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158 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Where is a list of formal AF-wide training courses for a specific career field normally found?
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Part 2 of CFEPT for each AFSC |
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What type of acft maintenance training is centrally produced, but delivered to students to be accomplished at their convenience?
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Distance Learning |
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What type of training includes advanced and qualification training that develops in-depth expertise within a specialty, broadens knowledge of new specialties, introduces new technologies and systems, develops analytical skills, and increases understanding of the relationship between maintenance specialties?
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continuation training |
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Other than the three airframe and powerplant courses, what is an example of an acft maintenance related specialized course?
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Acft COMMNAV systems |
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For maintenance personnel, when must training documentation be maintained for MSgts and above?
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When they perform maintenance on acft, missiles, or associated equipment
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What type of maintenance tasks are usually included on Special Certification Roster?
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Those that have potential for personnel injury or damage to equipment |
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What form is normally used to add someone to SCR?
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AF IMT 2426 |
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What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task that he/she was added to the SCR to perform? |
Decertify and have them removed from SCR for that task |
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TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time visibility of what?
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Technical qualifications, certifications, and training status of weapons systems, and support professionals AF wide |
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TBA allows all officers, enlisted, and civilian personnel to access their training records and the records of personnel they supervise anywhere that has what? |
Network access
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What provides notifications on TBA application problems, software release, projected downtimes and training update info?
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system messages board
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What determines the actions TBA allows you to perform? |
Roles you have been assigned by a Role Manager
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What is a copy of the TBA production application intended for user practice and orientation on the TBA application, and is not for operational unit training management activities? |
TBA User Practice Environment (UPE)
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The Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program?
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Phase 1
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What agency is required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTF, and advanced distributed learning courses that maintenance personnel must attend in order to work on an MDS?
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Lead Command |
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What course must MSgts or above attend, when they will be supervising personnel on an MDS they have less than 1 year experience?
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Acft Familiarization course |
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What training consists of academic and practical hands-on training course that complement initial skills training received through AETC courses? |
Maintenance Qualification training |
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What phase of training includes specialty training such as engine run, hot pit refuel, and borescope training?
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Phase III |
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What does it mean when someone is showing in IMDS as AWACT without a due date for a particular training requirement?
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initial training has not been performed or loaded |
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When an inventory of course materials is accomplished, what should also be completed in the CDC volumes before a trainee is allowed to being work on the CDC course?
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Pen-and-ink changes |
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If TBA is not used or available, what AFT IMT should be used to show milestones such as date volume issued, completed, etc? |
623 A |
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When you are building a master training plan (MTP) for your flight/section, what should you do first? |
create a master task list (MTL) |
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What cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a workcenter requirement?
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51% or more personnel in the squadron perform the action |
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With some exception, what do core tasks identify?
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the minimum task certifications that must be achieved by the technician for 5 or 7 level |
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What type of training tasks, core and non-core, require third party cert? |
critical tasks |
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what does the Unit Manpower Document (UMD) provide a listing of?
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funded and unfunded unit man power requirements |
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what does the Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) provide a listing of?
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detail list of authorized positions and people filling them |
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What is Manning Assist used for?
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to alleviate short-term manning problems caused by temp high work loads
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Who is the approval authority to schedule maintenance personnel to work a shift longer than 12 hours?
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MXG/CC |
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What is the definiton of duty-time for maintenance personnel? |
from when they report for duty until supervisor releases them |
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Which maintenance personnel cannot perform their duty related maintenance actions beyond 12 hours?
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Nukes |
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Why is shift rotation a key component of personnel utilization?
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allows for fully qualified well-rounded maintainers |
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Who should flight/section chiefs coordinate work-shift schedule changes with to ensure sufficient people will be available to support the mission? |
Pro Sup or MX Operations Officer/SUPT
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With the exception of MSL personnel, supply support personnel are normally listed on what UMD (Unit Manpower Document)?
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MXG UMD |
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In addition to coordinating maintenance and supply actions and managing supply transactions, what are workcenter supply personnel tasked with doing?
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resolving supply support problems |
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Why do MSL personnel periodically visit and inspect all maintenance workcenters?
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to recommend corrective actions on procedural or compliance problems |
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What is the purpose of a Readiness Spares Package?
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provides prepackaged supplies to support contingency or planned wartime operations |
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in a general sense, what are the two primary types of readiness spares package?
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in-place readiness spares package |
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What is the definition of peacetime operating stock (POS) as it pertains to readiness spares packages?
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normal day to day assets routinely available in the supply |
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Temporary high priority mission support kits (THPMSK) are primarily set to provide support for what type of operations?
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less than 90 day period |
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What is the primary reason for conducting an annual review of all permanent readiness spares packages?
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TCTO compliance |
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what is the purpose of a bench stock?
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If shop stock is stored near or adjacent to bench stock items, should they be mixed together?
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no |
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In addition to clearly identifying items as "work order residue", how should you also label them?
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NSN/part # Unit of issue Shelf life |
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What is a shelf-life item?
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an item with unstable or deteriorative natures |
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What AF IMT must be used when requesting local manufacture of equipment related items? |
01 |
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Who must approve all locally manufactured, developed, or modified tools and equipment, not specifically authorized in tech data? |
MXG/CC or designated rep
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what block of supply training covers general supply indoctrination subjects?
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Block 1
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What block of supply training must an individual complete to perform duties as a primary or alternate equipment custodian?
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Block 3
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what form must be used when items on an equipment account are loaned outside the custodian's span of control?
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1297 |
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what two forms could be used to process a voluntary payment in lieu of a report of survey?
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DD form 1131 and 362 |
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Special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets are coded with what Expendability, Recoverability, and Reparability (ERRC) codes?
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XD XF |
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Why was the Previous Metal Recovery Program (PMRP) established?
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to promote economic recovery of precious metals from surplus or excess materials |
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What agency is the collection point for expendable (XB3) items coded under the PMRP? |
Local Defense Reutilization Marketing Office (DRMO) |
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What is the primary purpose of Precious Metal Indicator Codes (PMIC)?
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Identify materials obtained through supply that contain precious metals |
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Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters?
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XF |
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What is the first character of the urgency justification code (UJC)?
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Urgency of Need designator |
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Which supply management document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it's coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all you priority back-ordered parts?
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Priority Monitor Report (D18) |
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Which supply management document helps to ensure an orderly and continuous flow of repairable items and to ensure the DIFM delinquency rate is held to a minimum? |
D23
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Which supply management document provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement?
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Due-Out Validation List (M30) |
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What are some of the various types of security containers the government uses to store classified assets? |
File cabinets, vaults, and safes to store and secure AF classified assets |
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What form is used to show who has responsibility for handling classified material while it is in a sealed container for transit?
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Who is responsible for ensuring a secure area is provided for transient acft on an installation?
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Installation Commander
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What type of Security Forces support is normally provided for a fighter acft with a security priority "C" designation?
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Security Response Team and a motorized patrol
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What should an installation or activity commander do if top secret equipment is installed on acft without priority "A" designation
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Park in restricted area for priority "A" assets,
keep the acft under continuous surveillance, use an intrusion detection system which assures positive entry control |
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For supply assets requiring functional checking, units are required to identity which assets require this special handling. In addition to the repair section's organization and section code, what minimum details should be listed?
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repair shop delivery destination code, frequency of functional check |
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Once a unit's listing of supply assets requiring functional checking, calibration, and flight programming has been approved, how often must the list be updated and validated?
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every 6 months |
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If an asset is removed from service for bench checking and it is found that it can't be repaired locally, how should the item be processed? |
NRTS, Not Repairable This Station |
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What do expedite supply requests represent?
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urgent need for an asset from Supply in order to prevent a work stoppage or other mission degradation situation |
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Expedite customer issues request have a UND code of "A" or "B". What supply priority response is normally assigned to these requests? |
01-04 |
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Within how many minutes should Supply deliver a part that has issued with a delivery priority of "1"? |
30 min |
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What is the highest priority of expedite request that is used to order parts required for the repair of mission essential equipment?
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MICAP |
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Who should you contact if you need to request modification of a backorder, including changing the UJC or required delivery date (RDD)? |
Local supply support section or
customer service at LRS |
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When a supply point is being established, who is responsible for providing the necessary space and facilities to store the assets?
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the requesting organization |
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When a supply point reconciliation is complete, who does the supply point monitor provide the results to?
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LRS supply point manager |
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What document should be submitted to initially stock and replenish supply point assets? |
AF IMT 2005, Issue Turn-In request
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Why are TNB storage locations established?
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to store parts waiting installation and parts removed to facilitate other maintenance |
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How are TNBs arranged?
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Tail number, serial number, or identification number |
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What should be done with parts that are removed from TNB, but not immediately installed? |
Be returned on the same duty day the item was removed |
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what are two options you have available when you receive a defective part from supply?
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Deficiency report (DR), or Supply discrepancy report (SDR) |
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In supply terminology, what does Credit mean when dealing with deficient assets order from supply? |
An exchange or obligated cost credit provided to the customer upon reporting of deficient assets
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what is a support point as it related to the DR process? |
Any activity that assists the action point |
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Essentially, what is the Originator in the Discrepancy Report process responsible for?
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discovering the deficiency, identifying its impact, and initiating a report. |
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What does the Originating Point use to submit and track DRs?
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Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS) |
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Which level in the DR processing chain is the designated focal point for receipt and processing of DRs?
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action point |
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When should an Supply Discrepancy Report be submitted instead of a DR?
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When the sole purpose is to obtain a replacement item or credit |
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If it has been more than 146 days since you submitted an SDR and you still have no indication of it being resolved, whom should you contact?
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your MAJCOM |
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What is the goal of the current AF TO modernization effort?
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to provide user friendly, technically accurate, up to date digital tech data |
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What are the three levels of TO distribution activities that provided basic TO system support to base-level AF organization?
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Squadron: TODO Section: TODA |
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What section are MXG TODOs normally assigned to?
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QA
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What form should be used to establish a TODO account? |
AFTO IMT 43 |
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For what purpose are checklists developed?
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to provide abbreviated step-by-step procedures for operation and maintenance of systems and equipment
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What MXG agency is responsible for performing an initial evaluation of a TCTO to determine its applicability?
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QA |
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Who is responsible for attending TCTO planning meetings and should thoroughly review the TCTO before the meeting so clarification requests can be made? |
Flight or sections performing the TCTO
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What form should be issued to submit a TO change?
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AFTO IMT 22
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What is a preliminary TO?
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an unpublished TO that is used to support review of a new TO during the development process |
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What are the two main types of TO changes?
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Improvement |
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When should a follow-up be made after submitting an AFTO IMT 22 for an Emergency TO change request? |
48 hours after submission
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What AF IMT should be submitted to have TO correction or improvement be considered under the IDEA program? |
AF IMT 1000 |
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Why should on-scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with TO guidance during an emergency situation? |
safety of personnel or equipment could be jeopardized |
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Who may temporarily waive specific TO compliance until operational capability permits or safety or personnel is assured for forces engaged in actual combat operations or supporting EWO alert tasking, and for systems or components engaged in contingency operations?
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Area of Responsibility (AOR) commanders
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How long does a TO waiver remain in affect?
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Until the OPR cancels it in writing, it is formally rewritten, or it expires (which must be specified in the original document that grants the waiver) |
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A CANN action becomes necessary when a condition exists that prevents successful mission accomplishment. However, what should be verified before executing the CANN action?
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that the asset cannot be obtained through supply in an acceptable amount of time
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when may Cannibalization Authorities authorize CANN actions before documentation is initiated?
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high priority circumstances, when the part cannot be delivered in proper time (red ball) |
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What should be checked prior to accomplishing a CANN made for a time change item?
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the part must have enough time left to justify the CANN action |
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Which CANN program requires increased coordination and cooperation between flightline, aft inspection section, and supporting organizations?
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Concurrent CANN/inspection |
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Which CANN program has the advantages of having fewer CANN aircraft per year, an increase in MC rate, and an increase in acft availability?
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Consolidated CANN program |
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What type of wheels must be installed on all rolling equipment used in an open fuel tank repair?
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anti-static, nonmetal wheels |
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In addition to having enough signs stating "Caution High Radiation Area" that can be seen from all accessible areas, what else is required to identity an area where a radiographic inspection is taking place? |
a red rotating/flashing strobe type light and rope barrier |
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To ensure the job is performed safely, what is one of the first things that should be done before an acft is jacked? |
read applicable cautions/notes/warning |
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Red ball maintenance normally occurs as an acft is attempting to leave for a mission, but can also occur during what time-frame?
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2 hours prior to launch through to the time the aircrew releases an acft to maintenance following a mission |
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During a red ball maintenance operation, what must be re-accomplished if the acft status changes?
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Exceptional release or conditional release
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To alleviate safety hazards, what should be used during red ball maintenance while acft engines are running?
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a safety observer |
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How can impoundment be defined?
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the isolation or control of access to an acft or equipment item and applicable historical records, so an intensified investigation can be completed |
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What rank must an individual have before serving as an Impoundment Official?
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MSgt and above (and civilian equivalent) |
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What agency acts as the OPR for MXG impoundment procedures?
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QA |
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Who is responsible for selecting a team of highly qualified technicians dedicated to determining the cause of a problem that resulted in an impoundment?
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Impoundment Official |
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What is a main objective of the tool and equipment management program?
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minimize/eliminate FOD hazards |
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Which TO provides guidance for the periodic inspection of hand tools?
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32-1-101 |
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What does an MIL provide a listing of?
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all contents in a particular CTK |
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What is the AF standard system for issuing tools and equipment used to perform maintenance?
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TAS, Tool Accountability System |
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Who is required to coordinate on all locally manufactured weapons related tools and equipment?
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wing weapons manager |
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The EID used to mark tools has nine digits. What are the first four characters collectively called?
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World Wide ID Code (WWID)
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What is the definition of dispatchable equipment?
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Items that can be cheeked out from a support section, tool room, or work center to perform on/off equipment maintenance within or outside the work center |
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What should be done if a lost tool or item is deemed an inaccessible item that poses no FOD threat and is left in place?
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all information pertaining to the tool is maintained in the Acft historical records until the item is recovered |
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Who is required to comly with FOD program prevention directives?
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All people working in, on, around, or traveling through taxiways, runways, flight lines, and maintenance areas |
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Who is assigned as the wing FOD prevention program manager? |
Wing Vice Commander
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Who is responsible for chairing the FOD prevention committee meeting in the absence of the Wing Vice Commander?
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Maintenance Group Commander
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How often are FOD prevention committee meetings held, if a unit's FOD rate is not meeting the Lead Command-established standard?
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Monthly |
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As it pertains to the DOP program, what is the definition of a dropped object?
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any acft parts, component, surface, or other item lost from an acft during aircrew operations, unless intentionally jettisoned
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What units are required to develop an effective Dropped Object Prevention Program?
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all wings, groups, squadrons, and all other units which operate acft
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Who is required to investigate dropped objects involving transient acft?
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Local Wing DOP program monitor |
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What is the definition of a maintenance recovery as it pertains to MRTs (maintenance recovery team)?
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repair and successful launch of an acft unexpectedly grounded at a location other than home station |
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What is considered normal duty time for an MRT during a maintenance recovery operation?
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12 hours
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What AFI provides valuable guidance on executing a successful maintenance recovery operation?
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21-101
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What does maintenance standardization and evaluation program (MSEP) provide an objective sampling of?
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quality of equipment, proficiency of personnel, compliance of Lead Command and Unit MSEP focus areas, programs, and processes |
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Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization, assisting maintenance supervision at all levels to resolve quality problems?
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QA |
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Who is responsible for developing and monitoring the MSEP program using a Lead Command-approved QA database that provides supervisors access to MSEP data?
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QA OIC/SUPT |
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How much time, as a minimum, must personnel have in their unit before being selected as a QA inspector? |
6 months
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An MSET team is required to have only one permanent member. Where does the remainder of the team come from?
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Personnel from other MAJCOM agencies and field units |
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If a MSET issues an overall rating, what are the ratings that a unit may receive?
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Excellent 90-94.99% Satisfactory: 80-89.99% Marginal: 70-79.99 Unsatisfactory |
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How are individual evaluations normally rated by an MSET? |
pass/fail |
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How much is a unit MSET rating decreased for each TDV, DSV, or UCR received? |
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When units develop their MSEP and conduct local inspections, what is used to ensure their programs, maintenance technician proficiency, equipment condition, and other focus areas are in compliance?
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AFI, MAJCOM, and Local directive |
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QA rates personnel evaluations based on what type of standard? |
Acceptable Quality Levels (AQL) |
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A UCR indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is chargeable to whom?
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Work center Supervisor |
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What does acft configuration management provide unit managers the capability to do?
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see the actual vs approved configuration |
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what section within the MXG has overall responsibility for managing the ACM database for the wing?
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PS&D
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What is a formal modification proposal? |
recommendation to change the operation, use or appearance of AF acft or equipment
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Whether temporary, permanent, or safety, what is the lowest approval level needed to make a modification to an acft or piece of equipment?
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MAJCOM |
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How often must temporary modifications be reapproved with HQ USAF/A4M?
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Annually |
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In addition to the system program manager maintaining system engineering integrity, what agency is responsible for fleet-wide interoperability and commonality of that system?
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Lead Command |
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What is the goal of the PIP (product improvement program) program?
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ID and correct deficiencies before they affect combat capability
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How does the Product Improvement Program emphasize and promote product improvements to ensure maintenance personnel are familiar with the PIP? |
circulating flyers, visiting commanders call and orientation briefings, visits to maintenance areas
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Who does the PIM coordinate with to ensure proper exhibit control and handling?
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Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) |
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What is the major role that PIMs perform when processing AFTO IMT 22s?
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ensuring proper evaluation is performed, and forms are filled out per 00-5-1 |
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If SMR code changes are approved, who does the PIM coordinate repair evaluation meetings with?
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affected agencies |
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When it comes to R&M deficiencies, what causes does the PIM determine?
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unit factors or local conditions |
