2Ax7X Cdc Vol 2 Ure Edit Code 5

Front 1

(201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
a. Air Combat Command (ACC).
b. Air Training Command (ATC).
c. Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

Back 1

d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

Front 2

(201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight
(MTF) training course?
a. Any 7-level course.
b. Weight and Balance.
c. Maintenance Orientation.
d. General Technical Order System

Back 2

c. Maintenance Orientation.

Front 3

(202) How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review
and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
a. Annually.
b. Semi-annually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.

Back 3

b. Semi-annually.

Front 4

(202) In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by
the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
a. TSgt.
b. MSgt.
c. SMSgt.
d. CMSgt.

Back 4

b. MSgt.

Front 5

(203) Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
a. access to Distance Learning courseware.
b. access to special certification roster criteria listings.
c. visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.

Back 5

d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.

Front 6

(203) In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages”
board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update
information?
a. Open suspenses.
b. System upgrades.
c. Application problems.
d. Changes to your user roles.

Back 6

c. Application problems.

Front 7

(204) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow,
and maintenance qualification training?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

Back 7

b. II.

Front 8

(204) What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that
complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and
training detachment (TD) courses?
a. Maintenance qualification.
b. Maintenance refresher.
c. On-the-job.
d. Ancillary.

Back 8

a. Maintenance qualification.

Front 9

(205) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT)
briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.

Back 9

a. Monthly.

Front 10

(205) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or
incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many
days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.

Back 10

b. 30.

Front 11

(205) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor
before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
a. Operations officer.
b. Group commander.
c. Unit training manager.
d. Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.

Back 11

c. Unit training manager.

Front 12

(206) Manpower authorizations are
a. funded.
b. unfunded.
c. unvalidated.
d. both funded and unfunded.

Back 12

a. funded.

Front 13

(206) A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
a. weekly.
b. monthly.
c. quarterly.
d. semiannually.

Back 13

b. monthly.

Front 14

(207) The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting
maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
a. 12 hours.
b. 13 hours.
c. 14 hours.
d. 15 hours.

Back 14

a. 12 hours.

Front 15

(207) Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour
shift up to
a. 14 hours.
b. 15 hours.
c. 16 hours.
d. 18 hours.

Back 15

c. 16 hours

Front 16

(208) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply
interface and resolving supply support problems?
a. Maintenance supply liaison.
b. Maintenance supply support.
c. Maintenance operations center.
d. Maintenance data system analysis.

Back 16

a. Maintenance supply liaison.

Front 17

(208) Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS).
b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
c. Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).
d. Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).

Back 17

b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

Front 18

(208) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
a. Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
b. Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
c. Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

Back 18

d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

Front 19

(208) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the
host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.

Back 19

b. 30.

Front 20

(209) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an
asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
a. XF3.
b. XD2.
c. XD1.
d. XB3.

Back 20

d. XB3.

Front 21

(209) The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.

Back 21

a. 30.

Front 22

(209) Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and
re-mark with a new expiration date?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

Back 22

b. II.

Front 23

(209) Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to
meet local manufacture requirements?
a. MXG Commander.
b. MXG Superintendent.
c. MXG Deputy Commander.
d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

Back 23

d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

Front 24

(209) What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering
data?
a. Audio Visual Center.
b. Engineering Data Service Center.
c. AF Primary Standards Laboratory.
d. Communication and Information System.

Back 24

b. Engineering Data Service Center.

Front 25

(210) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
a. Oil sheen on standing water.
b. Stressed vegetation.
c. Stains on ground.
d. Cloudy water.

Back 25

d. Cloudy water.

Front 26

(210) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to
notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
a. Operations officer.
b. Section supervisor.
c. Squadron commander.
d. Squadron safety monitor.

Back 26

b. Section supervisor.

Front 27

(210) Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
b. DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.
c. DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.
d. DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.

Back 27

a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.

Front 28

(211) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
a. Section supervisor.
b. Squadron Commander.
c. Flight Commander/Chief.
d. Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

Back 28

b. Squadron Commander.

Front 29

(211) What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as
a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
a. I.
b. III.
c. IIB.
d. IIA.

Back 29

c. IIB.

Front 30

(211) What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
a. AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.
b. AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.
c. DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.
d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.

Back 30

d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.

Front 31

(211) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable
authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
a. Flight Service Center (FSC).
b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
c. Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
d. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

Back 31

b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

Front 32

(211) Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose
recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander.
c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
d. Maintenance Group (MXG) commander.

Back 32

c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.

Front 33

(211) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a
combination of two or more precious metals?
a. A.
b. C.
c. G.
d. P.

Back 33

b. C.

Front 34

(212) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed
during the day?
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

Back 34

b. D04, Daily Document Register.

Front 35

(212) Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an
urgency of need (UND) code of A?
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

Back 35

a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.

Front 36

(212) Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and
bench stock supply support?
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

Back 36

c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

Front 37

(213) Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security
cages and alarmed rooms?
a. Aircraft commander.
b. Host installation commander.
c. Operations Group Commander.
d. Mission Support Group commander.

Back 37

b. Host installation commander.

Front 38

(213) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or
confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished
every
a. hour.
b. 2 hours.
c. 3 hours.
d. 4 hours.

Back 38

c. 3 hours.

Front 39

(213) Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional
check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
a. Flight commander/Chief.
b. Maintenance Group commander.
c. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
d. MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).

Back 39

c. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.

Front 40

(214) Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts
request?
a. Customer.
b. Maintenance Supply support.
c. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.

Back 40

a. Customer.

Front 41

(214) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and
pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
a. 1A or JA.
b. AR or BR.
c. AA or AM.
d. BM or CM.

Back 41

b. AR or BR.

Front 42

(215) Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must
Maintenance coordinate with?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center.
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance.
c. MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis.
d. LRS material management element.

Back 42

d. LRS material management element.

Front 43

(215) Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter
supply point monitor?
a. Annually.
b. Semiannually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.

Back 43

b. Semiannually.

Front 44

(215) When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB),
supply personnel notify the
a. Operations Officer.
b. Aircraft Section flight chief.
c. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
d. Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated
scheduler.

Back 44

c. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).

Front 45

(216) When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report
is submitted?
a. Deficiency Report (DR).
b. Supply Discrepancy Report.
c. Maintenance cross-tell report.
d. Product Quality Deficiency Report.

Back 45

b. Supply Discrepancy Report.

Front 46

(216) Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the
submitting organization or group?
a. Originator.
b. Action Point.
c. Screening Point.
d. Originating Point.

Back 46

d. Originating Point.

Front 47

(216) Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting
organization?
a. Originator.
b. Action Point.
c. Screening Point.
d. Originating Point.

Back 47

b. Action Point.

Front 48

(216) Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to
the Screening Point within
a. 8 hours.
b. 16 hours.
c. 24 hours.
d. 32 hours.

Back 48

c. 24 hours.

Front 49

(217) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office
(TODO) duty?
a. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
b. Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.
c. Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.
d. Resolving TO availability problems.

Back 49

a. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.

Front 50

(218) What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing
maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and
management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
a. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
b. Maintenance Operations Center.
c. Maintenance Management Analysis.
d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

Back 50

d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

Front 51

(219) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG)
section?
a. Quality Assurance.
b. Engine Management.
c. Maintenance Operations Center.
d. Maintenance Data System Analysis

Back 51

a. Quality Assurance.

Front 52

(219) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
a. Urgent.
b. Routine.
c. Standard.
d. Emergency.

Back 52

c. Standard.

Front 53

(220) Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
a. A4MT.
b. A4YE.
c. A4U.
d. A4BM.

Back 53

c. A4U.

Front 54

(221) Who designates cannibalization authorities?
a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.
c. MXG Vice Commander.
d. MXG Superintendent.

Back 54

b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.

Front 55

(221) If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to
notify
a. Quality Assurance.
b. Programs and Resources Flight.
c. Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).
d. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).

Back 55

d. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).

Front 56

(221) Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
a. Weapons loading operations.
b. Radiographic inspections.
c. Fuel system repair.
d. Aircraft on jacks.

Back 56

a. Weapons loading operations.

Front 57

(221) Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
a. air aborts.
b. late takeoffs.
c. ground aborts.
d. aircraft status changes

Back 57

d. aircraft status changes

Front 58

(221) Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
a. Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.
b. MXG Impoundment Release Authority.
c. Applicable Impoundment Authority.
d. Applicable Squadron commander.

Back 58

c. Applicable Impoundment Authority.

Front 59

(222) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for
control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance
industrial areas?
a. Wing Commander (WG/CC).
b. Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV).
c. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).
d. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).

Back 59

c. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).

Front 60

(222) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to
identify tools and equipment?
a. 8.
b. 9.
c. 10.
d. 11.

Back 60

b. 9.

Front 61

(223) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
a. Maintenance Flight.
b. Quality Assurance section.
c. Engine Management section.
d. Maintenance Operations Center.

Back 61

b. Quality Assurance section.

Front 62

(223) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager
within how many hours of a FOD incident?
a. 8.
b. 12.
c. 24.
d. 48.

Back 62

c. 24.

Front 63

(223) Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not
considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?
a. Bolt.
b. Panel.
c. Safety pin.
d. Explosive munitions.

Back 63

d. Explosive munitions.

Front 64

(223) A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.
b. AFI 10–2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.
c. AFI 91–224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.
d. AFI 91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports.

Back 64

a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.

Front 65

(224) Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance
recovery operation?
a. AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.
b. AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
c. AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.
d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

Back 65

d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

Front 66

(225) Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the
required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
a. Wing Inspector General.
b. MAJCOM Inspector General.
c. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
d. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

Back 66

d. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

Front 67

(225) When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation
Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance
(QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.

Back 67

a. 30.

Front 68

(225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is
an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
a. Quality Verification Inspection.
b. Management Inspection.
c. Personnel Evaluation.
d. Special Inspection.

Back 68

c. Personnel Evaluation.

Front 69

(225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is
performed after a technician completes a task?
a. Special Inspection.
b. Personnel Evaluation.
c. Management Inspection.
d. Quality Verification Inspection

Back 69

d. Quality Verification Inspection

Front 70

(227) In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s
interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
a. Air Force Mobility Command.
b. Quality Assurance.
c. Inspector General.
d. Lead command.

Back 70

d. Lead command.