2Ax7X Cdc Vol 1 & 2 Edit Code 5

Front 1

(001) Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

a. Off-equipment.
b. On-equipment.
c. Preventive.
d. Corrective.

Back 1

c.Preventive.

Front 2

(001) Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes?

a. Cross-tells.
b. Self-inspections.
c. Technical orders.
d. National stock numbers.

Back 2

a.Cross-tells.

Front 3

(001) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program?

a. Wing commander.
b. Wing vice-commander.
c. Maintenance group commander.
d. Maintenance group superintendent.

Back 3

c.Maintenance group commander.

Front 4

(002) Which maintenance capability category is performed at backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance?

a. Two-level maintenance.
b. Organizational.
c. Intermediate.
d. Depot.

Back 4

c.Intermediate.

Front 5

(002) All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through

a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation and the Maintenance Group commander.
b. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation and Maintenance Management Analysis.
c. Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
d. Quality Assurance and Maintenance Management Analysis.

Back 5

c.Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

Front 6

(002) What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations?

a. Regional Repair Centers.
b. Centralized Repair Facilities.
c. Programmed Depot Maintenance.
d. Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program.

Back 6

b.Centralized Repair Facilities.

Front 7

(003) What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability?

a. Quality Assurance.
b. Reliability and Maintainability.
c. Programmed Depot Maintenance.
d. Intermediate Repair Enhancement.

Back 7

b.Reliability and Maintainability.

Front 8

(003) Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known?

a. 1A.
b. 1B.
c. 2A.
d. 2B.

Back 8

b.1B.

Front 9

(003) Which Maintenance Group agency provides technical assistance for Deficiency Reports to work center supervisors?

a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
b. Programs and Resources Flight.
c. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
d. Quality Assurance.

Back 9

d.Quality Assurance.

Front 10

(004) Which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e., a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)?

a. Technical orders.
b. Support agreements.
c. Air Force instructions.
d. Operating instructions.

Back 10

d.Operating instructions.

Front 11

(004) When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as

a. wing OIs.
b. separate group OIs.
c. support agreements.
d. Air Force instructions.

Back 11

a.wing OIs.

Front 12

(005) Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end-items of equipment?

a. 95.
b. 244.
c. 427.
d. 781 series.

Back 12

a.95.

Front 13

(005) Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer

a. in units where jet engines, jet engine adjustable nozzles, or thrust reversers are involved in frequent rotation from one aerospace vehicle to another.
b. as long as an entry has been made in the necessary maintenance information system verifying that the basic items have been accounted for.
c. to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information.
d. in the case of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades being transferred into the disposal system.

Back 13

c.to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information.

Front 14

(005) What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels?

a. 781J.
b. 245.
c. 244.
d. 95.

Back 14

d.95.

Front 15

(006) Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components?

a. C-E Equipment Status.
b. Job Data Documentation.
c. Status and Inventory Reporting.
d. Comprehensive Engine Management System.

Back 15

d.Comprehensive Engine Management System

Front 16

(006) Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem allows users to track maintenance actions and has both maintenance and supply data?

a. Operational Events.
b. Maintenance Events.
c. Job Data Documentation.
d. Aircraft Automated Forms 781A, J, K.

Back 16

b.Maintenance Events.

Front 17

17(006) Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem replaces the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) system and provides maintenance personnel with the online capability to document, inquire, and produce retrievals of maintenance actions?

a. Operational Events.
b. Maintenance Events.
c. Job Data Documentation.
d. Aircraft Automated Forms 781A, J, K.

Back 17

c.Job Data Documentation.

Front 18

(006) Who guides the overall Data Integrity Team process and ensures the data provided to maintenance managers and supervision is meaningful and factual?

a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
b. Maintenance Management Analysis.
c. Programs and Resources.
d. Every user.

Back 18

b.Maintenance Management Analysis.

Front 19

(006) In addition to being familiar with the unit’s assigned weapon system(s), squadron representatives for the Data Integrity Team must be at least

a. a 5-level.
b. a 7-level.
c. a senior Airman.
d. a non-commissioned officer.

Back 19

a.a 5-level.

Front 20

(007) What provides a measurement of unit performance and capability?

a. Metrics.
b. Reports.
c. Standards.
d. Instructions.

Back 20

a.Metrics.

Front 21

(007) What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators?

a. Performance and health.
b. Trending and impacting.
c. Positive and negative.
d. Leading and lagging.

Back 21

d.Leading and lagging.

Front 22

(007) Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance’s capability to provide resources to execute the mission?

a. Leading.
b. Lagging.
c. Trending.
d. Impacting.

Back 22

a.Leading.

Front 23

(007) Which primary maintenance metric indictor shows and follows firmly established trends?

a. Leading.
b. Lagging.
c. Trending.
d. Impacting.

Back 23

b.Lagging.

Front 24

(008) Which maintenance repair priority is designated only for aircraft that are on alert status or aircraft that are supporting the war plan or national emergency missions?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

Back 24

a.1.

Front 25

(009) Who is responsible for establishing a crashed, damaged, or disabled aircraft recovery program?

a. Wing commander.
b. Wing vice-commander.
c. Maintenance Group commander.
d. Maintenance Group deputy commander.

Back 25

a.Wing commander.

Front 26

(009) Who is personally responsible for managing the Foreign Object Damage and Dropped Object Prevention programs?

a. Wing commander.
b. Wing vice-commander.
c. Maintenance group commander.
d. Maintenance group deputy commander.

Back 26

b.Wing vice-commander.

Front 27

(009) Who is responsible for standardizing maintenance discipline, procedures, organizational structures, compliance, and management philosophy?

a. Maintenance group deputy commander.
b. Maintenance group commander.
c. Production superintendent.
d. Wing commander.

Back 27

b.Maintenance group commander.

Front 28

(009) Who is responsible for chairing the daily maintenance production/scheduling meeting with representatives from throughout the maintenance group (MXG)?

a. MXG deputy commander.
b. Wing vice-commander.
c. MXG superintendent.
d. MXG commander.

Back 28

a.MXG deputy commander.

Front 29

(009) Who oversees the management of maintenance facilities and aircraft support equipment procurement and maintenance?

a. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
b. Programs and Resources Flight.
c. Maintenance group superintendent
d. Maintenance group deputy commander.

Back 29

c.Maintenance group superintendent

Front 30

(010) Who is held legally responsible for their unit’s Environmental Protection Agency program compliance in accordance with AFI 32–7042, Waste Management?

a. Flight commanders.
b. Squadron commanders.
c. Maintenance operations officers.
d. Maintenance group commanders.

Back 30

b.Squadron commanders.

Front 31

(010) Which commander is tasked with developing and publishing the wing flying/maintenance schedule in coordination with other squadron maintenance operations officers/maintenance superintendents?

a. Maintenance squadron.
b. Maintenance operations flight.
c. Aircraft maintenance squadron.
d. Maintenance operations squadron.

Back 31

b.Maintenance operations flight.

Front 32

(010) Worker safety and health information must be monitored, tracked, and documented using what AF IMT?

a. 55.
b. 244.
c. 435.
d. 623.

Back 32

a.55.

Front 33

(010) Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge are responsible for developing crossutilization training requirements, ensuring they do not interfere with

a. accountability and control procedures.
b. deployments and wing-level taskings.
c. qualification and upgrade training.
d. scheduled maintenance actions.

Back 33

c.qualification and upgrade training.

Front 34

(010) Section non-commissioned officers-in-charge must ensure their sections are organized with tools, equipment, and material as close to the Point of Maintenance without jeopardizing

a. accountability and control procedures.
b. qualification and upgrade training.
c. maintenance and flying schedules.
d. proper maintenance techniques.

Back 34

a.accountability and control procedures.

Front 35

(010) When a maintenance squadron production superintendent is appointed, who must he or she inform of specialist non-availability to at the beginning of each shift?

a. Aircraft maintenance unit production superintendents.
b. Maintenance Operation Center.
c. Group manning manager.
d. Squadron commander.

Back 35

b.Maintenance Operation Center.

Front 36

(011) How many standard squadrons are in a maintenance group?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 5.
d. 8.

Back 36

b.3.

Front 37

(011) Which Maintenance Operations Squadron flight is a centrally located agency responsible for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain fleet health?

a. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
b. Maintenance Training Flight (MTF).
c. Maintenance Operations (MOF).
d. Programs and Resources.

Back 37

c.Maintenance Operations (MOF).

Front 38

(011) The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for the overall management of which Integrated Maintenance Data System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem?

a. Location.
b. Operational Events.
c. Maintenance Events.
d. Status and Inventory Reporting.

Back 38

a.Location.

Front 39

(011) Which section is the wing focal point for engine health tracking and the engine health management program?

a. Aircraft Maintenance Unit Specialist Section.
b. Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance.
c. Maintenance Operations Center.
d. Engine Management.

Back 39

d.Engine Management.

Front 40

(011) Which Maintenance Operation Squadron section maintains standardized aircraft jacket files and attends pre-dock and post-dock inspection meetings?

a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
b. Maintenance Management Analysis.
c. Maintenance Operations Center.
d. Production Superintendent.

Back 40

a.Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

Front 41

(011) The Maintenance Training Flight normally consists of what two sections?

a. Education and Training& Development and Instruction.
b. Training Management& Development and Instruction.
c. Training Development& Instruction Management.
d. Training Detachment& Training Management.

Back 41

b.Training Management& Development and Instruction.

Front 42

(012) What agency’s basic mission is to launch and recover aircraft and to perform the necessary servicing, inspections, and maintenance to perform daily aircraft flying operations?

a. Transient Alert.
b. Maintenance Flight.
c. Aircraft Maintenance Unit.
d. Maintenance Operations Squadron.

Back 42

c.Aircraft Maintenance Unit.

Front 43

(012) Which of the following is not a section within a standard aircraft maintenance unit?

a. Weapons.
b. Debrief.
c. Aircraft.
d. Supply.

Back 43

d.Supply.

Front 44

(012) What does the Debrief section use to help identify fault codes to aid maintainers in aircraft troubleshooting?

a. Landing status codes.
b. Fault Isolation manuals.
c. System capability codes.
d. Fault Reporting manuals.

Back 44

d.Fault Reporting manuals.

Front 45

(012) Who must ensure the applicable aircraft form sets are provided to the Debrief section by the end of the flying day if debriefs are suspended due to aircraft flying surge operations?

a. Weapons expediter or Specialist expediter.
b. Flight-line expediter or Aircraft section chief.
c. Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent.
d. Aircraft section chief or Production Superintendent.

Back 45

c.Flight-line expediter or Production Superintendent.

Front 46

(012) The Aircraft section is split into two separate sections when an Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s number of mission assigned aircraft is more than

a. 14.
b. 16.
c. 18.
d. 20.

Back 46

c.18.

Front 47

(012) Which section is normally responsible for aircraft troubleshooting, on-equipment repairs, component removal and installation, reprogramming avionics systems, and classified aircraft items management?

a. Avionics.
b. Aircrafts.
c. Specialist.
d. Communication-Navigation.

Back 47

c.Specialist.

Front 48

(012) Which technicians maintain aircraft bleed air, vacuum, pneumatic, fire suppression, and oxygen systems, including removing and replacing associated system components?

a. Electro-environmental specialists.
b. Propulsion specialists.
c. Avionics specialists.
d. Crew chiefs.

Back 48

a.Electro-environmental specialists.

Front 49

(012) Who is responsible to the Weapons section chief for monitoring all armament systems maintenance and loading operations?

a. Load crew chief.
b. Flight-line expediter.
c. Weapons expediter.
d. Dedicated crew chief.

Back 49

c.Weapons expediter.

Front 50

(012) Which section is tasked with the maintenance, control, and storage of alternate mission equipment, dash–21 equipment, and maintenance, safety, and protective equipment?

a. Aircraft section.
b. Support section.
c. Weapons section.
d. Armament Support section.

Back 50

b.Support section.

Front 51

(013) Which of the following is not a standard flight in the maintenance squadron?

a. Fabrication.
b. Armament.
c. Propulsion.
d. Egress.

Back 51

d.Egress.

Front 52

(013) Commanders have the option of establishing two separate squadrons, the Equipment Maintenance Squadron and the Component Maintenance Squadron, if maintenance squadron manning authorizations exceed

a. 600.
b. 670.
c. 700.
d. 760.

Back 52

c.700.

Front 53

(013) In relation to aerospace ground equipment, what are centrally located to enhance mission performance?

a. AFTO IMT 244s.
b. Driver radios.
c. Sub-pools.
d. Drivers.

Back 53

c.Sub-pools.

Front 54

(013) Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance on systems such as all-weather landing, attitude reference and bombing, and inertial navigation?

a. Guidance and Control Systems.
b. Communication-Navigation.
c. Avionics Intermediate.
d. Sensors.

Back 54

a.Guidance and Control Systems.

Front 55

(013) Which Avionics Flight section is responsible for maintaining low-altitude navigation and targeting infrared for night (LANTIRN) pods?

a. Guidance and Control Systems.
b. Communication-Navigation.
c. Avionics Intermediate.
d. Sensors.

Back 55

d.Sensors.

Front 56

(013) Which Fabrication Flight section’s processes are tightly controlled because the parts and tools they manufacture must meet the stringent standards of aerospace-grade equipment?

a. Low Observable.
b. Metals Technology.
c. Non-Destructive Inspection.
d. Aircraft Structural Maintenance.

Back 56

b.Metals Technology.

Front 57

(013) If a Refurbishment section is established, wings have the option to align it under either the Maintenance Flight or the

a. Fabrication Flight.
b. Accessories Flight.
c. Aircraft Inspection Flight.
d. Two-level Maintenance Flight.

Back 57

a.Fabrication Flight.

Front 58

(013) Which Munitions Flight section receives, stores, warehouses, handles, inspects, ships, inventories, and transports containers, dispensers, and training items?

a. Production.
b. Material.
c. Systems.
d. Support.

Back 58

b.Material.

Front 59

(013) Which Propulsion Flight section stores, builds up, tears down, modifies, and repairs engines, quick engine change kits, and test components?

a. Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance.
b. Engine Equipment Maintenance.
c. Module/Accessory Repair.
d. Small Gas Turbine Engine.

Back 59

a.Jet Engine Intermediate Maintenance.

Front 60

(013) The Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment(TMDE) Flight maintains, calibrates, and certifies TMDE through the

a. geographically separated units.
b. Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory.
c. Rapid Assistance Support for Calibration.
d. Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory.

Back 60

b.Air Force Primary Standards Laboratory.

Front 61

(201) Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
a. Air Combat Command (ACC).
b. Air Training Command (ATC).
c. Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

Back 61

d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

Front 62

(201) The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight
(MTF) training course?
a. Any 7-level course.
b. Weight and Balance.
c. Maintenance Orientation.
d. General Technical Order System

Back 62

c. Maintenance Orientation.

Front 63

(202) How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review
and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
a. Annually.
b. Semi-annually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.

Back 63

b. Semi-annually.

Front 64

(202) In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by
the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
a. TSgt.
b. MSgt.
c. SMSgt.
d. CMSgt.

Back 64

b. MSgt.

Front 65

(203) Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
a. access to Distance Learning courseware.
b. access to special certification roster criteria listings.
c. visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.

Back 65

d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.

Front 66

(203) In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages”
board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update
information?
a. Open suspenses.
b. System upgrades.
c. Application problems.
d. Changes to your user roles.

Back 66

c. Application problems.

Front 67

(204) What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow,
and maintenance qualification training?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

Back 67

b. II.

Front 68

(204) What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that
complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and
training detachment (TD) courses?
a. Maintenance qualification.
b. Maintenance refresher.
c. On-the-job.
d. Ancillary.

Back 68

a. Maintenance qualification.

Front 69

(205) How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT)
briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.

Back 69

a. Monthly.

Front 70

(205) An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or
incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many
days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.

Back 70

b. 30.

Front 71

(205) Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor
before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
a. Operations officer.
b. Group commander.
c. Unit training manager.
d. Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.

Back 71

c. Unit training manager.

Front 72

(206) Manpower authorizations are
a. funded.
b. unfunded.
c. unvalidated.
d. both funded and unfunded.

Back 72

a. funded.

Front 73

(206) A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
a. weekly.
b. monthly.
c. quarterly.
d. semiannually.

Back 73

b. monthly.

Front 74

(207) The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting
maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
a. 12 hours.
b. 13 hours.
c. 14 hours.
d. 15 hours.

Back 74

a. 12 hours.

Front 75

(207) Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour
shift up to
a. 14 hours.
b. 15 hours.
c. 16 hours.
d. 18 hours.

Back 75

c. 16 hours

Front 76

(208) Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply
interface and resolving supply support problems?
a. Maintenance supply liaison.
b. Maintenance supply support.
c. Maintenance operations center.
d. Maintenance data system analysis.

Back 76

a. Maintenance supply liaison.

Front 77

(208) Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS).
b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
c. Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).
d. Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).

Back 77

b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

Front 78

(208) Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
a. Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
b. Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
c. Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

Back 78

d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

Front 79

(208) The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the
host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.

Back 79

b. 30.

Front 80

(209) Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an
asset before it can be placed in bench stock?
a. XF3.
b. XD2.
c. XD1.
d. XB3.

Back 80

d. XB3.

Front 81

(209) The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.

Back 81

a. 30.

Front 82

(209) Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and
re-mark with a new expiration date?
a. I.
b. II.
c. III.
d. IV.

Back 82

b. II.

Front 83

(209) Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to
meet local manufacture requirements?
a. MXG Commander.
b. MXG Superintendent.
c. MXG Deputy Commander.
d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

Back 83

d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

Front 84

(209) What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering
data?
a. Audio Visual Center.
b. Engineering Data Service Center.
c. AF Primary Standards Laboratory.
d. Communication and Information System.

Back 84

b. Engineering Data Service Center.

Front 85

(210) Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
a. Oil sheen on standing water.
b. Stressed vegetation.
c. Stains on ground.
d. Cloudy water.

Back 85

d. Cloudy water.

Front 86

(210) Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to
notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
a. Operations officer.
b. Section supervisor.
c. Squadron commander.
d. Squadron safety monitor.

Back 86

b. Section supervisor.

Front 87

(210) Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
b. DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.
c. DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.
d. DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.

Back 87

a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.

Front 88

(211) Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
a. Section supervisor.
b. Squadron Commander.
c. Flight Commander/Chief.
d. Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).

Back 88

b. Squadron Commander.

Front 89

(211) What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as
a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
a. I.
b. III.
c. IIB.
d. IIA.

Back 89

c. IIB.

Front 90

(211) What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
a. AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.
b. AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.
c. DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.
d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.

Back 90

d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.

Front 91

(211) Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable
authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
a. Flight Service Center (FSC).
b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
c. Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
d. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

Back 91

b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

Front 92

(211) Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose
recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander.
c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
d. Maintenance Group (MXG) commander.

Back 92

c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.

Front 93

(211) Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a
combination of two or more precious metals?
a. A.
b. C.
c. G.
d. P.

Back 93

b. C.

Front 94

(212) Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed
during the day?
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

Back 94

b. D04, Daily Document Register.

Front 95

(212) Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an
urgency of need (UND) code of A?
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

Back 95

a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.

Front 96

(212) Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and
bench stock supply support?
a. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
b. D04, Daily Document Register.
c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
d. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

Back 96

c. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

Front 97

(213) Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security
cages and alarmed rooms?
a. Aircraft commander.
b. Host installation commander.
c. Operations Group Commander.
d. Mission Support Group commander.

Back 97

b. Host installation commander.

Front 98

(213) When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or
confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished
every
a. hour.
b. 2 hours.
c. 3 hours.
d. 4 hours.

Back 98

c. 3 hours.

Front 99

(213) Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional
check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
a. Flight commander/Chief.
b. Maintenance Group commander.
c. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
d. MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).

Back 99

c. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.

Front 100

(214) Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts
request?
a. Customer.
b. Maintenance Supply support.
c. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.

Back 100

a. Customer.

Front 101

(214) Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and
pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
a. 1A or JA.
b. AR or BR.
c. AA or AM.
d. BM or CM.

Back 101

b. AR or BR.

Front 102

(215) Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must
Maintenance coordinate with?
a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center.
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance.
c. MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis.
d. LRS material management element.

Back 102

d. LRS material management element.

Front 103

(215) Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter
supply point monitor?
a. Annually.
b. Semiannually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.

Back 103

b. Semiannually.

Front 104

(215) When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB),
supply personnel notify the
a. Operations Officer.
b. Aircraft Section flight chief.
c. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
d. Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated
scheduler.

Back 104

c. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).

Front 105

(216) When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report
is submitted?
a. Deficiency Report (DR).
b. Supply Discrepancy Report.
c. Maintenance cross-tell report.
d. Product Quality Deficiency Report.

Back 105

b. Supply Discrepancy Report.

Front 106

(216) Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the
submitting organization or group?
a. Originator.
b. Action Point.
c. Screening Point.
d. Originating Point.

Back 106

d. Originating Point.

Front 107

(216) Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting
organization?
a. Originator.
b. Action Point.
c. Screening Point.
d. Originating Point.

Back 107

b. Action Point.

Front 108

(216) Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to
the Screening Point within
a. 8 hours.
b. 16 hours.
c. 24 hours.
d. 32 hours.

Back 108

c. 24 hours.

Front 109

(217) Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office
(TODO) duty?
a. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
b. Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.
c. Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.
d. Resolving TO availability problems.

Back 109

a. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.

Front 110

(218) What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing
maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and
management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
a. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
b. Maintenance Operations Center.
c. Maintenance Management Analysis.
d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

Back 110

d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

Front 111

(219) The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG)
section?
a. Quality Assurance.
b. Engine Management.
c. Maintenance Operations Center.
d. Maintenance Data System Analysis

Back 111

a. Quality Assurance.

Front 112

(219) Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
a. Urgent.
b. Routine.
c. Standard.
d. Emergency.

Back 112

c. Standard.

Front 113

(220) Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
a. A4MT.
b. A4YE.
c. A4U.
d. A4BM.

Back 113

c. A4U.

Front 114

(221) Who designates cannibalization authorities?
a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.
c. MXG Vice Commander.
d. MXG Superintendent.

Back 114

b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.

Front 115

(221) If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to
notify
a. Quality Assurance.
b. Programs and Resources Flight.
c. Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).
d. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).

Back 115

d. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).

Front 116

(221) Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
a. Weapons loading operations.
b. Radiographic inspections.
c. Fuel system repair.
d. Aircraft on jacks.

Back 116

a. Weapons loading operations.

Front 117

(221) Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
a. air aborts.
b. late takeoffs.
c. ground aborts.
d. aircraft status changes

Back 117

d. aircraft status changes

Front 118

(221) Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
a. Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.
b. MXG Impoundment Release Authority.
c. Applicable Impoundment Authority.
d. Applicable Squadron commander.

Back 118

c. Applicable Impoundment Authority.

Front 119

(222) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for
control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance
industrial areas?
a. Wing Commander (WG/CC).
b. Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV).
c. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).
d. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).

Back 119

c. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).

Front 120

(222) How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to
identify tools and equipment?
a. 8.
b. 9.
c. 10.
d. 11.

Back 120

b. 9.

Front 121

(223) The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
a. Maintenance Flight.
b. Quality Assurance section.
c. Engine Management section.
d. Maintenance Operations Center.

Back 121

b. Quality Assurance section.

Front 122

(223) The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager
within how many hours of a FOD incident?
a. 8.
b. 12.
c. 24.
d. 48.

Back 122

c. 24.

Front 123

(223) Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not
considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?
a. Bolt.
b. Panel.
c. Safety pin.
d. Explosive munitions.

Back 123

d. Explosive munitions.

Front 124

(223) A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.
b. AFI 10–2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.
c. AFI 91–224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.
d. AFI 91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports.

Back 124

a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.

Front 125

(224) Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance
recovery operation?
a. AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.
b. AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
c. AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.
d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

Back 125

d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.

Front 126

(225) Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the
required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
a. Wing Inspector General.
b. MAJCOM Inspector General.
c. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
d. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

Back 126

d. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

Front 127

(225) When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation
Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance
(QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
a. 30.
b. 60.
c. 90.
d. 120.

Back 127

a. 30.

Front 128

(225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is
an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?
a. Quality Verification Inspection.
b. Management Inspection.
c. Personnel Evaluation.
d. Special Inspection.

Back 128

c. Personnel Evaluation.

Front 129

(225) What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is
performed after a technician completes a task?
a. Special Inspection.
b. Personnel Evaluation.
c. Management Inspection.
d. Quality Verification Inspection

Back 129

d. Quality Verification Inspection

Front 130

(227) In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s
interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
a. Air Force Mobility Command.
b. Quality Assurance.
c. Inspector General.
d. Lead command.

Back 130

d. Lead command.