from a cylinder and pressure reducing regulator what is the max useable psi

Back 467

15psi

Front 468

what should you do prior to opening acetylene or oxygen valves with the regulators already installed

Back 468

back off the adjusting screw all the way

Front 469

what should you do prior to installing the regulator on a full unused cylinder

Back 469

open and close the cylinder valve quickly to blow away any debris in the opening of the valve

Front 470

what type of threads do the acetylene hose fittings have

Back 470

left handed

Front 471

which cutting torch conditions will cause small pieces of carbon to float in the surrounding air

Back 471

lighting the torch with only the acetylene valve open

Front 472

when you change an oxyacetylene welding tip to a higher number you increase the

Back 472

volume of the flame

Front 473

how large of a diameter should you maintain the molten metal pool in oxyacetylene welding

Back 473

3/16 to 3/8 inch

Front 474

what technique of oxyacetylene welding would you use for welding heavy metals that require deep penetration

Back 474

weave

Front 475

before you start your oxyacetylene cutting operation why should you pay attention to you surrounding area

Back 475

to prevent sparks from traveling into other work areas

Front 476

what would happen if you were to lay a piece of metal directly on the cement floor and started cutting it with a torch

Back 476

the concrete would explode into little pieces

Front 477

spreading out a thin layer of molten fluxed metal weld ahead of the main deposit is known as

Back 477

tinning

Front 478

what kind of flame is used during silver brazing

Back 478

neutral

Front 479

which part of the flame should be applied to the work in the silver brazing process

Back 479

the outer envelope

Front 480

what is plasma

Back 480

ionized gas

Front 481

which variable determines a plasma cutter's ability to cut thicker metal

Back 481

amperage

Front 482

which component of the plasma torch channels secondary gas or water

Back 482

shield cup

Front 483

what are two consumables in plasma cutter torch

Back 483

electrode and cutting nozzle

Front 484

how long do you purge the plasma gas from the lines after a part change

Back 484

2 to 3 mins

Front 485

what pushes electricity through an electrical circuit as you weld

Back 485

voltage

Front 486

to alter the current setting on an AC arc welder containing a variable resister use the

Back 486

hand wheel

Front 487

the slag covering over the solidified molten metal during SMAW operations

Back 487

keeps impurities away from the extremely hot metal

Front 488

what are the two most important SMAW factors you can control for effective welding

Back 488

penetration and electrode selection

Front 489

if you have to arc weld where moisture is present what should you do before inserting a new electrode

Back 489

turn off the welder

Front 490

what type of technique are you using to start the arc when you move the tip of the electrode across the metal surface like a match

Back 490

scratching

Front 491

what max metal thickness can you successfully arc weld with out preparing the edges

Back 491

1/8 inch

Front 492

what characteristic is most noticeable when GMAW steel parts using 100 percent argon shielding gas

Back 492

insufficient penetration

Front 493

what will be the result if you set the shielding gas flow rate too low for gas shield welding

Back 493

contamination

Front 494

the AWS classifies steel GMAW electrodes by their

Back 494

tensile strength and chemical composition

Front 495

which GMAW transfer method will not occur if carbon dioxide is used as the only shielding gas

Back 495

spray arc

Front 496

excessive stick-out can result in the GMAW discontinuity called

Back 496

porosity

Front 497

when GMAW excessive penetration can result in

Back 497

cracking

Front 498

when cutting HSLA components from a damaged vehicle which process is not recommended for use unless it becomes absolutely necessary

Back 498

oxyacetylene torch

Front 499

when cutting HSLA steel with an oxyacetylene torch you should try to limit the torch time to

Back 499

3 mins

Front 500

what type of current is generally used for GTAW

Back 500

AC

Front 501

which direction does current flow during GTAW when the polarity of the arc is negative

Back 501

electrode to the work surface

Front 502

the oxides that form on aluminum have melting points nearly

Back 502

3 times that of aluminum

Front 503

why is it important to clean the oxide from aluminum before welding it

Back 503

oxides can contaminate the weld

Front 504

what quality of the gas tungsten arc welding process cleans off the oxides that form on aluminum

Back 504

reverse polarity of the AC arc