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95 Cards in this Set

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1. (008) When determining an individual’s training needs, which of the following are common prerequisite task or knowledge requirements and must often be trained before training on other related tasks?

a. Professional military education requirements.
b. Environmental training requirements.
c. Safety and equipment qualifications.
d. Ancillary training requirements.
c. Safety and equipment qualifications.
2. (205) When conducting an air terminal inventory on loose cargo, in addition to verifying the APOD, TCN, date received, and air commodity/special handling code, you must also verify the warehouse location,

a. number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
b. priority, number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
c. configuration, number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
d. APOE, priority, and number of pieces only.
b. priority, number of pieces, weight, and cube only.
3. (408) When accomplishing airlift capability schedules, after extracting the necessary data from the command and control systems or published schedules, what is your next step?

a. Monitor the schedules.
b. Adjust airlift as necessary.
c. Update the work centers with changed or new information.
d. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.
d. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers
4. (008) When preparing an Air Force Form 797, Air Force Job Qualification Standard Continuation, for your work center, how is the numbering accomplished for the task numbers?

a. Numerically, starting with “1.”
b. Alphabetically, starting with the letter “a.”
c. In the same manner as an Air Force Technical Order (TO) or Career Development Course (CDC).
d. In the same manner as an Air Force Instruction (AFI) or Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
d. In the same manner as an Air Force Instruction (AFI) or Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
5. (205) When conducting an air terminal inventory on palletized cargo, in addition to verifying the pallet ID, hour and date of oldest SET on the pallet, the APOE/APOD, module type code, and type cargo code, you must also verify the

a. configuration, transportation priority, total pieces, weight, and cube only.
b. bay/grid/zone location, transportation priority, total pieces, weight, and cube only.
c. configuration, bay/grid/zone location, transportation priority, total pieces, weight, and cube only.
d. air commodity/special handling code, configuration, bay/grid/zone location, transportation priority, total pieces, weight, and cube only.
c. configuration, bay/grid/zone location, transportation priority, total pieces, weight, and cube only.
6. (408) When monitoring cargo capability, after you have run the local management reports and compared them to available airlift, what is your last step?

a. Update the work centers with changed or new information.
b. Compile the information and distribute to the work centers.
c. Extract the necessary data from appropriate C2 systems.
d. Work with your leadership and TACC to adjust airlift, if necessary.
d. Work with your leadership and TACC to adjust airlift, if necessary.
7. (008) When preparing an Air Force Form 797, Air Force Job Qualification Standard Continuation, for your work center, what information will you enter in the “Tasks, knowledge, and technical references” column?

a. The task statement and task number.
b. Task statement and technical reference.
c. The task number and technical reference.
d. The knowledge statement and task references
b. Task statement and technical reference.
8. (206) When selecting cargo by priority for a mission to Ramstein AB, Germany, which of the following pieces of cargo would you select first based on TP, expedited handling indicators, and SET in GMT?

a. TP–1; 999; SET: 25 July 09/1440 GMT.
b. TP–2; 777; SET: 25 July 09/1400 GMT.
c. TP–1; SET: 25 July 09/1630 GMT.
d. TP–1; SET: 25 July 09/1430 GMT.
a. TP–1; 999; SET: 25 July 09/1440 GMT.
9. (408) When clearing explosives shipments, request port-to-port clearance at the earliest possible date, but no later than

a. 12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.
b. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time only.
c. 12 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.
d. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.
d. 24 hours prior to the mission’s departure time, unless a specific location requires a greater notification time only.
10. (008) Your trainee is very uncomfortable driving the 10K forklift. Where would be the best place to conduct more training on the equipment?

a. In the warehouse, during peak delivery hours.
b. On the flight line, during high-operations tempo.
c. In the wide open pallet yard after normal delivery hours.
d. In the very small baggage area behind the passenger terminal.
c. In the wide open pallet yard after normal delivery hours
11. (206) When computing an aircraft critical leg ACL, to determine the aircraft’s operating weight, what information will you need from the command post?

a. Fuel weight.
b. Aircraft basic weight.
c. Allowable takeoff gross weight.
d. Total payload, including cargo and passengers.
b. Aircraft basic weight.
12. (408) When requesting port-to-port clearance of explosives, which of the following is not required on the explosives clearance request?

a. Mission number.
b. Pieces/weight/cube.
c. Requested departure date.
d. PSN and UN number.
c. Requested departure date.
13. (009) You are evaluating a trainee on a task and the trainee has forgotten an important step that could lead to an unsafe situation. What must you do?

a. Do not check that step on the checklist and make a note at the bottom of the form to readdress training.
b. Stop the evaluation and have the trainee demonstrate the unsafe act to work center personnel.
c. Stop the evaluation and help the trainee understand how the step impacts safety.
d. Let the trainee continue the task, but reevaluate the trainee on the task again.
c. Stop the evaluation and help the trainee understand how the step impacts safety.
14. (206) When computing an aircraft critical leg ACL, the two numbers you must add to equal the total aircraft weight upon takeoff include the aircraft

a. basic weight and fuel weight.
b. basic weight and payload weight.
c. operating weight and cargo weight.
d. operating weight and takeoff fuel weight.
d. operating weight and takeoff fuel weight.
15. (408) An APOE will not ship explosives or applicable FMS shipments without APOD approval except when

a. free-flow is authorized.
b. the APOD cannot be contacted for clearance.
c. airlift must be adjusted to accommodate the shipment.
d. the explosives validator ensures normal hazardous cargo restrictions have been met.
a. free-flow is authorized.
16. (009) When counseling A1C Tran on his training progress, your primary purpose is to

a. publicly reprimand him in a way that conveys to others that you are in charge.
b. improve performance and professionally develop him to his highest potential.
c. give him favorable comments because you know he is sensitive and well liked.
d. play the role of critic and superior while pointing out what he needs to improve.
b. improve performance and professionally develop him to his highest potential.
17. (206) Which activity completes the task of manual cargo selection?

a. Inspecting the cargo.
b. Maintaining the pallet contents listing file.
c. Conducting an inventory on the cargo you selected.
d. Determining the aircraft critical leg ACL.
b. Maintaining the pallet contents listing file.
18. (409) Who is considered to be the “eyes and ears” of the administrative contracting officer?

a. Squadron operations officer.
b. QAP.
c. Commercial load validator personnel.
d. ATOC personnel.
b. QAP.
19. (009) Amn Jackson is quiet and insecure. Which feedback/counseling approach would you use to help him progress with his training?

a. Directive.
b. Combined.
c. Progressive.
d. Nondirective.
a. Directive.
20. (207) When determining shoring requirements, if you use rolling shoring, you must also use

a. bridge shoring.
b. sleeper shoring.
c. parking shoring.
d. approach shoring.
c. parking shoring.
21. (409) Which three levels of discrepancies can commercial carriers receive from QAP when using AMC Form 166a?

a. Critical, major, and minor.
b. Go, no-go, and partially proficient.
c. Passenger, cargo, and general operations.
d. Satisfactory, unsatisfactory and not applicable.
a. Critical, major, and minor.
22. (009) What is the last step when counseling individuals on their training progress?

a. Telling them what you expect.
b. Observing their performance.
c. Documenting the counseling session.
d. Focusing on their behavior and not the individual.
c. Documenting the counseling session.
23. (207) When determining shoring requirements, which type is required to reduce the ramp angle a vehicle must travel during on/offloading?

a. Rolling shoring.
b. Sleeper shoring.
c. Parking shoring.
d. Approach shoring.
d. Approach shoring.
24. (410) At the end of each month, what happens before AMC Form 56 is forwarded to the records, reports, and analysis section?

a. It is included in the AMC A4 7107 report.
b. Section leadership reviews and verifies the information.
c. Manpower levels are adjusted based on the numbers entered.
d. It is used to project future workloads and document facts for various studies.
b. Section leadership reviews and verifies the information.
25. (009) When you want to evaluate the effectiveness of your on-the-job (OJT) training program, you should evaluate the

a. trainers only.
b. trainees only.
c. trainees and trainers only.
d. trainee, trainer, and unit training manager.
c. trainees and trainers only.
26. (207) When determining the shoring requirements for skidded cargo, which of the following formulas would you use?

a. L × W.
b. L × W × number of skids.
c. Diameter2 × number of skids.
d. L × W × 0.785 × number of skids.
b. L × W × number of skids.
27. (410) When completing AMC Form 56, ATOC personnel will complete the form after

a. a load plan is re-accomplished.
b. pallets are reconfigured due to opportune airlift.
c. cargo is frustrated to ACA/CSB.
d. pre-built pallets arrived improperly configured and are reconfigured by aerial port personnel.
a. a load plan is re-accomplished.
28. (009) Amn Miller just arrived to your unit from technical training. Which area must you evaluate her on within the first 90 days of assignment?

a. Military bearing only.
b. Military bearing and technical ability.
c. Technical ability and customs and courtesies.
d. Military bearing, technical ability, and customs and courtesies.
b. Military bearing and technical ability.
29. (207) When determining the shoring requirements for drums with rims, which of the following formulas would you use?

a. Outside rim diameter2 – inside rim diameter2 × 0.785.
b. Inside rim diameter2 – outside rim diameter2 × 0.785.
c. Diameter2 × 0.785.
d. Diameter2 × 0.875.
a. Outside rim diameter2 – inside rim diameter2 × 0.785.
30. (410) When completing the cargo rehandled block of AMC Form 56, who is required to review and sign the form after it is complete?

a. The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload.
b. The records, reports, and analysis representative accepting the form.
c. The individual making entries on the form.
d. The squadron operations officer.
a. The officer in charge or superintendent of the section performing the rehandled aircraft workload.
31. (009) Which is not a way to report the performance deficiency of a formal course graduate?

a. Participate in field interviews conducted by formal course owners.
b. Complete the graduate assessment survey (GAS) or field evaluation questionnaire (FEQ).
c. Note the deficiency in the member’s enlisted performance report and place the graduate in supervised study.
d. Use the customer service information line listed in the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
c. Note the deficiency in the member’s enlisted performance report and place the graduate in supervised study.
32. (207) When determining shoring requirements, to determine the effects of a piece of shoring 1/2″ thick, what is your first step?

a. Determine the new contact area.
b. Double the thickness of the shoring.
c. Divide the axle weight by the number of wheels on each axle.
d. Calculate a new psi for the given shoring thickness.
b. Double the thickness of the shoring.
33. (410) When completing AMC Form 108, which information is entered into the Remarks block?

a. Rationale for the rehandled action.
b. Number of passengers retransported.
c. Work center performing the rehandled work.
d. Call sign corresponding with the mission number
a. Rationale for the rehandled action.
34. (010) One of your trainees might be attending the in-residence Hazardous Materials Inspector Course (Initial). After you’ve confirmed that the trainee needs the training, to check to see if he/she meets the course prerequisites; go

a. to the Air Force Portal.
b. and ask the unit training manager (UTM).
c. to the Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA) Web site.
d. to the Educational Advanced Distribution Learning System (EADLS) Web site.
c. to the Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA) Web site.
35. (207) When determining shoring requirements for a drum with a rim, after doubling the thickness of the shoring,

a. add it to the outside and inside diameters.
b. subtract it from the outside and inside diameters.
c. add it to the outside diameter and subtract it from the inside diameter.
d. subtract it from the outside diameter and add it to the inside diameter.
c. add it to the outside diameter and subtract it from the inside diameter.
36. (411) When reviewing and reconciling transportation documentation, which report will aerial port management review daily?

a. Excessive PHT or SET.
b. Over/short shipment report.
c. Manifest header summary.
d. Pallet listing report.
a. Excessive PHT or SET.
37. (010) If a trainee meets all the prerequisites and requirements for a particular course, which two major factors must you consider before you can recommend him/her with confidence?

a. Trainee ability and aptitude only.
b. Deliverables and replacements only.
c. Trainee availability and resources only.
d. Duty standby and leave schedules only.
c. Trainee availability and resources only
38. (208) When preparing a load plan, which type will you use for AMC channel missions?

a. AALPS load plans.
b. AF IMT 4080.
c. Computer Automated Load Manifesting load plans.
d. DD Form 2131-XX-series load plans.
b. AF IMT 4080.
39. (411) When reconciling manifests, what is your first step?

a. Notify HQ AMC.
b. Correcting the data to ensure proper billing.
c. Accounting for all the skips on the manifest register.
d. Researching all skipped manifest numbers on the manifest register.
d. Researching all skipped manifest numbers on the manifest register.
40. (011) Which is not a level of war?

a. Tactical.
b. Strategic.
c. Offensive.
d. Operational.
c. Offensive.
41. (208) When preparing a load plan, to figure out the percent of MAC for your aircraft, which two figures will you need?

a. LEMAC and MAC.
b. Weight of all the cargo and the moments the cargo generates.
c. Cargo gross weight and aircraft fuselage stations.
d. Operating weight and zero fuel weight.
a. LEMAC and MAC.
42. (411) Data records personnel can file AMC Form 77 in the station files after they have reviewed the folder to ensure

a. each aircraft’s schedule of events occurred on time.
b. skipped manifests are annotated in the remarks section.
c. manifest numbers are in sequential order based on aircraft time of departure and deleted manifests are annotated in the remarks section.
d. all aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.
d. all aircraft data and events are accurately captured and all transportation documents that apply to that mission are included in the package.
43. (011) Which type of military operation primarily involves irregular warfare?

a. Foreign humanitarian assistance.
b. Counterinsurgency.
c. Homeland defense.
d. Peace operations.
b. Counterinsurgency.
44. (209) You are preparing a manual manifest in fiscal year 2009, from McGuire AFB, NJ (WRI), for a registered mail shipment destined to Ramstein AB, Germany (RMS). Which of the following manifest number is correct to assign this manifest?

a. RMS 9M 00001.
b. RMS 1C 02009.
c. WRI 9M 00001.
d. WRI 1C 02009.
c. WRI 9M 00001.
45. (411) When reviewing AMC Form 77, if data records personnel notice any discrepancies, what will they do?

a. Notify the squadron operations officer so he/she can direct corrective action.
b. Send the package back to the ATOC for corrections or correct it themselves.
c. Send the discrepant portion(s) of the package back to the work center responsible for creating the document.
d. Notify the TACC that proper billing cannot take place due to the discrepancies.
b. Send the package back to the ATOC for corrections or correct it themselves.
46. (011) How far in advance are long-range cargo requirements submitted to Air Mobility Command (AMC)?

a. 11 months before the fiscal year being reported.
b. 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.
c. 11 months before the calendar year being reported.
d. 23 months before the calendar year being reported.
b. 23 months before the fiscal year being reported.
47. (209) When preparing a DD Form 1385 as a backup manifest, complete

a. the manifest header and only pallet header and loose cargo/mail data in the body.
b. only the prime data and attach a pallet contents listing for each pallet manifested.
c. only the manifest header.
d. only the prime data.
a. the manifest header and only pallet header and loose cargo/mail data in the body.
48. (411) When maintaining CFPs, file each by

a. Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year.
b. Julian date beginning with the start of the calendar year.
c. GMT beginning with the start of the fiscal year.
d. GMT beginning with the start of the calendar year.
a. Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year.
49. (011) How far in advance does Air Mobility Command (AMC) publish the monthly passenger and cargo schedules, respectively?

a. 90 days and 30 days before the beginning of the operating month.
b. 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.
c. 45 days and 10 days before the beginning of the operating month.
d. 30 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.
b. 75 days and 15 days before the beginning of the operating month.
50. (209) When preparing a manual manifest, list

a. pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in TCN sequence.
b. loose cargo data first, with pallet data listed in TP sequence.
c. loose cargo data first, with pallet data listed in pallet ID sequence.
d. pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in SET sequence.
a. pallet data first, with loose cargo listed in TCN sequence.
51. (411) When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission number changes what must you do before filing the new AMC Form 77?

a. Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC
Form 77.
b. Duplicate all the information from the old AMC Form 77 onto the new one and file.
c. Write the old mission number on the new AMC Form 77 in the remarks section.
d. File each AMC Form 77 separately with remarks annotated on each.
a. Print an additional copy of the old AMC Form 77 and attach it to the new AMC
Form 77.
52. (012) If you are assigned to the Deployment Control Center (DCC) as an air transportation function representative, you will be responsible for

a. monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
b. manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
c. controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
d. supervising the loading of deployment cargo aboard aircraft chalks.
a. monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System
53. (210) When preparing an aircraft for cargo loading, failure to accomplish which action before starting loading operations will cause pallets to suddenly stop and could potentially damage the aircraft rail system or injure load team members?

a. Communicate with the ATOC.
b. Align the auxiliary loading ramps with the vehicle’s tires.
c. Inspect the tie down rings and fittings.
d. Release the pallet locks
d. Release the pallet locks.
54. (411) When maintaining transportation documentation, if a mission originates and terminates at the same station, how will you file the CFP(s)?

a. Consolidate them into one CFP and file under originating regardless of minor mission number changes.
b. Print an additional copy of the terminating AMC Form 77 and file it with the originating CFP.
c. Separate the files by TWCF and non-TWCF for filing.
d. Maintain two separate files; one for terminating and one for originating.
a. Consolidate them into one CFP and file under originating regardless of minor mission number changes
55. (012) If you are assigned to the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF), you are responsible for

a. controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
b. manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
c. monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
d. inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
d. inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
56. (210) When preparing an aircraft for cargo loading, if you have a piece of cargo that needed to be winched on from certain directions within the aircraft, which equipment item could you use in conjunction with the cargo winch to help redirect the cable pull?

a. Bridge plates.
b. Snatch blocks.
c. Stabilizer struts.
d. Ground loading ramps.
b. Snatch blocks.
57. (411) When maintaining manifest registers, maintain one current

a. fiscal year plus one inactive year.
b. fiscal year plus two inactive years.
c. calendar year plus one inactive year.
d. calendar year plus two inactive years.
a. fiscal year plus one inactive year.
58. (012) If you are assigned to the Passenger Deployment Function (PDF), you are responsible for

a. controlling deployment vehicle needs through an established vehicle dispatch system.
b. manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
c. monitoring and reporting delays of passenger and cargo processing using the Logistics Module System.
d. inspecting equipment and cargo together with the deploying unit to ensure the safe movement of all passengers, cargo, and flight crews.
b. manifesting passengers, building baggage pallets, and briefing, securing, and transporting passengers.
59. (210) During loading operations, what will vehicle operators ensure before moving the vehicle toward an aircraft?

a. Required spotters are in place.
b. Tie down devices are spaced less than 18 inches apart.
c. The aircrew has required safety clearances between the cargo and the emergency exits.
d. Load team members have all required PPE and other safety equipment.
a. Required spotters are in place.
60. (012) If you are assigned to a deployment function in which you have no experience, which type of training should you receive?

a. Initial.
b. Refresher.
c. Weak area.
d. New procedure.
a. Initial.
61. (210) During loading operations, which of the following describes the best way to load pallets?

a. Push pallets, rather than pull them onto the aircraft.
b. Raise the K-loader bed while pallets transition onto the aircraft ramp.
c. Gravity feed them during high operations tempos to work more aircraft.
d. Position yourself between pallets that are locked in place and those being loaded when necessary to control speed.
a. Push pallets, rather than pull them onto the aircraft
62. (013) If you are at an intransit station and a piece of cargo arrives with incorrect data, what should you do?

a. Correct the data as soon as possible.
b. Call the originating station to have them correct the data.
c. Call the final destination to have them correct the data upon arrival.
d. Nothing; the data must remain the same throughout the system for consistency purposes.
a. Correct the data as soon as possible.
63. (210) During loading operations, when loading a vehicle directly from the platform of a K-loader, bridge plates must be aligned with

a. the number one and four aircraft roller trays.
b. the number two and three aircraft roller trays.
c. all the rails of the K-loader being used for operations.
d. all wheels of the vehicle and equipment being loaded.
d. all wheels of the vehicle and equipment being loaded.
64. (013) When a pallet with a radio frequency identification (RFID) tag passes through an interrogator at a choke point, it provides intransit visibility (ITV) by

a. importing movement data via the passenger/mission ops interfaces and MANPER B disk input function, specifically formatted so the data will properly import into GATES.
b. passing through the interrogator’s electromagnetic zone, “waking up,” and sending its information to the interrogator and then to the Army’s data server.
c. interfacing with the X-MAN files through a spreadsheet with each cargo’s data listed in detail so users can view real-time movement information.
d. integrating and streamlines base- or installation-level movement processes for both peacetime and contingency cargo.
b. passing through the interrogator’s electromagnetic zone, “waking up,” and sending its information to the interrogator and then to the Army’s data server.
65. (210) During loading operations, the driver of the vehicle being loaded onto the aircraft must turn off the vehicle and remain inside until

a. the vehicle is fully restrained in all directions.
b. the user arrives at the aircraft to relieve him/her.
c. he/she sets the parking brake and places the vehicle in reverse.
d. the load team initially restrains the vehicle both forward and aft.
d. the load team initially restrains the vehicle both forward and aft.
66. (013) When providing deployed intransit visibility, the Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the

a. International Maritime Satellite (INMARSAT) reaches its data limit.
b. Global Transportation Network (GTN) captures all payload and manning data for the operation or exercise.
c. wing operations center (WOC) authorizes the ITV team to capture the replication of data to the main server.
d. capability is no longer necessary or until fixed remote (RGATES)/GATES systems have been set up in its place.
d. capability is no longer necessary or until fixed remote (RGATES)/GATES systems have been set up in its place.
67. (211) As a load team chief, which of the following is not required before conducting an ERO?

a. Brief all personnel involved in the ERO operation on the route to and from the aircraft.
b. Ensure all load team members have required safety items.
c. Give all passengers the option to deplane if they wish.
d. Ensure all passengers have required safety items.
c. Give all passengers the option to deplane if they wish.
68. (014) If a natural or man-made disaster develops, the Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC) uses which type of planning process in response to these types of situations?

a. Crisis.
b. Long term.
c. Diplomatic.
d. Contingency.
d. Contingency.
69. (211) During ERO operations, before load team members approach the aircraft, the aircraft engines must be in

a. low speed ground idle only.
b. reverse thrust or shut down only.
c. low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.
d. forward thrust or low speed ground idle only.
c. low speed ground idle or reverse thrust only.
extra
extra
71. (211) During ERO operations, after the load team has been signaled by an aircrew member, team members will use a route that takes them

a. perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
b. directly centerline to the aircraft ramp to help the loadmaster lower it.
c. parallel to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
d. most directly to the aircraft, and is the short route possible.
a. perpendicular to the aircraft fuselage until they reach the aircraft centerline.
72. (014) When an operation plan (OPLAN) is necessary for an operation, the abbreviated information in which type of plan requires extensive development before being converted into an OPLAN?

a. Operation order (OPORD).
b. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
c. Deployment Plan (DEPLAN).
d. Joint Operations Plan (JOPLAN).
b. Concept Plan (CONPLAN).
73. (211) During ERO operations, before offloading passengers through the crew entrance door, you must coordinate through the

a. airfield manager, command post, and ERO functional areas only.
b. aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only.
c. aircraft commander, the TACC, and ERO functional areas only.
d. airfield manager, the MOCC and ERO functional areas only.
b. aircraft commander, command post, and ERO functional areas only.
74. (014) How do base-level personnel receive important logistics requirements for contingency planning?

a. Through the Global Decision Support System (GDSS) 2 mission remarks.
b. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into USAF plans.
c. Headquarter Air Mobility Command (HQ AMC) prepares a report that is distributed to logistics planners for deployment execution.
d. Logistics planners attend an annual joint strategic planning meeting after long-range airlift requirements are submitted to HQ AMC.
b. They are extracted from the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) into USAF plans.
75. (211) Before performing concurrent servicing, all personnel must ground themselves to

a. a suitable grounding point or a large, painted surface of the aircraft.
b. a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft.
c. another load team member or the CSS.
d. a suitable grounding point within three feet of the aircraft fuel vent outlets.
b. a suitable grounding point or a bare, unpainted portion of the aircraft.
76. (014) In the final phase of the biennial planning, programming and budgeting system (BPPBS), the approved project objective memorandums (POM) are converted into monetary terms with justifications, which become

a. end of the fiscal year fall out monies.
b. the President’s budget submitted to Congress.
c. the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF).
d. a financial model for the entire Department of Defense (DOD).
b. the President’s budget submitted to Congress.
77. (211) During concurrent servicing operations, if a spark occurs when you first ground yourself, you must

a. reground yourself periodically during operations.
b. exit the flight line area until your electrostatic discharge dissipates.
c. change the battery on your radio before conducting any loading operations.
d. remove all laptop computers, cell phones and radio equipment from your vicinity.
a. reground yourself periodically during operations.
78. (014) The relationship between a plan identification number (PID) within the Joint Operation Planning And Execution System (JOPES) and an Operational Plan (OPLAN) or a Concept Plan (CONPLAN) is that a PID corresponds directly to

a. each unit type code and contains all of the OPLANs and CONPLANs associated with the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).
b. an OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.
c. each National Air Mobility System (NAMS) and contains all of the data used to aggregate cargo category codes with the OPLAN or CONPLAN.
d. each cargo category code contained within the type unit characteristics (TUCHA) file and contains detailed OPLAN and CONPLAN data.
b. an OPLAN or CONPLAN and contains all of the unit line numbers and force modules associated with that plan’s movement of forces.
79. (014) If a user enters incorrect data into the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), what could result?

a. Delays in force deployments and inefficient use of expensive strategic lift assets.
b. Transmission errors between JOPES to Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS).
c. Inefficient use of expensive strategic lift assets and transmission errors between JOPES and the TPFDD.
d. Delays in training and transmission errors between JOPES and the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).
a. Delays in force deployments and inefficient use of expensive strategic lift assets.
80. (014) Within the time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD), force modules provide a

a. means to organize unit line numbers (ULN) into groups useful to commanders and staffs.
b. way to track the number of days before an operation goes into the execution phase.
c. type of classification in the hierarchy of deployment training and force development.
d. link between the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) and the combatant commander.
a. means to organize unit line numbers (ULN) into groups useful to commanders and staffs.
81. (015) When projecting your unit’s resource (personnel or equipment) status for designed operational capability (DOC) statements, if you have resources that are expected to be ready by the response time, you will count them as

a. available.
b. unavailable.
c. in commission.
d. out of commission.
a. available.
82. (015) If your unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed, you will report it as what C-level during Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?

a. C-1.
b. C-2.
c. C-3.
d. C-4.
b. C-2.
83. (015) If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, you must report timely and accurate unit type code (UTC) readiness and tasking status that is essential to

a. ensure a solid C-level.
b. smooth AEF execution.
c. assign valid unit line numbers to the proper taskings.
d. keep your unit deployment manager (UDM) informed.
b. smooth AEF execution.
84. (015) If you are assigned as your unit’s Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) reporting tool (ART) monitor, which of the following actions is not your responsibility?

a. Processing ART role requests from subordinate units.
b. Updating ART unit type code (UTC) readiness within the ART system.
c. Completing a readiness assessment every 30 days on all assigned unit type codes (UTC).
d. Resolving unit type code (UTC) posturing issues with MAJCOM functional area managers.
a. Processing ART role requests from subordinate units.
85. (015) If you are performing duties as a unit deployment manager (UDM), who must you notify when mismatches exist between unit type code (UTC) authorizations and unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations?

a. The major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) and wing manpower office only.
b. The MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only.
c. The MAJCOM FAM and manpower offices and wing commander only.
d. The wing and MAJCOM manpower office only.
b. The MAJCOM FAM and both wing and MAJCOM manpower offices only.
86. (015) If your unit has deployment deficiencies that are beyond your unit’s ability to correct, as a unit deployment manager (UDM), you must report them to the major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager (FAM) to

a. request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.
b. remove your unit from the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) tempo band cycle until the deficiencies are corrected.
c. request a waiver to the AEF tempo band cycle until the MAJCOM can provide resource support.
d. reclaim your MAJCOMs decision to task your unit for upcoming tempo band cycles until you can obtain the resources you need to correct the deficiencies.
a. request additional resource support or propose an adjustment to the designed operational capabilities (DOC) statement.
87. (016) What is the relationship between starter stocks and swing stocks?

a. Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation.
b. Swing stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; starter stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation.
c. The amount of swing stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized starter stock.
d. The amount of starter stock authorized is determined by subtracting the forward operating base allowance from the authorized swing stock.
a. Starter stocks are pre-positioned at or near the point of intended use; swing stocks are positioned to meet war reserve requirements for more than one contingency for more than one theater of operation.
88. (016) If you possess war reserve material (WRM) assets that do not have inspection guidance procedures, how should you conduct inspections at a minimum?

a. Annually, by selecting a random sampling of 10 percent.
b. Annually, by selecting a random sampling of 25 percent.
c. Semi-annually, by selecting a random sampling of 10 percent.
d. Semi-annually, by selecting a random sampling of 25 percent.
b. Annually, by selecting a random sampling of 25 percent.
89. (016) When developing agreements, a mutual understanding is developed into guidelines for the support required, which can result in one of which two types of documents?

a. A memorandum of agreement (MOA) and a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
b. An ISP and an MOU.
c. An installation support plan (ISP) and an MOA.
d. A memorandum of support (MOS) and a memorandum of functional agreement (MOFA).
a. A memorandum of agreement (MOA) and a memorandum of understanding (MOU).
90. (017) Before performing joint inspections (JI), in addition to upgrade training (UGT), formal training and Web-based training requirements, JI personnel must be

a. knowledgeable of their host wing’s installation deployment plan and publications applicable to JI.
b. certified in the equipment preparation of the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Affiliation course and local technical specialist training.
c. knowledgeable of the Cargo Movement Operating System (CMOS) and the Global Air Mobility Movement System.
d. certified in the Logistics Module (LOGMOD) System and the Automated Air Load Planning System (AALPS).
a. knowledgeable of their host wing’s installation deployment plan and publications applicable to JI.
91. (017) In addition to a working knowledge of automated and manual load planning and manifesting procedures, before you can perform load planning duties and be identified in writing by your unit commander as being fully qualified to load plan each specific type of aircraft, you must be a

a. 7-skill level or higher and be at least technical specialist qualified.
b. 5-skill level or higher and be at least technical specialist qualified.
c. 7-skill level or higher and be at least hazardous materials preparer qualified.
d. 5-skill level or higher and be at least hazardous materials inspector qualified.
d. 5-skill level or higher and be at least hazardous materials inspector qualified.
92. (018) Which product is the primary document reflecting positions authorized to accomplish the mission?

a. Work center rotation schedule.
b. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
c. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
d. AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report RCS: AMC-A43 (M&Q) 7107.
b. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
93. (018) Manpower authorizations are also known as

a. unfunded manpower requirements.
b. funded manpower requirements.
c. deferments.
d. validations.
b. funded manpower requirements.
94. (018) To ensure personnel requirements are what they should be, you should compare which two documents?

a. The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) and the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
b. The UMD and the AMC Form 82, Monthly Station Traffic Handling Report.
c. The AMC Form 82 and the Installation Deployment Plan (IDP).
d. The UMPR and the AMC Form 82.
a. The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) and the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
95. (019) If an augmentation program is required for your installation, what will dictate how it will be implemented and managed?

a. Local procedures.
b. Major command (MAJCOM) guidance.
c. Squadron operating instructions (SOI).
d. Unit deployment manager (UDM) guidance.
a. Local procedures.