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125 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The estimated percent of accidents caused by NATURE is

What is the percentage of accidents attributable to UNSAFE ACTS and PHYSICAL HAZARDS

Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures

Manuals, TOs and handbooks

What safety training phase is deserved as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airmen


A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDS's if concentrations are GREATER than
Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by


TEMPORARY storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point CANNOT EXCEED

90 days

What affects RADIATION hazards

strength of emission, time of exposure and weather
the RECOMMENDED procedure for COOLING AN OVERHEATED BRAKE ASSEMBLY is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then

allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
The noise intensity of a jet engine is GREATEST toward the rear of the engine and to either side of an angle of

45 degrees

Which symptom is NOT a sign of noise fatigue

a feeling of emptiness
When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for REMOVING THE SAFETY DEVICES associated with these explosive devices

weapons personnel

remove all ammunition and explosives
All composite material-related training must be documented on which AF IMT (form)


the FIRST step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to

identify all possible sources of FOD

Who is responsible for FOD prevention

when a lost tool CANNOT be located, the LOWEST person authorized to clear a red X is the

maintenance operations officer/ maintenance superintendant
in MOST units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects

the pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a SAFE OPERATING RANGE when the gauge needle is within the

green marking
individuals NOT DIRECTLY INVOLVED IN NITROGEN SERVICING should remain outside a

20 ft radius

who is responsible for the -1 TO PREFLIGHT CHECK

the aircrew

when serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the

nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle OUTBOARD of the engine being started

what reference covers internationally accepted hand signals

AFI 11-218

during an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order

supervisor only
what are the air forces maintenance capabilities in order of INCREASING CAPABILITY

organizational, intermediate, and depot
what type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need


objectives of the MDD system include

collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data

what information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database

select serially controlled and time change items

what AFTO 781 series form ins used as a source document for obtaining BILLING INFORMATION FOR FUEL AND OIL



after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing

engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO


who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting

item managers

the IMDS is the production-oriented maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the

unit level

the training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training

when should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program

upon duty position assignment

the GAS is NORMALLY sent out

90 days after graduation

where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC

CFETP, part II

the TBA provides air force personnel with global, real-time

visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses

which TO library does NOT need to maintain publication currency


what is the TOTAL number of air force TO catalogs


which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses


what TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals spaced with red X's around the border of the first page

urgent action

which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22


which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, IF NOT CORRECTED, could cause reduced operational efficiency


which type of NONDIRECTIVE publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but CANNOT ENFORCE what's on the form

which maintenance stand has an ADJUSTABLE HEIGHT of 13 to 20 ft

which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand


what is the MAXIMUM load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support


on straightways the MAXIMUM TOWING SPEED for the model 300 engine trailer is

20 mph

what type of jack is NORMALLY used to change a tire on an aircraft


who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented



green with a white band near the top

when servicing aircraft the GASEOUS NITROGEN SERVICING TRAILER can be operated by

qualified operators only

what is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC

what is the MAXIMUM PRESSURE that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen

4400 psig
the USABLE pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to


the MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a MAXIMUM pressure of

the H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from

150-280 F
what is the MAXIMUM TOW SPEED for a C-10 air conditioner

20 mph

the C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from

47-200 F

the A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces

28.5 VDC

what unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance


which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60

the FL-1D floodlight consists of two

1000 watt lamp fixtures
what is the MAXIMUM TOWING SPEED of the FL-1D floodlight on SMOOTH surfaces

20 mph

what is used to drive the MK-3A-1

an electric motor

how are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated

number 1 and number 2

the MJ-2A RESERVOIR holds what amount of fluid

27 gallons

the MB-4 coleman incorporates

four-wheel steering, four wheel drive

what is the MAXIMUM GOVERNED SPEED of the MB-4 coleman

20 mph

what type of steering system on the MB-4 eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer

why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications

prevent corrosion
how are SPECIAL BOLTS identified

the bolt head is marked with the letter S
which bolt is NEVER used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems

which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high tension applications

an internal wrenching type

LEFT-HAND threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

groove on the end of the barrel
NORMALLY, what type of material is used in the construction of a PRESSURE SEAL

soft rubber

a push-pull rod end engagement is checked by

inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal

what is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing

15-20 inches

the allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is NO DEEPER than

15 % of wall thickness

GENERALLY, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures

300 psi and below

the limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the MAXIMUM NUMBER OF BOLTS that can be secured using a

24 inch length of wire

when securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the MAXIMUM number of bolts that may be WIRED IN A SERIES

which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them
axially assembled retaining rings
which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove

spiral retaining ring

what part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit

pin-and-socket contacts

in the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates


which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied
indicating type
which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached

breakaway type

prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

maximum setting at least six times

what are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened

tension and torsion
which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving

use the range button on the fluke multimeter to

move the decimal point

when the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display, the
touch-hold mode is in use

which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts

feeler gauge

what is the longest possible movement between the micrometers spindle and anvil

1.0 inch
which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut

spring-joint calipers
which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders

odd-leg caliper

which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame

slide caliper

who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced

supervisors at all levels

bench stock levels are established to provide a

30-day usage

which form is used to issue an item of equipment for SHORT, SPECIFIED periods

AF IMT 1297

all items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code

within maintenance the internal control of repairable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and

AFTO Form 350
which DD forms are easily identified by their GREEN margins and letters

1577-2 and 1577-3
engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in worksmanship for

100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt
which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle


which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home statin check, major, and minor inspections

which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements

programmed depot maintenance
MINIMUM aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in

inspection work cards

which inspection is USUALLY performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems


the TH inspection is NORMALLY performed

after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled

which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for MORE than 30 or 90 days


which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents


to transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form

which TO should be consulted for detailed information about WEIGHT AND BALANCE


what is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity

aircraft weight

which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy


corrosion or deterioration of a metal part BEGINS the instant it is

fabricated or manufactured

corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

exhausted or salvaged

what type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains


what corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal


alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in

TO 1-1A-8

after treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery

sodium bicarbonate