Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
134 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
What is an allowance standard? |
A document that describes the items and quantities of equipment normally required by AF activities and individuals to carry out the mission. |
|
|
Where can you find allowance standards? |
Through online query screens in AFEMS (C001). |
|
|
What is a BOI? |
The authority which establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization. |
|
|
What code tells you if an equipment item is an EAID item? |
EMC. |
|
|
How are non-EAID items identified? |
By EMC 1 (ERRCD NF1). |
|
|
What form is used to request equipment items where the approval authority is at base level or below? |
AF Form 2005. |
|
|
What form is prepared to recommend/request changes to equipment allowance standards? |
AF Form 601. |
|
|
When are multiple items with different federal supply classes included on a single AF Form 601 requiring higher than base level approval? |
When the request is against the same ASC and the background and justification for all the items are the same. |
|
|
What AFEMS (C001) screen is used to input an AF Form 601 request? |
TACR. |
|
|
List the four situations when you would not input a 601 request into AFEMS (C001) |
EOD items, special weapons, multiple items, or if it contains classified information. |
|
|
What is the purpose of authorized and in-use details? |
To control and account for EAID equipment. |
|
|
What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete EAID records? |
FCI. |
|
|
What FCI format do you use to load an authorized/in-use detail? |
1.
|
|
|
What are the two methods for processing equipment turn-ins? |
Post-post and prepost |
|
|
Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN after picking up the property? |
Post-post. |
|
|
How are non-EAID items turned in? |
TRIC TIN and activity code P. |
|
|
How are EAID turn-ins processed? |
TRIC TIN and activity code E. |
|
|
What TRIC is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another? |
FET. |
|
|
What listing provides you with the capability to ensure that equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances? |
ASC listing (Q09). |
|
|
What is identified by the Q10 as a result of comparing the authorized quantity against the in-use and due-out quantities? |
Out-of-balance conditions |
|
|
What is the primary purpose of the CA/CRL? |
Serves as a custodian receipt when signed by the custodian. |
|
|
What does a CA/CRL jacket file normally consist of? |
Current CA/CRL and custodian appointment letter |
|
|
Who may sign for equipment items? |
Only the primary or alternate equipment custodian, or organization commander |
|
|
Which ERRCDs identify SPRAM assets? |
XD/XF. |
|
|
What TRIC is used to load a special-purpose asset detail record? |
1XA. |
|
|
What product is used to inventory SPRAM assets and serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian? |
R25. |
|
|
What CICs are used to identify weapons? |
CICs N, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, or 8. |
|
|
How are COMSEC items identified on the item record? |
SRC of C and MMCs of CA, CK, CL, CO, CR or CY. |
|
|
How often must you reconcile weapons and COMSEC detail records? |
Annually for weapons (30 April) and semiannually for COMSEC (15 March and 15 September). |
|
|
What product is used for weapons or COMSEC reconciliation? |
Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46). |
|
|
What are the key responsibilities of stock control? |
Stockage policy and managing requisitions. |
|
|
What term defines the average quantity used daily? |
Daily Demand Rate (DDR). |
|
|
What type of stock level is based on past demands from users? |
Demand Level. |
|
|
What term is used for the repair rate of the current and past four quarters? |
Average percent of base repair (PBR). |
|
|
What is the term for the average elapsed time, in days, between the initiation and receipt of stock replenishment requisitions? |
Order and shipping time (O&ST). |
|
|
What term represents that number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle? |
Repair cycle quantity (RCQ). |
|
|
What term reflects the quantity that must be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment? |
Safety level quantity (SLQ). |
|
|
What type of minimum adjusted stock level has a reorder point one-third the adjusted stock level quantity? |
Type level A. |
|
|
Which minimum adjusted stock levels are automatically deleted once the demand level equals or exceeds the total minimum level? |
Type levels A and B. |
|
|
What type of adjusted stock level restricts stockage? |
Maximum adjusted level. |
|
|
What type adjusted stock level should you establish for seasonal items? |
Maximum, type level D. |
|
|
What type of adjusted stock level maintains an item’s stockage position at a constant level? |
Adjusted fixed level. |
|
|
What form is used to request an adjusted stock level? How many copies are needed? |
AF Form 1996. Two (2) copies. |
|
|
What type detail is used to control and manage adjusted stock levels? |
L type adjusted stock level details. |
|
|
How often are adjusted stock levels validated? |
At least every 2 years. |
|
|
What product is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels? |
Program R35. |
|
|
What action occurs during the review of an adjusted stock level? |
The initiator confirms that the approved level is still required in the quantity described in the original justification. |
|
|
What action occurs during the validation of adjusted stock levels? |
Complete line item review in which the requesting activity certifies that the requirement and authority for each level is still valid. |
|
|
How often are RBLs updated? |
Quarterly. |
|
|
By what document identifier code are RBLs received at each base? |
DIC XCA. |
|
|
What are two instances when an RBL may be less than an approved minimum or fixed level? |
(1) When there is an insufficient worldwide requirement to allocate to the minimum/fixed level. (2) When the base’s minimum/fixed level is not registered in the D035 system. |
|
|
On 22 June 12, your base reported it had three excess connector cables. You issued two of these before receiving disposition instructions. What occurs when the RDO is input? |
An RDO denial (DIC B7*) is produced. |
|
|
What type of redistribution results from a local management decision? |
Nondirected redistribution. |
|
|
What type of redistribution is a lateral support shipment? |
Nondirected, special. |
|
|
What RICs are used on lateral support shipments? |
JLS or D**. |
|
|
What is a transfer? |
A transfer is the movement of materiel to the DLADS. |
|
|
What are shipment exception codes used for? |
To identify item records that require special shipping action, or to notify local management when shipping action has been taken. |
|
|
What are the two main types of requisitions? |
Automatic and special. |
|
|
What does the term MILSTRIP stand for? |
Military standard requisitioning and issue procedures. |
|
|
What is the purpose of MILSTRIP? |
Provides a standard method of requisitioning supplies from the source of supply. |
|
|
What agencies are required to use MILSTRIP procedures? |
All branches of the Service |
|
|
In what format are requisitions submitted to the source of supply? |
DIC AO*. |
|
|
When does the Materiel Management System identify and requisition stock replenishment requirements? |
When items have an asset position down to or below its reorder level |
|
|
What is the key to achieving and maintaining a well-balanced stock position? |
Timeliness in submission of stock replenishment requisitions |
|
|
What series of requisition serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions? |
9000–9899. |
|
|
What is the purpose of UMMIPS? |
Provides a standard method of ranking competing needs among activities to their overall importance. |
|
|
What combinations of codes determine the requisition priority to be used at the SOS? |
FAD and UND. |
|
|
In what format is requisition status received? |
Supply or shipment (AE*/AS* or AU*). |
|
|
What is the consequence of not processing status immediately? |
You will create more work because of unnecessary follow-ups, receipt rejects, and incorrect cancellations and billings. |
|
|
What are the different types of MILSTRIP status? |
Positive supply status, cancellations, intransit/shipped, and exception/other |
|
|
What status type has the worst effect on an account? |
Cancellation. |
|
|
What REX code is used to indicate that a requisition was cancelled from the source of supply? |
REX 1. |
|
|
What status types are generated by program control at base level? |
Cancellation requests and follow-up. |
|
|
When is follow-up action initiated? |
When supply status information is overdue or the estimated delivery date has passed. |
|
|
When will in-line follow-up be performed for a priority 03 requisition when 100-percent status is required? |
Four days after the requisition date |
|
|
Within what period must ARC images be worked before another is output? |
Five days. |
|
|
What are supply difficulties? |
Deficiencies resulting in a delay of item support that can’t be corrected locally and that ultimately affect the operational capability of the base or unit involved |
|
|
How are supply difficulties reported? |
AF Form 1667, message, or e-mail. |
|
|
Processing supply difficulty reports must not take more than how many calendar days? |
7. |
|
|
What is the MILSTAMP tracer reconciliation program used for? |
It is used to identify shipments that have been delayed or misplaced between the SOS and the receiving base. |
|
|
How often is the MILSTAMP tracer reconciliation program run? |
At least twice a month. |
|
|
What products are used to trace delinquent shipments? |
Transportation tracer lists, parcel post tracer list, receipt acknowledged error list, consolidated shipment error list, exception action listing. |
|
|
Which tracer listing is used to review due-ins remaining in the computer that have been receipted in supply, but not completely cleared? |
Receipt Acknowledge Error List |
|
|
Which tracer listing is used to trace consolidated shipments that exceed age requirements and have no due-in detail? |
Consolidated Shipment Error List. |
|
|
How often is a due-out review conducted? |
On a daily basis for UND A and on a weekly basis for UND A and B due-outs |
|
|
Which listing may be used instead of the D18 in performance of due-out review? |
R01. |
|
|
How often are priority due-outs validated? |
Monthly. |
|
|
What are the two methods of releasing due-outs? |
Automatically and forced. |
|
|
What three TRICs may be used to force release a due-out? |
DOR, REC, TIN. |
|
|
What TEX code is used in a DOR input to force release a due-out? |
TEX 3. |
|
|
What TRIC is used to process a due-out cancellation? |
DOC. |
|
|
What does review code I indicate on a due-out cancellation input? |
That stock control has reviewed the cancellation input. |
|
|
What section must be notified of all cancellations of equipment due-outs? |
Equipment management. |
|
|
What action does the supply source take when they receive a cancellation request? |
Either confirm the cancellation or furnish shipping status |
|
|
What two cancellation status codes are assigned under program control? |
ZC, ZD. |
|
|
For BNR transactions, local purchase items will appear on the listing after how many days once the vendor bill is received and processed? |
7 days. |
|
|
What is created whenever a referral order is honored, and credit is given to the shipping base? |
Shipped not credited details. |
|
|
Which data screen displays information for Identification Data, MOE Rule Coded Data, Ref/PN Data, Management Data, Phrase Data, Freight Data, and Decoded Characteristics Data? |
Output Selection Views |
|
|
What system is an official Air Force source for obtaining supply and cataloging management data? |
The D043A system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the D043A system? |
To provide AF personnel with on-line cataloging, standardization, and other logistics management data for AF managed or user items. |
|
|
How are IPBs normally identified and published? |
Dash four (–4) series of technical orders |
|
|
IPBs are normally broken down into what three sections? |
Introduction, group assembly parts list, and numerical index. |
|
|
How are next higher assemblies determined in the TO system? |
The indent dot system. |
|
|
What code provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibilities, support methods, and disposition instructions? |
SMR code. |
|
|
What TO reference lists SMR codes and provides a complete explanation of each? |
TO 00–25–195. |
|
|
What TRIC is used to load a new stock number? |
TRIC FIL. |
|
|
What records are established by processing a FIL input? |
Item record and repair cycle record. |
|
|
What does the first position of an ERRC designator signify? |
The expendability of an item of supply |
|
|
How long are expendable items accounted for on supply records? |
Until they are issued for use |
|
|
What does the second position of an ERRC designator signify? |
It identifies those items recoverable through repair or those items not normally subject to repair. |
|
|
Under what two TRICs may a part number detail be loaded? |
TRIC FIL/1AA. |
|
|
What benefit is provided by establishing a part number detail record? |
It automates the part number to stock number cross reference file and reduces external research action |
|
|
Why must you ensure a part number is correct before you load it? |
Because the part number cannot be edited under program control. |
|
|
What is a non-catalogued number? |
Non-Catalogued stock numbers are numbers assigned by an ALC Item Manager pending assignment of a NSN. |
|
|
What does position 7 of a non-catalogued number indicate? |
Position 7 identifies the ALC assigning the NC number |
|
|
What input is used to change the stock number, ERRCD, EMC, routing identifier, and budget code? |
FIC. |
|
|
Stock number changes are made normally as a result of what conditions? |
AF Form 86 action, stock list changes, or to correct erroneous file maintenance data on original FIL inputs |
|
|
Explain the difference between a stock number change and a stock number merge. |
A stock number change exists when the change to stock number is not in the Materiel Management System database. A stock number merge exists when the change to stock number is loaded in the Materiel Management System database. |
|
|
What input loads or changes the item record nomenclature, shelf life code, quantity unit pack, and the demilitarization code? |
FNL. |
|
|
The nomenclature field is limited to how many characters? |
32. |
|
|
What input changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack? |
FCU. |
|
|
How are the two types of deletes processed? |
Internal deletes by program control and external deletes by FID processing. |
|
|
What is the purpose of SNUD? |
To provide automatic updates to item records. |
|
|
What reports are output to the D071 system as stock numbers are loaded or deleted at each base? |
BDFA, BDFD. |
|
|
How often is the Materiel Management System database reconciled with the AFMC SNUD file? |
Annually. |
|
|
What is an ISG? |
A group of items with similar physical and functional characteristics that provide compatible functional performance. |
|
|
Information on ISGs are provided by what system? |
D043B |
|
|
Which subgroup within and ISG is the least desired for retention: AA, AB, AC, or AD? |
AA. |
|
|
How was the order of use system designed? |
To exhaust the stocks of least desirable items before the master item is used. |
|
|
What is the maximum number of items authorized in a base level ISG? |
24. |
|
|
What relationship code identifies items that can be used in place of other items only for particular uses or under certain conditions? |
S. |
|
|
Who must sign the justification letter to request a local ISG relationship? |
Operations or logistics commander (or the designated representative). |
|
|
How can you ensure a request has been coordinated with other base users? |
Research the consolidated transaction history register for the past 6 months and look for issues/due-outs. |
|
|
What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete an ISG? |
FIS. |
