2A651 Cdc Volume 1

Front 1

Which functions form a maintenance group?
a. Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying.
b. Maintenance, operations, quality assurance
c. Quality assurance (QA), support, aircraft maintenance
d. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA.

Back 1

d. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA.

Front 2

Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
a. Operations Support Center
b. Logistics Support Squadron
c. Operations Support Squadron
d. Maintenance Operations Center

Back 2

d. Maintenance Operations Center

Front 3

When you are assigned to an equipment maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be attached?
a. Maintenance
b. Accessories
c. Fabrication
d. Munitions

Back 3

a. Maintenance

Front 4

What does the fifth positions of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 3A652 represent?
a. Career field subdivision
b. Specific AFSC
c. Career Field
d. Skill level

Back 4

b. Specific AFSC

Front 5

What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?
a. Craftsman
b. Apprentice
c. Journeyman
d. Superintendent

Back 5

a. Craftsman

Front 6

What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
a. On-the-job training
b. Task qualification training
c. Career development course
d. Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA)

Back 6

c. Career development course

Front 7

How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS)?
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 60

Back 7

c. 48

Front 8

Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publication series
a. 91
b. 66
c. 127
d. 161

Back 8

a. 91

Front 9

Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?
a. Goggles
b. Back brace
c. Leather gloves
d. Safety-toed boots.

Back 9

d. Safety-toed boots

Front 10

Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
a. 00-5-1
b. 00-20-1
c. 21-101
d. 36-2108

Back 10

c. 21-101

Front 11

How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
a. 20 feet to the front and 15 from the rear
b. 15 feet to the front and 10 from the rear
c. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear
d. 5 feet to the front and 1 foot to the rear

Back 11

c. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear

Front 12

When approaching or leaving a helicopter with the blades rotating, all personnel need to remain in full view of the
a. Ground man
b. Crew chief
c. Pilot

Back 12

d. Pilot

Front 13

Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by
a. People
b. Animals
c. Weather
d. Mechanical failure

Back 13

a. People

Front 14

During flight-line and test cell operations, you may be exposed to
a. acetone
b. toluene
c. carbon dioxide
d. carbon monoxide

Back 14

d. carbon monoxide

Front 15

Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
a. aerosols
b. liquids
c. solids
d. gases

Back 15

d. gases

Front 16

Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
a. safety
b. hospital
c. supervisor
d. environmental

Back 16

c. supervisor

Front 17

What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?
a. alcohol
b. pine oil
c. mild soap
d. fleur-de-lis

Back 17

c. mild soap

Front 18

Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent:
a. explosions
b. unauthorized entry
c. overflow of materials
d. mixing of unlike materials

Back 18

b. unauthorized entry

Front 19

Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and:
a. flash point
b. classification
c. shipping name
d. date the waste began to accumulate

Back 19

d. date the waste began to accumulate

Front 20

A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
a. dilution
b. incineration
c. land disposal
d. biodegradation

Back 20

a. dilution

Front 21

From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?
a. base system
b. weapons system
c. inventory system
d. geographical system

Back 21

b. weapons system

Front 22

What system has the purpose of establishing a firm control over repair cycle assets to make sure they are repaired at base level or sent to a repair facility as fast as possible?
a. depot-level repair system
b. repair cycle support system
c. standard base supply system
d. precious metals recovery system

Back 22

b. repair cycle support system

Front 23

Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?
a. Priority Monitor Report (D18)
b. Daily Document Register (D04)
c. Due-out Validation Listing (M30)
d. Repair cycle asset management listing (D23)

Back 23

b. daily document register (D04)

Front 24

Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization's:
a. type of aircraft
b. contract
c. mission
d. location

Back 24

c. mission

Front 25

Which publication provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 tag?
a. AFMAN 23-110
b. TO 00-20-2
c. AFI 91-301
d. TO 00-5-1

Back 25

b. TO 00-20-2

Front 26

If you are temporary duty (TDY) and both the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and Standard Base Supply System (SBSS) are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
a. AF IMT 2005
b. DD Form 1574
c. AFTO Form 349
d. AFTO Form 350

Back 26

a. AF IMT 2005

Front 27

If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)
a. 23-254
b. 23-110
c. 91- 110

Back 27

b. 23-110

Front 28

Serviceable items, when received from supply and ready to use, each have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form
a. 1574
b. 1575
c. 1577-2
d. 1577-3

Back 28

a. 1574

Front 29

Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required o have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form:
a. 1574
b. 1575
c. 1577-2
d. 1577-3

Back 29

b. 1575

Front 30

Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
a. supply
b. shelf- life
c. inspection
d. bench stock

Back 30

b. shelf-life

Front 31

When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item:
a. has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended
b. should be returned to supply after expiration date
c. has a definite non extendible period of shelf-life
d. should be inspected or tested

Back 31

c. has a definite non extendible period of shelf-life

Front 32

In the case of a failure trend that may contribute to accidents, deficiency reports (DR) are forwarded to:
a. job control
b. wing commander
c. higher headquarters
d. logistics commander

Back 32

c. higher headquarters

Front 33

Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/ Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?
a. shelf-life
b. bench stock
c. hazardous materials
d. equipment authorization inventory data

Back 33

d. Equipment authorization inventory data

Front 34

To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the:
a. shop chief
b. supervisor
c. commander
d. supply chief

Back 34

c. commander

Front 35

When should new equipment account custodians receive training?
a. before signing for the account
b. within 10 days of signing for the account
c. within 15 days of signing for the account
d. within 30 days of signing for the account

Back 35

a. before signing for the account

Front 36

The first section of a technical order (TO) number identifies the:
a. sectionalization of the TO
b. type of instructions found in the TO
c. category and the aircraft mission type in the TO
d. model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

Back 36

c. category and the aircraft mission type in the TO

Front 37

In which type of technical order (TO) would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
a. index
b. preliminary
c. methods and procedure
d. operational and maintenance

Back 37

a. index

Front 38

Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?
a. 00-5-1
b. 00-5-2
c. 00-20-1
d. 00-20-2

Back 38

a. 00-5-1

Front 39

Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
a. general equipment
b. general system
c. fault isolation
d. job guide

Back 39

d. job guide

Front 40

What section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPD) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB
a. introduction
b. numerical index
c. group assembly parts list
d. reference designation index

Back 40

a. Introduction

Front 41

What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
a. record
b. urgent action
c. routine action
d. immediate action

Back 41

d. immediate action

Front 42

What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category has alternately spaced red diagonals and Xs and red diagonals bordering the first page?
a. safety
b. urgent action
c. routine action
d. immediate action

Back 42

b. urgent action

Front 43

Which technical order (TO) covers all information concerning the Air Force TO system?
a. 00-5-1
b. 00-5-2
c. 00-20-1
d. 00-20-2

Back 43

a. 00-5-1

Front 44

Who originates technical orders?
a. Section supervisor.
b. Contracting squadron.
c. Equipment manufacturer.
d. Maintenance group commander.

Back 44

c. Equipment manufacturer

Front 45

Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT)
Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?
a. Initiator.
b. Commander.
c. Supervisor of initiator.
d. Product improvement office.
Please

Back 45

c. supervisor of initiator

Front 46

What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM)
approach?
a. Evident and hidden.
b. Potential and evident.
c. Hidden and functional.
d. Potential and functional.

Back 46

d. Potential and functional

Front 47

In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance
task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
a. Hard time.
b. Lubrication.
c. On condition.
d. Failure finding.

Back 47

c. on condition

Front 48

Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to
quantify and monitor/manage engine health?
a. Centralized repair facility (CRF).
b. Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).
c. Engine life-cycle management planning (ELMP).
d. Comprehensive engine management system (CEMS).

Back 48

b. engine trending and diagnostics

Front 49

The primary goal of the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program is to prevent or
limit damage to turbine engines by
a. reviewing past engine accident investigation reports.
b. tracking serially controlled components and modules.
c. early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.
d. documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions.

Back 49

c. early detection of performance degradation and/or failures.

Front 50

Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics
(ET&D) program?
a. Propulsion and depot.
b. Depot and nondestructive inspection.
c. Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.
d. Environmental health and nondestructive inspection.

Back 50

c. Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.

Front 51

Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?
a. War fighters.
b. Test cell personnel.
c. Flight-line mechanics.
d. Back shop mechanics.

Back 51

a. War fighters.

Front 52

What drives the creation of a centralized rotable pool (CRP)?
a. Number of available spare engines.
b. Equipment cost and repair time.
c. Number of assigned maintenance personnel.
d. Customer wait time and transportation constraints.

Back 52

d. Customer wait time and transportation constraints.

Front 53

When a centralized repair facility (CRF) ships a replacement asset to a deployed unit, who
is responsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?
a. Deployed unit.
b. CRF personnel.
c. Supply squadron.
d. Transportation squadron.

Back 53

b. CRF personnel

Front 54

Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by
a. notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming time compliance technical orders (TCTO).
b. providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.
c. ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.
d. providing the most current TO updates to the field.

Back 54

b. providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.

Front 55

Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and
a. contract field teams (CFT).
b. base jet engine run crews.
c. oil analysis teams.
d. slide engineers.

Back 55

a. contract field teams (CFT).

Front 56

A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
a. schedule engine replacement times.
b. track parts replacement on jet engines.
c. report all engine-related discrepancies.
d. maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.

Back 56

d. maintain accurate and timely engine inventories.

Front 57

The key to making the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) work is
a. availability of engines and their parts.
b. availability of storage and analysis computers.
c. accurate and timely data at the lowest level.
d. accurate and timely data at the highest level.

Back 57

c. accurate and timely data at the lowest level.

Front 58

You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on the following Air
Force technical order (AFTO) Forms
a. 25.
b. 44.
c. 95.
d. 349.

Back 58

c. 95

Front 59

What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer programs?
a. Prevent unscheduled removal of engines.
b. Accelerate the flying rate of all the unit’s installed engines.
c. Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.
d. Identify engines requiring time compliance technical order (TCTO) maintenance.

Back 59

c. Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field.

Front 60

Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
a. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.
b. Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements.
c. Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems.
d. Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections.

Back 60

a. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets.

Front 61

How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and
accessories?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
Please

Back 61

b. 2

Front 62

You should wear eye protection when you work
a. with tools that may cause flying particles.
b. where there is a fire hazard.
c. around any type of fluid.
d. on any type of job.

Back 62

a. with tools that may cause flying particles.

Front 63

What would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm’s
reach?
a. Foreign object damage (FOD) bag.
b. Ziploc bag.
c. Parts bag.
d. Tool bag.

Back 63

d. Tool bag

Front 64

Which technical order (TO) covers calibration procedures for torque wrenches?
a. 1–1A–8.
b. 1–1A–14.
c. 32–1–101.
d. 33K6 series.

Back 64

d. 33K6 series

Front 65

If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
a. use maximum torque.
b. torque from left to right.
c. use a staggered sequence.
d. overtorque, loosen, and retorque.

Back 65

c. use a staggered sequence.

Front 66

If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gauge
would you use?
a. Steel-rule.
b. Micrometer.
c. Dial-indicator.
d. Thickness gauge.

Back 66

d. thickness gauge

Front 67

The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
a. 1 inch.
b. 2 inches.
c. 3 inches.
d. 4 inches.

Back 67

a. 1 inch

Front 68

The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
a. hundredths of an inch.
b. thousandths of an inch.
c. ten-thousandths of an inch.
d. hundred-thousandths of an inch.

Back 68

c. ten thousandths of an inch

Front 69

What feature is common to all dial indicators?
a. Construction of indicator.
b. Construction of indicating hand.
c. Ability to amplify movement greatly.
d. Ability to amplify movement slightly.

Back 69

c. Ability to amplify movement greatly.

Front 70

What should you use for cleaning measuring tools?
a. Water displacement no. 40 (WD–40®).
b. Dry cleaning solvent.
c. Turbo-super-carb.
d. Trychlorethlene.

Back 70

b. dry cleaning solvent

Front 71

If the input into the Fluke 8025A meter is over the range being used, what will the digital
display show?
a. OL.
b. OR.
c. COM.
d. OFF.

Back 71

a. OL

Front 72

How many range settings can be used when measuring voltage with the Fluke 8025A?
a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

Back 72

c. 4

Front 73

What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the
Fluke 8025A multimeter?
a. 28.
b. 30.
c. 32.
d. 34.

Back 73

c. 32

Front 74

Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by
a. the fiber optics.
b. an optical illusion bundle.
c. a grounded extension cord.
d. a directly magnified light source.

Back 74

a. the fiber optics

Front 75

What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?
a. Direct only.
b. Axisymetrical.
c. Direct and lateral.
d. 60 degrees up and 180 degrees down.

Back 75

c. direct and lateral

Front 76

When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area
you’re inspecting?
a. Control unit.
b. Light guide tube.
c. Distal tip light guides.
d. Bending section lever.

Back 76

c. distal tip light guides

Front 77

Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?
a. Setting the light source selector switch on high.
b. Operation of the bending section with the brake on.
c. Inserting tools in the working channel with the brake on.
d. Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle.

Back 77

d. Application of lateral (pinching) pressure to the fiber bundle.

Front 78

What type of bolt should be used where shearing stress occurs?
a. Clevis.
b. Eyebolt.
c. Hexhead.
d. Internal wrenching.

Back 78

a. clevis

Front 79

Do not use self-locking nuts on
a. areas near engine inspection points.
b. engine accessories.
c. control pulleys.
d. engine joints.

Back 79

d. engine joints

Front 80

Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250􀁱F?
a. Plain nuts.
b. Wing nuts.
c. Metallic self-locking nuts.
d. Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

Back 80

d. Nonmetallic self-locking nuts.

Front 81

What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance
is essential?
a. Tapered.
b. Flathead.
c. Cotter.
d. Shear.

Back 81

a. tapered

Front 82

Cotter pins are used for safetying various units such as
a. checknuts.
b. castellated nuts.
c. self-locking nuts.
d. internal wrenching bolts.

Back 82

b. castellated nuts.

Front 83

When lock wiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
a. 6 to 8.
b. 8 to 10.
c. 10 to 12.
d. 12 to 14.

Back 83

b. 8 to 10

Front 84

You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
a. their international orange color.
b. the different colors of the tubing or hoses.
c. the specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses.
d. the color-code bands placed around the tubing or hoses.

Back 84

d. the color-code bands placed around the tubing or hoses.

Front 85

What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8.

Back 85

c. 6

Front 86

When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
a. look for leaks.
b. change the oil filter.
c. inspect for missing parts.
d. check the compressor inlet.

Back 86

d. check the compressor inlet.

Front 87

When disassembling the oil filter, why should you always use a clean container?
a. Because the oil can be reused.
b. To prevent false contaminant indications.
c. So a reliable Oil Analysis Program sample can be obtained.
d. The oil is recycled and must be kept clean.

Back 87

b. To prevent false contaminant indications.

Front 88

What is used to seal male flared-type fuel drain fitting on an engine being prepared for air shipment?
a. Caps.
b. Plugs.
c. Plastic wrap.
d. Barrier paper.

Back 88

a. caps

Front 89

To release the internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
a. parting surface nuts.
b. parting surface bolts.
c. filler valve on the side end of the container.
d. filler valve on the front end of the container.

Back 89

d. filler valve on the front end of the container.

Front 90

What color is a serviceable humidity indicator on a shipping container?
a. Red.
b. Blue.
c. Pink.
d. Lavender.

Back 90

b. blue

Front 91

What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?
a. Engine oil.
b. Dry nitrogen.
c. A leak detector.
d. A soap-water solution.

Back 91

d. A soap-water solution.

Front 92

To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable,
look on the
a. side of the container.
b. data plate on both halves of the container.
c. top half on the right panel of the container.
d. bottom half on the left panel of the container.

Back 92

c. top half on the right panel of the container.

Front 93

Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
a. Ensure humidity indicator is blue.
b. Release all pressure before removing lid.
c. Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.
d. Loosen bolts in a staggered pattern to prevent warping.

Back 93

b. Release all pressure before removing lid.

Front 94

How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 8.

Back 94

b. 4

Front 95

Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
a. Motor the engine to circulate the oil.
b. Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full.
c. Visually inspect compressor for corrosion.
d. Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

Back 95

d. Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

Front 96

To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the
system with
a. oil.
b. fuel.
c. PD–680.
d. calibration fluid.

Back 96

b. fuel.

Front 97

When can you consider a depreserved engine ready for service?
a. After motoring the engine and changing the filters.
b. As soon as all depreservation fluid has been purged.
c. Only after a ground check run of the engine has been performed.
d. After visually inspecting the compressor and turbine for signs of corrosion.

Back 97

c. Only after a ground check run of the engine has been performed.

Front 98

When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start
a. deep within the metal.
b. on the surface of the metal.
c. throughout the metal all at once.
d. just under the surface of the metal.

Back 98

b. on the surface of the metal.

Front 99

On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to
a. prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.
b. prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use.
c. lock the base structure while the platform is in use.
d. prevent the wheels from swiveling while it is in use.

Back 99

a. prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use.

Front 100

Which part of the Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support
Equipment Record, may the AFTO Form 245, Industrial/Support Equipment Record
(Continuation Sheet), be used for?
a. I.
b. III.
c. V.
d. VI.

Back 100

c. V.