2T251 Cdc Pre-Test Edit Code 03

Front 1

(001) An Airman is qualified in two Air Force specialty codes (AFSC). Which type of AFSC identifies the one in whick the Airman is currently performing duty?

Back 1

* D. Duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC).

Front 2

(001) An Air Force specialty (AFS) is a group of

Back 2

* D. positions requiring common qualifications.

Front 3

(001) A duty Air Force Specialty Code (DASFC) is the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code)

Back 3

* D. used to identify the position in which an individual is performing duty.

Front 4

(001) A group of closely related Air Force specialties (AFS) requiring basically the same knowlegde and skills is known as a

Back 4

* A. career field.

Front 5

(001) A Senior Airmen may use the title SUPERVISOR when he or she

Back 5

* C. has graduated ALS and supervises the work of others.

Front 6

(002) Which specialty is NOT a part of the transportation career field?

Back 6

* C. Air Traffic Control

Front 7

(003) Which is NOT a component of the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT) Program?

Back 7

* A. Job requirement.

Front 8

(003) How many days are trainees given to complete each volume of their career development courses (CDC)?

Back 8

* A. 30 days.

Front 9

(003) Who is responsible for conducting and documenting work center orientations and initial qualification evaluations within 60 days of assignment?

Back 9

* B. Supervisor.

Front 10

(003) Who is responsible for ACTIVELY participating in all opportunities for training?

Back 10

* B. Trainee.

Front 11

(003) Which is NOT a trainee responsability in the Air Force On-the-job Training (AF OJT)?

Back 11

* B. Identify and certify position qualifications and skill level upgrade training requirements.

Front 12

(003) What is the MINIMUM amount of time a trainee must be in training to be awarded the 7-skill level?

Back 12

* C. 12 months.

Front 13

(003) Before a trainee can be awarded the 5- or 7-skill level all core tasks must be identified

Back 13

* D. in the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor.

Front 14

(004) Which training document is the foundation for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements?

Back 14

* B. Master Training Plan (MTP).

Front 15

(004) The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a comprehensive

Back 15

* A. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Front 16

(004) The scale values on the proficiency code key indicate

Back 16

* D. how well a trainee needs to perform a task or understand a task or subject.

Front 17

(004) Which form is a continuation of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and is used and annotated the same way as the specialty training standard (STS)?

Back 17

* A. AF IMT 797.

Front 18

"(005) What is the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program?"

Back 18

* A. Minimize loss of Air Force resourses and protect personnel.

Front 19

"(005) You injured your ankle playing basketball over the weekend. Your responsability under the Air Force Occupational Safety, Fire Protection and Health (AFOSH) program is to promptly"

Back 19

* A. report the injury to your supervisor.

Front 20

"(005) Your supervisor just conducted very thorough safety training with you that included job hazards, personal protective equipment wear, jewerly safety, manual lifting procedures, and many other areas. Which form will you and your supervisor use to document this training?"

Back 20

"* B. AF Form 55, Employee Safety and Health Record."

Front 21

(005) You must be mindful of bulky uniform items with cords and strings because

Back 21

* D. they can get caught in conveyor belts or moving parts and machinery.

Front 22

(005) You are entering the warehouse wearing several items. Which of them must be removed before entering the area?

Back 22

* D. Jewerly.

Front 23

(005) You have finished downloading pallets onto the finger docks. Which is the BEST way to exit the dock?

Back 23

* A. Use the ladder located at the end of the dock.

Front 24

(005) You have acquired a bad safety habit of walking while spotting. It is important for you to eliminate this poor and unsafe work practice because

Back 24

* C. new people can learn work habits by observing your performance.

Front 25

(006) Operational risk management (ORM) is a continuous process designed to do what?

Back 25

"* B. Detect, assess, and controls risk while enhancing performance and maximizing combat capapabilities."

Front 26

(006) Which form would you use to report hazards that CANNOT be eliminated immediately?

Back 26

"* C. AF IMT 457, USAF Hazard Report"

Front 27

(007) The Base Weather Station has issued a lightning WARNING for your location. What does this warning mean and what should you do?

Back 27

* B. Lightining is occurring within 5-nautical-mile radius; immediately take shelter in a safe place.

Front 28

(007) You are entering the flight line area in a vehicle. What must you do befoer entering?

Back 28

* B. Stop and do a Foreign object damage (FOD) check.

Front 29

(007) You have parked your vehicle on the flight line and need to leave it unattended to board the aircraft. What must you do?

Back 29

"* D. Leave the keys in the ignition and the vehickel unlocked; turn off the ignition; place it in park or reverse; and chock one rear wheel, in front and behind."

Front 30

(007)You are stopped on the flight line at night with your vehicle and its headligts on and an aircraft is approaching your direction. YOu are not in the aircraft's path. What is you BEST course of action?

Back 30

* A. Turn you headlights off and turn your parking lights/emergency flashers on until the aircraft is out of range.

Front 31

(007) You are crossing the active runway and see a red and green light coming from the control tower. What should you do?

Back 31

* A. General Warning. Exercise extreme caution.

Front 32

(007) You are crossing the active run way and see a flashing white light coming from the control tower. What should you do?

Back 32

* A. Return to your starting point.

Front 33

(008) What is the focus of the Pollution Prevention program?

Back 33

* A. Preventing or reducing the amount of waste Air Force personnel create before it becomes a problem.

Front 34

"(008) A solid waste is any discarded material,"

Back 34

"* D. including solids, liquids and containerized gases only, which is abandoned, recycled or considered inherently waste-like."

Front 35

(008) What are the two main elements of minimizing waste?

Back 35

* C. Prevention and control.

Front 36

(008) Pollution control consists of which three activities?

Back 36

"* D. Recycling, treatment, and disposal."

Front 37

(008) Which is NOT a benefit of pollution prevention?

Back 37

* B. It reduces the need for federal standards and regulation.

Front 38

(008) What can you do each and every day to reduce air emissions at work?

Back 38

"* D. Incinerate, scrub, or treat solid wastes in accordance with Air Force instructions and local policies."

Front 39

(009) You have knowledge of some North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) SECRET information in which one of your coworkers has asked about. Which United States security clearance level must your coworker possess for access to this information?

Back 39

* A. SECRET.

Front 40

"(009) Your work center is storing some classified material in the vault and you have been asked to let a lighting technician in to fix the lighting. He doesn't have the required ""need to know"", but must have access to the room to properly complete his job. What is your BEST course of action?"

Back 40

* D. Escort him into and stay with him in the vault at all times until his work is complete.

Front 41

(009) An aircraft diverted into your station with classified material on it and will remain overnight (RON) for repairs. The material is too large to be placed in an approved container. What is the BEST course of action?

Back 41

*B. Download the classified material and store it in an authorized US facility.

Front 42

(009) Which one of the following reoperesents an operational security (OPSEC) vulnerability?

Back 42

* B. An adversary with possesion of a fake military identification card and knowledge of the base.

Front 43

(009) Which type of cargo consists of highly classified national security material and requires an escort?

Back 43

* D. Defense Courier Service (DCS) material.

Front 44

"(009) Which type of cargo must you ALWAYS protect, safeguard, and handle as if it were classified?"

Back 44

* B. Registered mail.

Front 45

"(010) Which term refers to the movement of personnel, units, supplies and equipment to reinforce or resupply already deployed or employed forces?"

Back 45

* B. Sustainment.

Front 46

"(010) Which command provides common-user and commercial air, land and sea transportation?"

Back 46

* A. US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

Front 47

(010) Which command is NOT a component of the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)?

Back 47

* C. Military Traffic and Airlift Command (MTAC).

Front 48

(010) Which command is the link between Department of Defense (DOD) shippers and the commercial transportation carrier industry?

Back 48

* A. Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC).

Front 49

"(010) Which command is the US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) single component command for air mobility and provides airlift, air refueling, special air mission and aeromedical evacuation services?"

Back 49

* B. Air Mobility Command (AMC).

Front 50

"(010) Which agency serves as Air Mobility Command's (AMC) strategic air operations hub and plans, directs, schedules, and tracks aircraft operations worldwide?"

Back 50

* A. Tanker Airlift Control Center (TACC).

Front 51

(011) Through which system does the Air Force provide rapid global mobility to the defense transportation system (DTS)?

Back 51

* C. National Air Mobility System (NAMS).

Front 52

(011) Which area is an air terminal located on a prepared airfield that is designated for the sustained air movement of cargo and passengers?

Back 52

* B. Aerial Port.

Front 53

(010) Which is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic for entrance into the country in which it is located?

Back 53

* C. Aerial Port of Inspection (APOI)

Front 54

(012) Joint forces can be organized on which basis?

Back 54

* D. Geographical or functional.

Front 55

(013) Which aircraft can hold up to 36 standard pallets and 73 passengers?

Back 55

* A. C-5.

Front 56

(013) Which aircraft is used for both strategic and theater airlift as well as airdrops and aeromedical evacuations?

Back 56

* A. C-17

Front 57

(013) Which organic aircraft can hold up to six standard pallets and is capable of landing on dirt strips?

Back 57

* C. C-130

Front 58

(013) Which program is where United States commercial airlines augment Department of Defense (DOD) airlift capability in tim e of war or during a President-declared emergency?

Back 58

* B. Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) program.

Front 59

(013) Which stage of Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) activation supports minor regional crises or small-scale contingencies?

Back 59

"* C. Stage I, Committed Expansion."

Front 60

(014) Improperly constructed mission numbers

Back 60

* B. interfere with automated data updates between the various C2 systems.

Front 61

(014) Which type of mission moves mostly airlift sustainment cargo in which users reimburse the Transportation Working Capital Fund (TWCF)?

Back 61

* B. Channel mission.

Front 62

(014) The last three digits of a mission number represents the

Back 62

* C. Julian date on which the mission originated in Zulu or GMT.

Front 63

(015) Intransit Visibility (ITV) provides commanders the

Back 63

* D. capability to determine if a force has reached its destination and is ready to perform its mission.

Front 64

(015) The Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) allows users to

Back 64

"* D. process, manifest and track passengers and cargo."

Front 65

"(015) At a MINIMUM, aerial ports personnel should verify in the Global Transportation Network (GTN) the"

Back 65

"* C. presence of cargo and passenger data, mission number, and aerial port code."

Front 66

(015) Who has the responsability to provide accurate data to aerial ports or agencies that enter data into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?

Back 66

* B. Individual units.

Front 67

(015) Which disk system is NOT used to import cargo or passenger information into the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES)?

Back 67

* D. Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES)

Front 68

(015) Radio frequency identification (RFID) technology consists of which three parts?

Back 68

"* B. Tag, interrogator, and data server"

Front 69

(016) The Deployed Global Air Transportation Execution System (DGATES) is set up and used until the

Back 69

* C. capability is no longer necessary or until fixed R/GATES systems have been set up in its place.

Front 70

(017) You are working in the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) for a mobility movement and want to relocate information about mobility movements. In which part of the Defense Transportation Regulation (DTR) would you look?

Back 70

* D. Part II

Front 71

(017) You are helping a customer determine if he and his family are eligilble for Department of Defense air travel. In which publication would you look?

Back 71

* B. DOD 4515.13-R Air Transportation Eligibility.

Front 72

(018) You want to find out if two pieces of hazardous cargo are compatible with each other. In which publication would you look?

Back 72

* B. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I).

Front 73

"(018) A cargo user has received verified approval to ship its equipment via tactival, contingency, or emergency airlift and you need to look up the hazardous cargo restrictions and requirements for this ty pe of airlift. Which chapter in Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-204(I), Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipment , would you to find this information?"

Back 73

* D. Chapter 2

Front 74

(019) You are load planning cargo for a Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF) aircraft and want to look up the aircraft specifications to safely plan the load. In which publication series would you look to find the information?

Back 74

* A. Air Mobility Command Pamphlet (AMCPAM) 24-2.

Front 75

(020) You are loading helicopters on a C-17 aircraft and want to find information on specific procedures for loading the items. Which section number of the 1C-17B-9 technical order (TO) contains that information?

Back 75

* D. Section VI

Front 76

(021) Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) is both a process and a collection of automated computer systems used to develop

Back 76

* D. operational plans(OPLANS) and time-phased forced and deployment data (TPFDDs).

Front 77

(021) The time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is

Back 77

* C. the electronic data that exists within the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) to help execute deployment in phases.

Front 78

(022) Which volume of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) documents the aircraft activity for each geographical location in support of all regional OPLANs (operational plans) and certain CONPLANs (concept plans)?

Back 78

"* B. WMP-4, Wartime Aircraft Activity."

Front 79

(022) Which war reserve material (WRM) support is sourced using Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)?

Back 79

* C. Small scale contingencies.

Front 80

"(023) Which automated system schedules, controls, and monitors the movement of passengers and cargo via air or surface transportation using tasking information?"

Back 80

* A. Logistics Module (LOGMOD)

Front 81

(023) Which deployment work center is the hub of deployment operations and is responsible for the overall control and supervision of deployments?

Back 81

* A. Deployment Control Center (DCC).

Front 82

(023) Which deployment work center processes all deploying personnel through stations such as legal and finance and is responsible for processing and manifesting passengers and processing their baggage?

Back 82

* B. Passenger Deployment Function (PDF).

Front 83

(023) In which area of the Cargo Deployment Function (CDF) do deploying units have sole responsability?

Back 83

* D. Marshalling area.

Front 84

(023) Mobility forces will not start a joint inspection (JI) until

Back 84

* A. all the cargo for the chalk is present and available.

Front 85

(024) To whom does a copy of the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2133 NOT go?

Back 85

* D. Retained by the mobility force for inclusion in the station file.

Front 86

(024) Satisfactory items are identified on the DD form 2133 by

Back 86

* B. a check mark.

Front 87

(025) Which hazardous materials certifications allow personnel to sigh the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods (SDDG)?

Back 87

* A. Hazardous materials preparer and technical specialist.

Front 88

(026) Which type of airdrop is used to feed starded animals in a winter storm?

Back 88

* C. Freedrop.

Front 89

"(026) Which type of airdrop requires large, clear drop zones, because they USUALLY consist of large complex loads?"

Back 89

* B. Low-velocity drop.

Front 90

(027) What is the capacity of the A-21 cargo bag?

Back 90

* D. 500 Lbs

Front 91

(028) For what type of drop is the Type V platform used?

Back 91

* C. Low-velocity drop.

Front 92

(029) Which parachute is the largest?

Back 92

* D. G-11

Front 93

(029) How much weight will the G-12 parachute support?

Back 93

"* C. 2,200 Lbs"

Front 94

"(030) When operating the lavatory service truck (LST), how will you know when the wast tank is full?"

Back 94

* B. Look through the sight window.

Front 95

"(031) On the AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record, to conduct an inventory, which form will be used as a source document to annotate the total number of items out on missio aircraft?"

Back 95

"* A. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist."

Front 96

(032) You have been tasked to load non-expandable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C-5. Which form should you use?

Back 96

"* A. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist."

Front 97

"(032) You are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger, what action must you take?"

Back 97

* D. Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces.

Front 98

(033) Which describes the proper way to clean and service and oven?

Back 98

"* C. Remove dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational."

Front 99

(033) You are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft. How must they be when you pick them up so will they stay clean?

Back 99

* B. The spouts will be covered in plastic.

Front 100

(034) A flight is leaving with a departure time of 0800. What is that latest time passenger service personnel can call in a firm meal order for that flight?

Back 100

* B. 0700

Front 101

"(034) What must you do before you print and sign your name on the AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?"

Back 101

* B. Verify you have every item listed on the form.

Front 102

(034) You have performed final fleet service on a C-17 that blocks out at 0800. Within what timeframe are aircrews required to pick up their own meals?

Back 102

* C. 0720

Front 103

(034)You have delivered 73 meals to a C-5. Who will stow those meals in the galley or air traportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?

Back 103

* B. The aircrew members and Fleet Service personnel.

Front 104

"(034) You are stationed at McChord AFB WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan, that has unused meals onboard. What must you do with these meals?"

Back 104

"* A. After USDA inspection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility."

Front 105

(035) When servicing an aircraft with potable water you should fill the aircraft water tank until

Back 105

* A. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity.

Front 106

(035) When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank you should fill it with potable water until

Back 106

"* B. the gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichevers comes first."

Front 107

"(036) You serviced the C-17 with the lavatory service truck (LST); the doughnut seal was faulty, and you came into direct contact with waste from the aircraft. You were wearing all required personal protective equipment (PPE). What actions should you take?"

Back 107

* C. Wash immediately and change clothes.

Front 108

(036) How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?

Back 108

* B. 11 gallons.

Front 109

"(037) When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, such as ""latrine serviced by"" you should include the initials of the"

Back 109

"* A. person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times."

Front 110

"(037) As a Fleet Service dispatcher, you have just completed and signed an AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet. Who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?"

Back 110

* D. The Fleet Service shift supervisor.

Front 111

(201) A shipper is responsible for

Back 111

"* C. planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment and arranging for its movement."

Front 112

(201) Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)?

Back 112

* C. It allows cargo processors to calculate critical leg Allowable Cabin Load (ACL) information.

Front 113

(202) What is another name for a receiver?

Back 113

* B. A consignee.

Front 114

(202) Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any radio frequency identification (RFID) tags?

Back 114

* A. The receiver.

Front 115

"(203) When is a shipment, other than TP-4 cargo, considered cleared by the Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA)?"

Back 115

* B. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the Advance Transportation Control and Movement Document (ATCMD) data shipped field.

Front 116

(204) How many cargo application do the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES) hand-held terminals (HHT) provide access to?

Back 116

* C. 17

Front 117

(204) You perform a soft reset on the hand-held terminals (HHT) by pressing

Back 117

* D. Alpha+Function+Backlight keys

Front 118

(205) What two types of information are entered on the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)?

Back 118

* C. Prime data and trailer data.

Front 119

(205) Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation explains how to fill out a TCMD block-by-block?

Back 119

* B. Appendix M.

Front 120

(205) What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you?

Back 120

* B. The nature of the shipments and how it should be treated.

Front 121

(206) Which position of the transport control number (TCN) identifies a partial shipment?

Back 121

* D. The 16th position.

Front 122

(206) Which transportation priority (TP) includes shipments requiring routine transportation?

Back 122

* A. TP-4

Front 123

"(206) Which transportation priority (TP) is considered ""deferred air freight"" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?"

Back 123

* D. TP-4

Front 124

(206) How many days must transportation priority (TP) 4 cargo remain at the aerial port before the air terminal manager (ATM) can decide to send it through surface modes or upgrade it to TP-2 ?

Back 124

* B. 20 days

Front 125

(206) The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the

Back 125

* C. Greenwich Mean Time(GMT) hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date.

Front 126

"(207) When receiving a shipment into the air terminal, you do NOT have to inspect for"

Back 126

* B. correct national stock numbers (NSN)

Front 127

(207) Identification markings and labels tell you

Back 127

* B. what the shipment is

Front 128

(207) You place two military shipment label (MSL) on any item over how many cubic feet?

Back 128

* C. 10

Front 129

(208) You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal

Back 129

* A. when the discrepancy is major and you can correct it on the spot.

Front 130

(208) Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?

Back 130

* A. AMC Form 33.

Front 131

(208) After the Customer Service Branch (CSB)/Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA) corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33 to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions musth the work center take?

Back 131

* C. Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file them both.

Front 132

(208) What must you annotate on both copies of the Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD) when receipting for a shipment?

Back 132

* B. The Greenwhich Mean Time (GMT) hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival.

Front 133

"(208) When the system entry time (SET) is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed first by using the"

Back 133

* C. expedited handling indicators and the required delivery date (RDD).

Front 134

(208) Within how many hours of receipt mush you process all cargo?

Back 134

* D. 6 hours

Front 135

(208) You finalize the receipt of a shipment by

Back 135

* D. Writing thw warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD.

Front 136

(209) An over shipment is a shipment that

Back 136

"* B. arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest."

Front 137

(209) Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment?

Back 137

* C. Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) duty officer.

Front 138

"(209) You leave intransit pallets intact, without removing the nets, tie down or radio frequecy identification (RFID) tags when the pallets"

Back 138

* B. are destined for more than one location.

Front 139

(210) Terminating cargo release letters are effective for how long from the date they are authenticated by the organizational commander?

Back 139

* D. Two years.

Front 140

(211) Which BEST describes the role of a hazardous materials handler?

Back 140

* B. Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on an aircraft.

Front 141

"(211) All personnel who operate, handle, transport, or load missiles, explosives, or nuclear weapons must receive which type of training and how often?"

Back 141

* B. Weapons safety training: annually.

Front 142

(212) Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?

Back 142

* D. Class 1.

Front 143

(212) Which hazardous materials class consists of flammable liquids?

Back 143

* A. Class 3.

Front 144

(212) Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials?

Back 144

* B. Class 6.

Front 145

(212) Which hazardous materials class consists of miscellaneous hazardous materials?

Back 145

* B. Class 9.

Front 146

(212) How should hazardous materials be positioned on a pllet or in the back of a vehicle?

Back 146

* C. So the labels are clearly visible.

Front 147

(212) What form do shippers use to certify their hazardous material shipments?

Back 147

"* D. AMC Form 1033, Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods."

Front 148

(213) How must hazardous materials placards be displayed at the aircraft?

Back 148

"* A. Front, rear, both sides and at entry points."

Front 149

(213) Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard?

Back 149

* D. Class 1.3.

Front 150

"(213) Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material?"

Back 150

* B. Class 2.1.

Front 151

"(213) When a load contains class 1.1, class 1.2 and class 1.3 materials, which placard will you use?"

Back 151

* C. DANGEROUS.

Front 152

"(214) In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, if the material is not listed or there is a blank space in the table, that means these articles"

Back 152

"* A. have no restriction for being loaded, transported, or stored together."

Front 153

"(214) In the hazardous materials compatibility tables the letter ""X"" means these articles"

Back 153

"* A. must not be loaded, transported, or stored together."

Front 154

(214) How many fire extinguishers MINIMUM must be available for ust at any location where explosives are handled?

Back 154

"* B. Two,"

Front 155

(214) How many fire extinguishers must a vehicle contain while transporting explosives?

Back 155

* D. Two.

Front 156

(214) Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?

Back 156

* D. Aft of non-jettisonable cargo.

Front 157

"(214) During explosives operations, to reduce electrostatic discharge, aircraft will be"

Back 157

* D. grounded.

Front 158

(215) Which form must shippers complet for security or classified shipments?

Back 158

"* C. DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification."

Front 159

"(215) If a shipment is hazardous and requires security, which form(s) must shipper complete?"

Back 159

"* C. DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification and AMC Form 1033, SDDG"

Front 160

(215) What is the Defense Courier Service(DCS) material?

Back 160

* D. Highly classified national security shipments that require courier escort.

Front 161

(216) You stow human remains (HR) shipments on the aircraft with the

Back 161

* A. head higher than the feet and the head towards the nose of the aircraft.

Front 162

(216) What is the MAXIMUM number of human remains (HR) transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463L pallet if absolutely necessary?

Back 162

* C. 12.

Front 163

(217) You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and re-icing before they are airlifted. On which form would you document the re-icing and refrigeration?

Back 163

"* B. AMC Form 106, Biologicals/Re-icing/Refrigeration Log."

Front 164

"(218) When receiving registered mail, the two pieces of information you must check against the manifest are the"

Back 164

* D. TCN and register number.

Front 165

(219) You have received a terminating piece of Air Mobility Command Mission Capability (AMC MICAP) cargo with a receipt time of 0815 Greenwhich Mean Time (GMT). What is the latest time it must be available to the consignee?

Back 165

* A. 0845 GMT.

Front 166

(219) You work at an air terminal without an Air Clearance Authority (ACA) or a Customer Service Branch (CSB) and receive a call from a Navy customer who wants to green sheet some Navy equipment. Who will initiate greeen sheet action for this customer when it is necesary to meet a shipment's required delivery date (RDD)?

Back 166

* A. The air terminal operations officer.

Front 167

"(220) An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft. How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?"

Back 167

"* A. 7,500."

Front 168

(220) You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. How many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?

Back 168

* B. Two.

Front 169

(221) Your supervisor has asked you to restrain four pallets in the warehouse with varying weights and heights. Which pallet is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set?

Back 169

"* D. A 38-inch high pallet weighing 6,500 pounds."

Front 170

"(221) While sorting through net sets, you discover several unserviceable radio frequency identification (RFID) tags still attached to the nets. What must you do with these unserviceable tags?"

Back 170

* C. Return them to the Defense Logistics Agency for repair.

Front 171

(222) You are issuing three CGU-1/B straps to an Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) C-130. Which form would you use to maintaing accountability for the items issued to this aircraft?

Back 171

"* D. AF IMT 4069, Tie Down Equipment Checklist."

Front 172

"(223) You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy (AVB), and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet. All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority. Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build?"

Back 172

* A. Movement indicator and SET.

Front 173

(224) Which two manual forms must both be placed on a completed 463L pallet after it is built?

Back 173

"* D. AMC Form 39, Pallet invoice and DD Form 2775, pallet Identifier."

Front 174

"(225) For the locks on a C-17 to clear the cargo and engage properly, household goods containers may overhang the 108-inch side, provided they overhang no more than"

Back 174

* B. one inch and are raised up 3/4-inch.

Front 175

(225) How much of an aisleway must you create on the usable surface of a pallet loaded in the wheel well area oa a C-130?

Back 175

* B. 6 inches.

Front 176

(226) You received several shipments in the airlift; which one will you NOT mark with a center of balance (C/B)?

Back 176

* B. A single pallet.

Front 177

"(227) At a MINIMUM, how much ramp services experience should a load planning personnel have?"

Back 177

* C. 6 months.

Front 178

"(227) At a MINIMUM, what hazardoud materials qualification must load planners have?"

Back 178

* C. Inspector.

Front 179

"(228) The KC-10 has two basic configurations for load planning. When airlines seats kits are installed, how many pallets are avialable for cargo?"

Back 179

* A. 16 pallets.

Front 180

(228) What is the MAXIMUM height allowed for the belly pallets of a B-747?

Back 180

* D. 60-inches.

Front 181

(229) You are working load planning and your supervisor tasked you to conduct an inventory. Which areas of the air terminal will you inventory?

Back 181

* A. Outbound cargo and mail.

Front 182

(230) How much weight an aircraft can carry is called the

Back 182

* C. allowable cabin load (ACL).

Front 183

(231) Which type of load plan are users authorized to use when they do NOT have Automated Air Load Planning System (AALPS) capability?

Back 183

* C. DD Form 2130-XX series load plans.

Front 184

(231) What must remain the highest priority when load planning cargo?

Back 184

* D. Safety of flight.

Front 185

(232) You need to manually manifest cargo? Which form would you use?

Back 185

"* A. DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest."

Front 186

(232) Which form do you attach to the manual manifest when pallet header data is listed in the body of the manifest?

Back 186

"* C. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice."

Front 187

(233) Which forklift is designed for operating on rough terrain?

Back 187

* D. 10K AT

Front 188

(233) You are driving a forklift; when is it safe to raise or lower a load on the fork tines?

Back 188

* A. Only afteryou have come to a complete stop

Front 189

(233) When parking a forklift; how do you position the tines?

Back 189

* B. Tilt the mast so the tines are level with the ground and lower the forks flat.

Front 190

"(234) What is the 40K loader winch's capacity in both low and high range modes, respectively?"

Back 190

"* B. 2,500/8,000 lbs."

Front 191

(235) Which cab control on the 60K Loader are used to operate the deck functions when on/offloading cargo?

Back 191

* A. The deck and conveyor control panel.

Front 192

(235) Which K-loader has a deck range up to 225 inches and allows adjustable pallet guides to accomodate pallets on the 88- or 108-inch side?

Back 192

* B. NGSL Halvorsen.

Front 193

(235) You are working on a load crew. At which deck height are you required to wear a fall restraint harness?

Back 193

* D. 10 feet.

Front 194

(235) You are bridging two 60K-loaders to accelerate loading operations and you need to transfer all your pallets from one to the other. Which of the following best describes how to do this?

Back 194

* D. Lower both K-loaders and place a spotter on the left side of the loader to monitor the transfer and guide the operators.

Front 195

(236) You are conducting a before-operation inspection of a K-loader. Which action will you complete?

Back 195

"* A. Review the AF Form 1800, Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report, for open discrepancies."

Front 196

(237) You are performing a before-operation inspection on a 4K forklift. You must open the hood to check for which items?

Back 196

* B. Security of the battery terminals.

Front 197

(237) You are performing a during-operation inspection on a 10k forklift. Which fluid level will you check?

Back 197

* A. Transmission.

Front 198

(237) You are inspecting a 40K loader. During which part of the inspection will you check the steering and steering wheel for free play and excessive wear?

Back 198

* A. During-operation.

Front 199

(238) You are loading a heavy piece of cargo on an aircraft between the treadways. Which type of shoring will allow you to place it on supporting beams that span to the treadways?

Back 199

* C. Bridge shoring.

Front 200

"(238) You are loading a trailer on a C-5 that is very long, very tall, and has extremely low ground clearances. In order to reduce the ramp angle this vehicle must travel during th onload, which type of shoring would you use?"

Back 200

* D. Approach shoring.

Front 201

(239) How do you secure rolling stock to a K-loader?

Back 201

* B. Forward and aft with chains and devices.

Front 202

(239) Which types of loading aids are used to pull cargo slowly into the aircraft?

Back 202

* D. The cargo winch and snatch blocks.

Front 203

(240) You are spotting 60K in to an aircraft. How many feet MINIMUM from the aircraft must you stop the vehicle operator for preliminary alignment?

Back 203

* B. 10 feet.

Front 204

(241) You are loagin passengers on a C-17 in which several pallets are loaded. How many inches away must your passengers sit from the palletized cargo at a MINIMUM?

Back 204

* A. 30 inches.

Front 205

"(242) How many 25,000-pound (lb) chains would you use to restrain a piece of cargo weighing 17,700 lbs for the vertical direction when the cargo is restrained to the floor of a C-5?"

Back 205

* C. 2

Front 206

(242) Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?

Back 206

* C. three

Front 207

(243) When can passengers enter or exit an aircraft during concurrent servicing operations?

Back 207

* B. When a jet or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the opposite side of the aircraft.

Front 208

(240) You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?

Back 208

* D. Spotter zone.

Front 209

"(401) During an anti-hijacking inspection, when will you brief passengers that prohibited carry-on items must be placed in their check baggage or they will be consfiscated?"

Back 209

* D. When the passenger arrives at the security/inspection area.

Front 210

"(401) If an authorized distinguish visitor (DV) will be going directly to the aircraft and not through the passenger terminal for travel, how will this passenger receive an anti-hijacking inspection?"

Back 210

* D. The aircraft commander will provide an inspection and give the required documentation to passenger service personnel.

Front 211

"(401) During an anti-hijacking inspection, when may passengers traveling on validated troop movements carry loaded firearms?"

Back 211

* C. When engaging an enemy force immediately after airdropping or landing.

Front 212

"(402) Before passenger walk through the magnetometer, they must"

Back 212

* C. empty their pockets into a small tray.

Front 213

"(402) When an individual activates the walk-through magnetometer twice, what action should you take?"

Back 213

* A. Screen them using the hand-held metal detector.

Front 214

(402) What is the FIRST thing you should do when operating the hand-held metal detectors to inspect passengers?

Back 214

* C. Tell the passenger why and how you will conduct the inspection.

Front 215

"(402) During an anti-hijacking inspection with the hand-held metal detector, you would begin by scanning a passenger's"

Back 215

"* B. head, followed by the outline of the body, the front, and then the back."

Front 216

"(402) When inspecting passengers with the hand-held metal detector and it locates metal, you must have them remove the metal item,"

Back 216

"* A. before you re-scan the aren the item was removed from, and then have them enter the walk-through magnetometer."

Front 217

"(402) When you are unable to detect the source that set off the alarm on the hand-held magnetometer, passengers have the choice of"

Back 217

* B. consenting to a frisk by security forces personnel of sign an anti-hijacking waiver.

Front 218

"(402) To operate properly, what do most explosives detection devices require before you use them?"

Back 218

* C. Calibration and a significant warm up.

Front 219

(402) You should activate the duress alarm if

Back 219

* B. you notice anything suspicious or find and undeclared weapon or other dangerous article.

Front 220

(403) What are the two types of customers?

Back 220

* A. Internal and external.

Front 221

"(403) What is the one way to communicate NONVERBALLY to your customers that you are professional, respectful, and can be relied upon for accurate and complete information?"

Back 221

* D. Dressing and grooming yourself appropriately.

Front 222

(403) You should check back with a customer after how many minutes when placing them on hold?

Back 222

* A. Two or three minutes.

Front 223

(403) The Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 253 and AMC IMT 19 are used for passengers to

Back 223

* A. comment on the service they received while traveling within AMC.

Front 224

(404) What is the FIRST step in briefing passengers?

Back 224

* D. Prepare yourself so you know exactly which information you need to bried them about the subject.

Front 225

"(404) When briefing passengers, if they have questions and you don't know the answer, what should you do?"

Back 225

* B. Seek help from your supervisor.

Front 226

"(404) When briefing passengers on travel restrictions, documents you will ensure they possess if required include a valid photo identification (ID) card."

Back 226

"* D. a leave form or pass, official military orders, a passport, visas, and vaccination records only."

Front 227

"(405) When making a flight information announcement about a departing flight that has been delayed, you should update passengers every"

Back 227

* C. 20 minutes

Front 228

"(405) When making a roll call announcement, which information should you give passengers FIRST?"

Back 228

"* C. Your rank, name, mission number, and destination of the flight."

Front 229

"(406) When checking the travel category to determine travel eligibility, one way dependents and family members are authorized to travel in space-required status is when they are"

Back 229

* D. issued official travel orders under emergency leave conditions.

Front 230

"(406) When verifying transportation authorizations for space-required passengers, what information should you check against the passenger's identification (ID) card of someone who is traveling on permanent change of station (PCS) orders?"

Back 230

"* B. Name, grade, and social security number."

Front 231

"(406) After determining travel eligibility for space-required passengers, to check travel clearances, you must determine if the passenger is elegible to travel to the destination by checking the required documents such as passports, visas, and immunization records for"

Back 231

"* A. presence, currency, accuracy, and completeness."

Front 232

"(407) If active duty Air Force SSgt James Curtis is traveling with emergency status annotated on his leave form, which of the following continental United States (CONUS) or overseas unfunded travel optionsis SSgt Curtis elegible for?"

Back 232

* A. CONUS to CONUS only.

Front 233

"(407) During the task of determining eligibility for space-available travel, under which travel category may uniformed service members travel while on permissive termporary duty (TDY) orders for house hunting?"

Back 233

* C. Category III

Front 234

(408) A passenger can be categorized as a Blue Bark passenger when the passenger is

Back 234

* A. traveling in conjuction with the death of a family member.

Front 235

"(408) When a passenger is too large to be safely restrained in a single aircraft seat using a single seatbelt, handle him or hey as you would"

Back 235

* C. a differently-abled passenger.

Front 236

(408) Which special category situation would cause a passenger to need a medical doctor's certification to be medically sound to travel?

Back 236

* B. An infant less than six weeks old and women who are less than six weeks postpartum.

Front 237

"(408) If a mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) passenger wants to travel on a specific mission that departs at 0800 Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), when is the LATEST time the MEGP can notify the Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) of that intention?"

Back 237

* C. 0500 GMT.

Front 238

"(409) Before space-available passengers can be entered into the space-available register, which form must they complete?"

Back 238

* D. AMC Form 140.

Front 239

"(409) When maintaining a space-required standby listing, if there are passengers that remain on the listing who have already been selected for missions or are no longer in need of airlift, how should you mark the listing?"

Back 239

* C. Line through the passenger's register entry.

Front 240

"(409) While updating and maintaining the space-available standby listing on a 23 Apr 09, which passenger with the following date and time of sign-up will you purge from the listing?"

Back 240

* C. 22 Feb 09/0800

Front 241

"(409) While selecting passengers for a flight, which would you select first?"

Back 241

"* B. Space-required, priortiy 1 passenger with a date and time of sign-up of 1 May 09 at 0700."

Front 242

"(409) If a space-available passenger is not present for a roll call, you should"

Back 242

* D. skip the passenger's name and continue with the selection process.

Front 243

"(410) When preparing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 148/2, Boarding Pass/Ticket/Reciept, how many copies will you complete and how are they distributed?"

Back 243

* C. Two copies; one to the passenger and one for passenger service records.

Front 244

"(410) When preparing the Department of Defense (DD) Form 2131, Passenger Manifest, when individuals enter their name, grade, signature and date in the manifest certification blocks, they are certifying that"

Back 244

* D. anti-hijacking measures have been conducted.

Front 245

"(411) When preparing in-flight meal requests, you would offer passengers a lunch meal if the aircraft will be in the air from"

Back 245

* C. 0930 to 1445

Front 246

"(411) When preparing an in-flight meal request, how many meals would you offer passengers if the flight is eight hours long and covers one meal period?"

Back 246

* B. One meal.

Front 247

"(411) When preparing an in-flight meal request, which factors will you use to plan the amount of snacks and beverages you will need for a given flight?"

Back 247

* C. Consumption factors from previously flown missions along the same route and the actual number of passengers manifested only.

Front 248

"(411) While you are passing meal orders to the in-flight kitchen for a C-5 that departs at 1015, what is the latest time you can pass a tentative and final meal order of 61 meals?"

Back 248

* B. 0715; 0815.

Front 249

"(411) When completing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 162, In-flight Meal Supplemental Worksheet, from which two sources can you get the information to compute the total amount of monies collected from the passengers?"

Back 249

* B. The meal costs from the passengers' AMC Form 148/2s or from each of the blocks in section V of the AMC Form 162.

Front 250

"(411) When preparing the AMC Form 162, In-flight Meal Supplemental Worksheet, from which source document will you get the information to enter the line numbers, type of meal, and passenger costs in section V?"

Back 250

* B. Passengers' AMC Form 148/2s.

Front 251

"(412) When determining head tax charges for passengers, in which of the following circumstances will you charge the tax for a passenger traveling from McGuire Air Force Base, NJ to Ramstein Air Base, Germany?"

Back 251

* D. Space-available passenger travling on a commercial-contracted aircraft.

Front 252

"(412) When determining pet shipping charges, you will charge a passenger for one excess baggage piece when the combined container and pet weight"

Back 252

* B. does not exceed 70 pounds.

Front 253

(412) What is the first step in determing pet shipping charges?

Back 253

* A. Determine the total pieces to charge.

Front 254

(412) What is the first step when turning in cash collections?

Back 254

* D. Balance your cash drawer by taking out all the money you collected during your shift.

Front 255

(412) What is the last step when giving a passenger a refund?

Back 255

* A. Sign the boarding pass to show that you initiated the refund.

Front 256

"(413) If you are loading passengers on a C-17 that departs at 1630, at what time should the last passenger be loaded on the aircraft to protect against mission delays."

Back 256

* C. 1620.

Front 257

"(413) When you are downloading passengers off of a C-5, the first passenger you would allow to deplane first would be a"

Back 257

* D. space-available distinguished visitor traveling on ordinary leave.

Front 258

"(414) If a passenger originating out of your station on emergency leave was manifested on the 03R1 mission (which has been delayed), how many hours do you have to move that passenger?"

Back 258

* A. 24 hours.

Front 259

"(414) If a commercial-contracted has been delayed for aircraft maintenance issues and won't be fixed until the next day, the carrier is responsible (at no cost to the passenger) to provide"

Back 259

"* D. meals, lodging, and transportation only."

Front 260

"(415) You are checking in baggage for a passenger traveling on emergency leave, which Air Mobility Command (AMC) baggage tag strap should you attach to that passenger's bags?"

Back 260

* A. AMC Form 20-EL

Front 261

"(415) After you have completed your final headcount on the aircraft and discover you are missing one passenger who is listed on the manifest, what is your next step?"

Back 261

* C. Remove that passenger's baggage from the aircraft.

Front 262

"(415) When receiving baggage from a terminating flight in the baggage claim area, if you discover two unclaimed articles 30 minutes after the last passenger has claimed his or her baggage, what is your next step?"

Back 262

* A. Mark them with the mission number and transfer them to the lost and found section.

Front 263

"(415) When pre-booked pets are accepted in soft-sided containers, what is the maximum number of pets allowed in the cabin?"

Back 263

* A. 3

Front 264

"(416) If a passenger has just reported a mishandled bag to you but cannot provide the boarding pass or baggage claim checks, what is your next step?"

Back 264

* A. Cross-reference the passenger manifest to make sure the passenger was manifested on the flight.

Front 265

"(416) A passenger has just reported a lost bag to you and you are preparing an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report. In how many copies will you prepare the form and to whom does the original go?"

Back 265

* B. 3; retain in the AMC Form 136 or forward to the Baggage Service Center (BSC) after five days.

Front 266

"(416) When you are preparing an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report, For a damaged bag, which of the following would represent a valid case number for a damaged bag?"

Back 266

* C. D-009

Front 267

"(416) Once you have prepared an Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 136, Baggage Mishandled Report File, the documents you must include in this form before you send the file to the baggage Service Center (BSC) are the original AMC Form 134,"

Back 267

"* D. copies of the boarding pass, baggage tags, or flight manifest."

Front 268

"(417) If you are at the station where a passenger reported a lost bag on 23 April 12, how much time do you have to find the lost baggage and update the remarks section on Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134, Mishandled Baggage Report before only the Baggage Service Center (BSC) will assume responsability for the claim?"

Back 268

* C. 5 days.

Front 269

"(417) When you discover a found bag, what must you before you secure the baggage?"

Back 269

* D. Present it to customs officials for clearance and reflect this action on the AMC Form 134.

Front 270

"(417) If a passenger has reported a pilfered bag, what must you do before you file the report?"

Back 270

* C. Determine from the passenger if the pilfered articles are actually missing or simply misplaced.

Front 271

"(417) If a bag is excessively damaged and articles from it have become lost or missing, what must you do after annotating the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 134 with the necessary statement?"

Back 271

* A. List all articles reported missing and the estimated value of each.

Front 272

"(417) After you have determined who the owner is for a particular item, which two forms will you use to send it to them as soon as possible?"

Back 272

* A. AMC Form 57 and AMC Form 70.

Front 273

"(417) If you sent a piece of RUSH baggage to Elmendorf AFB, Alaska, on 23 Apr 12 at 1400 and you have not received confirmation that they received the bag, when is the latest you should follow-up with them to receive confirmation?"

Back 273

* C. 25 Apr 12 at 1400.

Front 274

"(418) Which item is placed on three-point dunnage, a 463L pallet dolly, or a suitable roller system in order to prevent damage?"

Back 274

* B. Air transportable gally/lavatory.

Front 275

"(419) When you are tasked to load non-expendable supplies on an Air Mobility Command (AMC) C-5, which form should you use?"

Back 275

"* A. AF IMT 4128, Fleet Service Checklist."

Front 276

"(419) If you are servicing an arriving aircraft and notice a personal item left by a passenger, what action must you take?"

Back 276

* D. Turn it into the passenger terminal's lost and found or Security Forces.

Front 277

"(420) When recording the various Fleet Service activities on an AMC Form 244, such as ""latrine serviced by,"" you should include the initials of the"

Back 277

"* B. person who serviced the latrine, the Julian date, and start and complete times."

Front 278

"(420) As a Fleet Service dispatcher, after you have completed and signed an dAMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet, who else needs to sign it before it can be turned into records?"

Back 278

* D. The Fleet Service shift supervisor.

Front 279

(421) Which describes the proper way to clean and service an oven?

Back 279

"* A. Remove the dirty racks, clean the oven interior, install clean racks and ensure the oven is operational."

Front 280

"(421) When you are picking up clean and filled 5-gallon igloos and coffee jugs from the flight kitchen to take to an aircraft, in order for them to remain clean, you must ensure the"

Back 280

* C. spouts will be covered in plastic.

Front 281

"(422) What must you do before you print and sign your name on teh AF IMT 3516, Food Service Inventory Transfer, when picking up meals from the flight kitchen?"

Back 281

* B. Verify you have every item listed on the form.

Front 282

"(422) If a C-17 blocks out at 0800, after what timeframe would aircrew be required to pick up their own meals?"

Back 282

* D. 0715.

Front 283

"(422) After you have delivered meals to a C-5, who will stow those meals in the galley or air transportable galley lavatory (ATGL) storage areas?"

Back 283

* C. Fleet Service personnel and aircrew members.

Front 284

"(422) You are stationed at McChord AFB, WA, and a flight just arrived from Kadena AB, Japan that has unused meals onboard. What must you do with these meals?"

Back 284

"* C. After USDA inispection and approval, place them in two plastic bags and incinerate or sterilize them at an approved facility."

Front 285

"(423) When servicing an aircraft with potable water, you should fill the aircraft water tank until the"

Back 285

* A. water discharges from the overflow fitting or to the requested capacity.

Front 286

"(423) When servicing the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) water tank, you should fill it with potable water unil the"

Back 286

"* D. gauge indicates that it is full or 39 gallons, whichever comes first."

Front 287

(424) How much water or solution do you use to rinse and fill the air transportable galley/lavatory (ATGL) waste tank?

Back 287

* C. 11 gallons.

Front 288

"(425) When completing the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, times are recorded in"

Back 288

* C. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).

Front 289

"(425) Before a manually complete mission's Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record, is forwarded to the Records, Reports, and Analysis section, the shift supervisor will"

Back 289

* B. review it for accuracy and content and signs it.

Front 290

"(426) Who is responsible for gathering, processing, and disseminating ALL information pertaining to air terminal operations?"

Back 290

* B. Information control function.

Front 291

(426) Information control ensures that documentation is distributed to respective terminal work centers and that originals are forwarded to the

Back 291

* A. records and reports section.

Front 292

"(427) When loadmasters sign the hazardous brief sheet, below their signature they must legibly print"

Back 292

* A. their names.

Front 293

"(427) When retrieving the manual inbound cargo manifest from an arriving aircraft, which format will the ramp controller use to annotate aircraft block time in the upper right-hand corner?"

Back 293

* B. GMT and Julian date.

Front 294

(428) Which is not a function of capability forecasting?

Back 294

* A. Deliver documetnation to and from the aircraft.

Front 295

(428) What is the maximum time allowed prior to the mission's departure for aerial port of embarkations (APOE) cape forecasters to request port-to-port clearance for air shipment of explosives?

Back 295

* C. 24 hours.

Front 296

(429) Intransit Visibility (ITV) provides commanders the capability to

Back 296

* A. determine if a force has reached its destination and ready to perform its mission.

Front 297

(430) What hazardous materials qualification must load planners have?

Back 297

* D. Inspector.

Front 298

(431) Which type of load plan are users authorized to use when they do not have Automated Air Load Planning System (AALPS)/Integrated Computerized Deployment System (ICODES) capability?

Back 298

* A. DD Form 2130-XX series load plans.

Front 299

(431) What must remain the highest priority when load planning cargo?

Back 299

* D. Safety of flight.

Front 300

"(432) At a minimum, how many copies of each manifest must load planning produce?"

Back 300

* A. Six.

Front 301

(432) Which form would you use when you need to manually manifest cargo?

Back 301

"* A. DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest."

Front 302

(432) Which form do you attach to the manual manifest when the pallet header data is listed in the body of the manifest?

Back 302

"* C. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice."

Front 303

"(433) Air Terminal Operations Center (ATOC) personnel prepare the Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload when"

Back 303

"* D. an ATOC representative is required to make additional trips to an aircraft during extended delays, mission reroutes, or load or aircraft swaps."

Front 304

"(433) After reviewing Air Mobility Command (AMC) Form 56, Rehandled Workload, section leadership will forward it to the"

Back 304

"* A. Records, Reports, and Analysis section to consolidate and include in the 7107 report."

Front 305

"(434) If a shipper has called looking for a shipment when your computers are down, how will you locate the shipment?"

Back 305

* C. Conduct a physical search of the warehouse and cargo yard.

Front 306

"(434) When conducting tracer action in the Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES), which shipment information will enter into the system to track the cargo?"

Back 306

* B. Transportation control number (TCN) or pallet ID.

Front 307

"(435) How long do you maintain transportation documentation that pertains to military originating, terminating, and intransit airlift?"

Back 307

* D. One current year plus one inactive fiscal year as permanent at the base staging area.

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"(435) When maintaining transportation documentation, a consolidated file package (CFP) is filed"

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* B. Julian date beginning with the start of the fiscal year.