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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the composition of JP-8 fuel?
a. Gasoline and kerosene b. Diesel fuel and AV GAS c. Diesel fuel and kerosene d. Gasoline and diesel fuel |
a. Gasoline and kerosene
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At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP-8 than out of gasoline?
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. Five |
c. Four
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The main fuel control allows the engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of
a. flameout b. turbine seizure c. overtemperature d. compressor shift |
a. flameout
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The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to
a. heat the fuel and cool the oil b. cool the fuel and cool the oil c. heat the fuel and heat the oil d. cool the fuel and heat the oil |
a. heat the fuel and cool the oil
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What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?
a. Pneumatic b. Fuel injection c. Hyrdromechanical d. Electrohydromechanical |
d. Electrohydromechanical
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On fuel controls that require setting during an engine trim, calibration and/or adjustment screws MUST be
a. replaced b. die marked c. safety sealed and/or lockwired d. apply a thread locking compound |
c. safety sealed and/or lockwired
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When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine?
a. MEC b. PMG c. DEEC d. TSFC |
c. DEEC
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On an F100-PW-220 engine, the MFC is capable of operating in how many modes?
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
b. Two
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Which F100-PW-220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?
a. N2 sensor. b. P&D valve c. Fuel nozzle d. Fan inlet Tt2.5 sensor |
b. P&D valve
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Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW-220 engine?
a. 7th b. 10th c. 13th d. 14th |
c. 13th
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On the F100-PW-220 engine, which component controls the augmentor fuel control?
a. Fuel pump b. Fuel pump controller c. Signature elimination probe d. DEEC |
d. DEEC
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Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW-220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the
a. main fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and damp valve, and fuel nozzles b. fuel/oil coooler, pressurizing and dump valve, main fuel control, and fuel nozzles c. augmentor fuel pump, augmentor fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles d. augmenter fuel control, augmentor fuel pump, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles |
a. main fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and damp valve, and fuel nozzles
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Operational control of the F108-CF-100 engine is achieved by the use of the power lever, fuel shut-off lever, and
a. fuel pump b. oil/fuel heat exchanger c. air/fuel heat exchanger d. PMC |
d. PMC
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The F108 engine fuel pump contains a low-pressure stage (centrifugal boost stage) and a high-pressure
a. gear stage b. gerotor stage c. axial boost stage d. sliding vane stage |
a. gear stage
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On an F108-CF-100 engine, the fuel injectors contain
a. only primary fuel flow passages b. only secondary fuel flow passages c. both primary and secondary fuel flow passages d. primary, secondary, and auxiliary fuel flow passages |
c. both primary and secondary fuel flow passages
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What supplies the AE2100D3 FADEC with power until engine RPM is sufficient for the alternator stator to take control?
a. Airplane 28 VDC power supply b. NIU c. MIL-STD-1553B data bus d. Mission computer |
a. Airplane 28 VDC power supply
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What component is controlled by the AE2100D3 FADEC through the ENGINE START switch for normal engine shutdown or by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown?
a. Servo valve b. Fuel check valve c. Electric shutoff valve d. Latching shutoff valve |
d. Latching shutoff valve
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On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly?
a. 3 gear; 1 boost b. 2 gear; 2 boost c. 2 gear; 1 boost d. 1 gear; 2 boost |
c. 2 gear; 1 boost
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What T56 engine controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve?
a. Temperature b. Engine speed c. Throttle position d. Compressor inlet pressure |
d. Compressor inlet pressure
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On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual *** signal from the thermocouples?
a. TD valve b. Speed-sensitive controls c. TD potentiometers d. TD amplifier |
d. TD amplifier
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Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?
a. TD valve b. main fuel pump c. TD amplifier d. fuel control |
a. TD valve.
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When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the
valve bypass? A: 0%. B: 10%. C: 20%. D: 30%. |
C: 20%.
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In addition to the visual inspection the T–56 engine fuel nozzle also requires what
type of inspection? a. nondestructive b. spray pattern c. Pre-torque d. ultrasonic |
b. Spray pattern.
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Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an
automobile? a. air b. fuel c. hydraulic d. pneumatic |
a. Air
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When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by
a. air pressure b. oil pressure c. spring pressure d. hydraulic pressure |
c. spring pressure
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The F100-PW-100 engine oil pressure varies with N2 speed, engine inlet oil tmeperature, and
a. oil jet pressure b. fan turbine speed c. oil nozzle condition d. number of oil jets used |
c. oil nozzle condition
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What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air?
a. Aeration b. Induction c. Convection d. Compression |
a. Aeration
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In an engine oil tank, WHICH device separates the air from the oil?
a. Aerator b. Deaerator c. Check valve d. Bypass valve |
b. Deaerator
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Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?
a. wet sump b. dry sump c. hot tank d. cold tank |
b. dry sump
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Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?
a. wet tank b. dry tank c. hot tank d. cold tank |
c. hot tank
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On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the
a. oil tank b. gearbox c. oil filter d. oil pump |
b. gearbox
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On an F100-PW-220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use
a. secondary fan airflow as a coolant b. secondary fan airflow as an oil heater c. primary core engine airflow as a coolant d. primary core engine airflow as an oil heater |
a. secondary fan airflow as a coolant
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On an F100-PW-220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?
a. oil relief valve b. Filter bypass valve c. Filter popper valve d. Oil pressure transmitter tap |
b. Filter bypass valve
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What is used to check the oil level in a F108-CF-100 engine?
a. sight gauge on the oil tank b. flight station oil level gauge c. filler cap with a graduated gauge d. graduated marking on the outside of the tank |
c. filler cap with a graduated gauge
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Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine PTO?
a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 9 |
b. 5
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What AE 2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?
a. alternator stator b. PGB c. PUAD d. GMAD |
d. GMAD
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Which type of oil pump is used on the T56 engine?
a. Gear b. Float c. Gerotor d. Centrifugal |
a. Gear
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The amount of ram air passing through the oil cooler core is regulated by the
a. thermostat b. flap actuator c. size of the core d. regulating valve |
b. flap actuator
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Bleed air flowing through which component increases airflow through the cooler?
a. Flap actuator b. oil cooler flap c. augmentation valve d. augmentation ejector |
d. augmentation ejector
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The valve that allows fluid to flow in only ONE direction is the
a. check b. relief c. bypass d. pressurizing |
a. check
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In the power unit oil system, the dual-port oil jet mounted on the front side of the compressor air inlet housing is used to lubricate the
a. mid and center sleeve bearings b. torquemeter and compressor front bearings c. front and rear sides of the compressor rear bearing d. front and rear sides of the compressor front bearing |
a. mid and center sleeve bearings
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The power section and RGB oil systems are jointed together at the
a. fuel heater and strainer b. external scavenge oil filter c. external scavenge oil pump d. scavenge element of the main pump |
b. external scavenge oil filter
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Which RGB component prevents oil in the oil tank from draining into the RGB rear case?
a. Shutoff valve b. Oil pump and filter c. Oil pump check valve d. Oil pump bypass valve |
c. Oil pump check valve
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How many scavenge oil pumps are located in the RGB?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
b. 2
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They journeyman MUST be aware of which hazardous property of modern jet engine oil?
a. toxicity b. viscosity c. alkalinity d. corrosiveness |
d. corrosiveness
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The PRIMARY benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is
a. improved safety b. increased component life c. reduced maintenance cost d. increased equipment availability |
a. improved safety
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Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?
a. Project monitor b. Logistics commander c. Propulsion flight chief d. Laboratory supervisor |
a. Project monitor
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What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
a. Wear metals b. Friction metals c. Precious metals d. Transformation metals |
a. Wear metals
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Oil sampling intervals should not vary by more than
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% |
b. 10%
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The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in which major aspect?
a. SEM/EDX samples mys be sent off-site for analysis b. SEM/EDX particles must be oil free for analysis to take place c. SEM/EDX provides results concerning equiment and components condition d. SEM/EDX samples can only be obtained in an intermediate mainenance shop. |
b. SEM/EDX particles must be oil free for analysis to take place
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What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes through a magnetic field?
a. Static b. Electronics c. Mutual induction d. Electromagnetic induction |
d. Electromagnetic induction
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On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device?
a. Brushes b. commutator c. rotating loop d. Permanent magnet |
a. Brushes
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Which part of ta generator acts as an automatic switching device, changing alternating current to direct current?
a. Brushes b. slip rings c. commutator d. Permanent magnet |
c. commutator
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What provides the PTO shaft that is used to drive the CSD?
a. Engine fittings b. aircraft fittings c. engine adapter d. aircraft adapter |
c. engine adapter
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The slide-type resistor in the EGT circuit is used to
a. adjust the thermocouples b. calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station c. compensate for minor voltage buildups in the circuit d. compensate for differences in temperatures at altitude |
b. calibrate the EGT indicator in the flight station
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Which unit of an AC ignition system develops 20,000 volts?
a. inverter b. capacitor c. generator d. transformer |
d. transformer
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A simple DC ignition system consists of vibrator,
a. igniter plugs, and transformer b. igniter plugs, and AC to DC converter c. AC to DC converter, and transformer d. Ac to DC converter, transformer, and igniter plugs |
a. igniter plugs, and transformer
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On early ignition systems, the high-energy capacitor-type ignition system does NOT include a
a. vibrator b. capacitor c. centrifugal switch d. gas-filled rectifier |
c. centrifugal switch
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On early ignition systems, what is the purpose of compositors in an ignition system?
a. prevent the points from arcing b. cause a voltage to jump across the spark gap in the igniter plug c. step up voltage high enough to break down the air gap of the igniter plug d. Hold back the current flow until the voltage is high enough to be rectified |
c. step up voltage high enough to break down the air gap of the igniter plug
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The T56 engine speed-sensitive control lets electrical current flow to the fuel and ignition system at
a. 16% RPM b. 30% RPM c. 65% RPM d. 94% RPM |
a. 16% RPM
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An F100-PW-100 engine augmentor igniter plug ionizes at a MINIMUM rate of how many sparks per second?
a. 25 b. 30 c. 45 d. 90 |
b. 30
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From where does the AE2100D3 ignition system receive its electrical power?
a. Generator b. Alternator stator c. Aircraft batter d. Essential DC bus |
b. Alternator stator
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What is the output of the AE2100D3 alternator stator?
a. 1 to 20 VAC b. 20 to 40 VAC c. 40 to 60 VAC d. 60 to 80 VAC |
b. 20 to 40 VAC
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What component monitors the AE2100D3 ignition exciters spark rate?
a. FADEC b. GMAD c. PUAD d. NIU |
d. NIU
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The OSG on the cartridge-pneumatic starter consists of the
a. shaft and piston b. igniter and cable c. flyweights and piston d. flyweights and igniter |
c. flyweights and piston
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The JFS is basically a
a. piston-type starter b. pneumatic-type starter c. small gas turbine engine d. cartridge-pneumatic starter |
c. small gas turbine engine
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Which item initially rotates the JFS?
a. ESS PTO b. Engine PTO c. Hydraulic motor d. Electric motor mounted on the aircraft |
c. Hydraulic motor
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What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?
a. Geartrain b. Turbine plenum c. Generator control unit d. Gas generator and accessory drive assembly |
b. Turbine plenum
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Which component provides an electrical safety cutoff for the JFS if the power turbine accelerates to a 110 percent overspeed condition?
a. Overspeed clutch b. Three-speed switch c. Overrunning clutch d. Power turbine overspeed switch |
d. Power turbine overspeed switch
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Oil is supplied to the F-15 JFS through the
a. oil tank b. aircraft filter c. JFS oil system d. CGB oil system |
d. CGB oil system
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On an F-15, the power to start the engines begins with the JFS and continues through the CGB to the
a. PTO b. PMG c. ADG d. AMAD |
d. AMAD
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On the F-15 secondary power system, what is used to stop the JFS starting cycle when the aircraft engine has accelerated to starter cutout speed?
a. Four-speed switch b. Manual decoupler c. Hydraulic decoupler d. 50 percent engine cutout switch assembly |
d. 50 percent engine cutout switch assembly
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When starting the F-16, which component drives the JFS geartrain, fuel control, and lube pump?
a. Pneumatic power b. Electrical power c. Hydraulic start motor d. Accessory drive gearbox |
c. Hydraulic start motor
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How is the AE2100D3 starter control valve actuated?
a. Electrically b. Pneumatically c. Hydraulically d. Hydro-elecrically |
a. Electrically
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On the T56 engine, which switch energizes the starter control valve to the OPEN position?
a. Ground start b. Speed-sensitive c. Fuel enrichment d. Secondary fuel pump pressure |
a. Ground start
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Which T56 engine component functions as an on-off control for the air supply that is sent to the starter?
a. Air turbine b. Ground start switch c. Starter control valve d. Secondary fuel pump pressure switch |
c. Starter control valve
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Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical areas is taken from which engine area?
a. Turbine b. Augmentor c. Compressor d. Combustion |
c. Compressor
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On an F108 engine, anti-ice air is ducted from WHICH manifold?
a. Pneumatic b. Augmentor c. Combustion case d. Compressor case |
a. Pneumatic
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On an F108-Cf-100 engine anti-ice system, what is that purpose of the air injector on the air regulator?
a. Control air velocity at high a RPM b. Control air temperature and pressure c. Provide auxiliary airflow during engine start d. Provide controlled airflow during VBV operation |
b. Control air temperature and pressure
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On an F110-GE-129 engine, the anti-icing system prevents detrimental formation and accumulation of ice on front frame struts, forward centerbody, and
a. ring cowl b. C-D duct c. fan inlet guide vane flaps d. variable exhaust nozzle flaps |
c. fan inlet guide vane flaps
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The T56 engine anti-icing solenoid valve is
a. normally open b. energized open c. normally closed d. deenergized closed |
a. normally open
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What does a high-altitude stall sound like?
a. "choo-choo" b. An explosion c. Popping corn d. Severe tearing of metal |
b. an explosion
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Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go?
a. Through a heat exchanger b. Out the turbine case bleed holes c. Into the gas stream to exit the engine d. Back to the compressor to be used again |
c. Into the gas stream to exit the engine
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On an F108-CF-100 engine, the variable bleed valves bleed air from the
a. N1 compressor b. N2 compressor c. first stage fan d. last stage of compression |
a. N1 compressor
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On an F108-CF-100 engine, the direction of the variable bleed valve rotation is controlled by the
a. flexible shafts b. feedback cable c. fuel gear motor d. ballscrew actuators |
c. fuel gear motor
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On an F110-GE-129 engine, the MEC schedules the variable vane positions by the
a. sea-level temperature and actual engine RPM b. compressor inlet pressure and turbine speed c. fan discharge temperature and core engine speed d. turbine discharge pressure and compressor inlet temperature |
c. fan discharge temperature and core engine speed
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On the AE2100D3 engine, what type of actuator is the CVG actuator?
a. Mechanical b. Electrical c. Hydraulic d. Fuel |
c. Hydraulic
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What AE2100D3 engine component continuously monitors the LVDT signal and controls the compressor IGV position?
a. NIU b. FPMU c. LVIT d. FADEC |
d. FADEC
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The T56 engine component that allows 14th-stage air to close the bleed air valves is the
a. balance line b. bleed air valve c. speed-sensitive valve d. speed-sensitive control |
c. speed-sensitive valve
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What are the two types of thrust reversers?
a. Aerodynamic blockage and convergent-divergent b. Aerodynamic blockage and mechanical blockage c. Divergent-convergent and mechanical blockage d. Convergent-divergent and mechanical blockage |
b. Aerodynamic blockage and mechanical blockage
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One type of aerodynamic blockage thrust reverser uses
a. a closed nozzle b. the reverser door extension c. a clamshell type restriction aft of engine d. vanes inside the duct to create swirling gases |
d. vanes inside the duct to create swirling gases
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In the mechanical blockage-type thrust reverser, when the reverser is NOT in use, what happens to the doors?
a. They retract into the engine mount strut b. they are stored behind each engine in the wing c. they form the inner exhaust cone during forward thrust operation d. they retract around the engine exhaust cone, usually forming the rear section of the engine nacelle |
d. they retract around the engine exhaust cone, usually forming the rear section of the engine nacelle
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On the F117-PW-100 engine, what component controls hydraulic power for actuating both the fan and core thrust reversers?
a. Control valve b. Electronic engine control c. Hydraulic pump d. Fuel control |
a. Control valve
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The F117-PW-100 fan thrust reverser door upper right and left sensors send a signal to which channel or channels of the EEC?
a. A channel b. B channel c. Both A & B channels d. Both A & C channels |
a. A channel
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The core reverser lock proximity sensors are mounted on the
a. aft fan duct b. fwd fan duct c. actuator d. control valve |
c. actuator
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How many linear hydraulic actuators are used to deploy and stow the fan thrust on the F117-PW-100 engine?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 |
c. 4
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What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and combustion?
a. Fuel control b. Fuel spraybars c. Fuel manifolds d. Fuel/oil cooler |
d. Fuel/oil cooler
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What are the two MAIN types of augmentor (afterburner) ignition systems?
a. Torch igniter and hot streak b. Hot streak and fuel injection c. Pilot burner ring and hot streak d. Torch igniter and pilot burner ring |
d. Torch igniter and pilot burner ring
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The F100 engine augmentor's primary nozzle actuator is driven by cable from the
a. T5 amplifier b. unified control c. afterburner fuel control d. CENC |
d. CENC
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On an F110-GE-129 augmentor variable nozzle, uniform movement and geometric stability of the nozzle is provided by
a. mechanical synchonization of the nozzle actuators b. electrical synchonization of the nozzle actuators c. pneumatic synchonization of the nozzle actuators d. hydraulic synchonization of the nozzle actuators |
a. mechanical synchonization of the nozzle actuators
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