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2A355 CDC

2A355 Cdc

by StampSmash, Apr. 2016

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475 Cards in this Set

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	What are the five types of technical orders?	Operation and maintenance (O&M) TOs Time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) Methods and procedures technical orders Index type technical orders Abbreviated Technical orders
	What is the main purpose(s) of a TCTO?	Providing the authorized method of directing and providing instructions for modifying AF systems, and performing or initially establishing one-time inspections
	When would the AF issue an immediate action TCTO?	To correct an unsafe condition: if it could result in serious or fatal injury to personnel, or cause extensive damage or destruction of valuable property
	Describe the conditions that would warrant issue of an urgent action TCTO	Potentially hazardous conditions or conditions that affect the mission: conditions that could result in injury to personnel, cause damage to valuable property, or result in an unacceptable reduction in operational and/or combat efficiency
	How are routine action TCTOs issued?	To correct equipment or procedural deficiencies that could result in a hazardous situation through prolonged use. Category I: organizational and field maintenance level, must be completed within a specific number of days, or concurrent with an event. Category II: depot level, must be completed during next inspection and repair as necessary (IRAN) or overhaul, not to exceed 48 months.
	Who performs a category I routine action TCTO?	Organizational and field maintenance
	What are some methods of interim TCTO distribution?	Radiogram, Telegram, Teletype, message form, or any other type of fast communicationInterim TOs are typically distributed when a formal TCTO would take too long. Typically interim TCTOs are replaced by formal TCTOs within 10 days
	What type of TOs begins with “00” and is also referred to as general technical orders?	Methods and procedures TOs-General TOs
	What type TO is considered the starting point for finding information about any other TO?	Index-type TOs
	What type of information is provided in the GV manual?	Provides an overview of the organizational maintenance manual set. Explains the interrelation of the technical order numbering system between manuals. Provides an overall vehicle description with a summary of all systems and subsystems. Presents general information on ground handling and servicing of the vehicle.- not suitable for job guide format
	What support-type information is found in the GS manual?	Detailed system, subsystem, and sub-subsystem descriptions. Also theory of operation and maintenance support information not suited for the job guide format
	What two ways are ops checks, on vehicle tests, calibrations, and adjustment/repair andremoval/installation procedures listed in the JG index manual?	Section 2: alphabetically. Section 3: numerically
	What manual provides a list of the JG functions and general maintenance functions performed atthe flight line level?	Job Guide Index Manual
	What normally accompanies the eight-character fault code that’s annotated in the aircraft forms?	Pilot reported discrepancy
	What do the first two groups of numbers identify that are contained in a fault code?	1: System. 2: Subsystems/Sub-subsystem. 3: describes the fault. 4: Location (subfaults within the basic fault, 00 if no subfault listed)
	How can you identify the most probable corrective action found in a FI manual?	Identified by a bold line along the bottom of the action block
	What manual contains schematic diagrams?	Fault Isolation manual
	What does volume 1 of the WD ( wiring data) manuals provide to the user?	Information pertaining to the general arrangement, use, and content or wiring data in all the manuals in the WD manual set
	Which volume(s) of the WD manual set provides wiring diagrams?	4 and 5
	When would you use the IPB manuals?	In ordering, storing, and identifying parts required to maintain the aircraft
	What is the purpose of the reference designator?	Provides an easy method of identifying each component on the aircraft
	Adjustment instructions	Job Guide
	Overall vehicle description	General vehicle
	Fault analysis	-fault reporting
	Bold line along bottom of the action block	-fault isolation (most likely issue)
	Theory of operation	-general system
	Listing of consumables for systems	general system
	Alignment instruction	job guide
	Summary of all systems and subsystems	general vehicle
	Lists pertinent maintenance procedures contained in the GV and GS manuals	job guide index manuals
	Schematic diagrams	fault isolation
	Start-to-finish maintenance instructions	job guide
	How would you know a TO number is in the fighter aircraft TO category	The second character of the first group of TO designators will be F
	What is the function of the second part of TO number 1F-22A-06?	Aircraft model number (F-22) and aircraft production series (series A)
	What is the purpose of the “2” in the third part of TO number 1F-22A-2-00GV-00-1?	The kind of TO. 2: maintenance instructions
	What kind of TO is 1F-22A-575?	TCTO (501 and higher)
	What does the number “27” represent in the TO number 1F-22A-2-27GS-00-1?	TOs particular system and purpose. 27: flight control system. GS: general system
	What does the fifth set of numbers of TO number identify?	A system within a system, or subsystem
	What do IETMs replace and what will it allow the maintainer to do?	They replace Paper TOs, allow maintainers to navigate via links to other TOs referred to
	Why is it important to protect TOs?	They are very expensive
	Describe the deficiencies that a TO correction would fix.	A minor error or omission that either do not cause misinterpretation or that would clarify or expand existing instructions, but are not essential
	What type of recommended TO change corrects typos that alter the meaning of instructionalmaterial or procedures?	An improvement
	Name the three TO recommendation priorities.	Emergency, urgent, routine
	What type of TO change recommendation would be submitted as either an emergency or urgentpriority?	improvement
	Who submits an AFTO Form 22?	Anyone who discovers a TO condition that requires a change
	What acts as the signature on e-mailed AFTO Forms 22?	e-mail address record
	Who is the final approval authority for a submitted AFTO Form 22?	The lead command (usually AFMC)
	Who may perform a follow-up action for a delayed AFTO Form 22 reply?	Local PIM (product improvement manager)
	How do you identify a change within TO text?	Heavy black vertical lines in the outer margin of a paragraph
	Describe a cumulative TO supplement.	Includes data contained in previously issued supplements- it shall supersede all previously issued supplements
	What type of supplement is used to supplement individual pages of a TO, and how is itdistinguished from normal TO pages?	TOPS, it is green
	How are TOPS pages filed within a TO?	Facing the page it supplements
	How are routine supplements filed?	In the back of the publication
	How are operational supplements identified?	By a black OS border on the front page with the words OPERATIONAL SUPPLEMENT printed on top and bottom of the first page
	When are interim supplements issued?	When safety and operational conditions are deemed more serious than can be covered by the standard safety/operational supplements. Electronically transmitted
	When is an urgent interim safety supplement issued?	Safety conditions could (but not certainly (emergency)) result in a fatality or serious injury
	How is quality maintenance assured on the flight line?	Maintenance standardization evaluation program (MSEP)
	Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization?	QA
	What is the purpose of the MSEP?	Highlighting and identifying underlying causes of poor quality in the maintenance production effort
	What are the focus areas of the unit MSEP?	Compliance with and currency of TOs and directives. Aircraft and equipment forms documentation. Aircraft and equipment inspections. Compliance and management of safety. Training. Unit directed programs. Key Task List (KTL). (KTL covers tasks that are complex or those affecting safety of flight). Routine Inspection List (RIL). (RIL is an AF, MAJCOM or unit developed list of routineinspections).
	What is a Cat I finding?	A required inspection/TO procedural item is missed or improperly completed. (work card item, TO step, caution, warning)
	How are Cat II discrepancies subclassified?	Major and minor
	How are PEs used?	Over-the-shoulder evaluation of a maintenance inspection or action
	When does a PE begin and end?	Begins when individual or team begins the task to be evaluated, ends when the predetermined task is finished
	What is a QVI?	“after the fact” inspection.
	What is the result when a QA inspector identifies a DSV during a PE?	Inspector must stop unsafe act immediately, and PE is a fail.
	What is a TDV?	Performing maintenance without proper technical data available, or not in use, or not following correct sequence of steps
	What indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is documented evenwhen it is not possible to determine who created the condition.	Unsatisfactory condition report (UCR). Unsafe/unsatisfactory condition (other than DSV) is identified and is chargeable to the work center supervisor
	What is an example of information found in maintenance manuals?	Instructions for modifying aircraft systems
	Which maintenance level completes Category II TCTOs?	Depot
	If the urgency of conditions does not allow for time, what type of TCTO is used?	Interim
	Methods and procedures technical orders begin with	00.
	A malfunction identified in the fault reporting manual by	an alphanumeric fault code of eight characters
	Which volume of the wiring data manuals will correlate a wiring data diagram configurationcode to an aircraft serial number	Volume 1.
	Which wiring data manual contains both the wiring diagram index and system wiringdiagrams?	Volume 4.
	A TO number with only three parts identifies the	individual TO.
	In TO 1F-22A-2-27GS-00-1, the 2 in group three identifies what kind of TO?	Maintenance instruction
	What are the two types of recommended technical order changes	Correction and improvement.
	What would the priority recommendation be if a TO deficiency would result in a fatal orserious injury to personnel?	Emergency
	What form is used to annotate a TO deficiency for submission?	AFTO Form 22.
	Who initiates follow-up action on a TO change recommendation with a delayed reply?a. The local product improvement manager.	The local product improvement manager.
	TOPS pages are filed in the TO	facing the affected page.
	Where are routine supplements filed?	In the back of the affected publication
	What type of finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel, jeopardizeequipment, and impact safety of flight?	Major finding.
	What type of an evaluation is a direct evaluation of a maintenance action or inspection byan individual or a team?	PE.
	When should a QVI not be conducted?	After equipment operation.
	What does the GLCS provide?	Global Logistics Support Center-fleet wide supply support to all AF weapon systems, consolidated repair facilities, Air Logistics Center (ALC) capability to optimize frame availability
	Although the Air Force supply system is global, what does it rely on?	Base level management concept to provide parts quickly
	What is the Standard Base Supply System?	An accounting system- standardized computer equipment, programs, procedures, and policy to provide base activities with their supply needs
	How does a maintainer use the SBSS?	Through the supply personnel in the unit
	What are the responsibilities of supply personnel assigned to an AMU?	Coordinate maintenance and supply actions, manage supply transactions, monitor and track assets in the repair cycle, resolve supply support problems, report aircraft parts status to maintenance supervision
	When would you use an AF Form 2005?	To acquire a part from supply
	What will you insert in block E of the AF Form 2005?	Volume, figure and index number from IPB
	What does the “Mark For” field identify on the AF Form 2005?	The specific aircraft for which the part is to be used
	What is a forward supply point?	A supply warehouse in addition to the base supply that is usually located next to the AMU it supports- contains AMU specific items that have a high rate of usage. FSP retains ownership of items until used
	What kind of items is stocked in a forward supply point?	Repair cycle assets that have a high rate of usage for that particular maintenance activity
	What must you provide squadron supply personnel with to obtain an item from the forwardsupply point?	A properly annotated AF Form 2005
	Name some types of bench stock used regularly by maintenance activities.	Nuts, bolts, washers, panel fasteners, cotter pins
	If you need a bench stock item, where will you find it?	In the bench stock in the AMU support section
	What ERRC code do bench stock items fall under?	XB3
	Who is ultimately responsible for the conservation, usage, discipline, and appointment of a benchstock monitor?	Work center supervisor
	What supply document should be reviewed daily for due-outs and cancellations?	D04
	What does the Priority Monitor Report (D18) list?	All of the Urgency Need Designator code of parts that are back ordered (UND-parts that prevent mission accomplishment). Current status of all back ordered parts
	What is the Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23) also called?	Due In From Maintenance (DIFM) list
	What are repair cycle assets?	Items that can be repaired and placed back in service
	When is a repair cycle asset considered as DIFM?	When the back shop gets an item for repair- supply is waiting for the item’s repair and its return to warehouse/forward supply point
	When does a MICAP condition exist?	When an aircraft is not mission capable due to a component failure, and the repair part is not available. MICAP is the highest priority
	Before submitting a MICAP requisition to the source of supply, what must supply personnel firstdo?	Must ensure all possible base-level resources are exhausted
	How might a MICAP condition be satisfied?	cannibalization
	Who normally authorizes a cannibalization action?	Production superintendent (pro-super)
	What is the TNB used for?	Tail number bin-used to temporarily store aircraft parts, each aircraft has its own bin. Also to store parts for that aircraft in from supply
	What must accompany a part so it can be logged into TNB?	AFTO form 350 tag
	What must you do prior to retrieving a part from TNB?	Sign it out using the TNB logbook
	If a reparable item is in the repair cycle and doesn’t have a DD Form 1570 series condition tag,how is the condition of the item shown?	On the 350 tag
	Holds an item until it’s called for by the investigating agency	1575
	Also known as NRTS tag	1577-2
	Used if repair costs would exceed the established maximumrepair allowance.	1577
	Used when back shops may not have the capability orauthorization to repair an unserviceable item	-1577-2
	Shows that an item is serviceable.	DD Forms 1574 an 1574-1
	Used in the DR process.	1575
	Attach it to an item that is condemned	-1577
	Is a gummed label	1574-1
	Normally, when will the AFTO Form 350 tag be filled out?	When an aircraft part is suspected to be bad
	What series of TO would you consult to find precise details regarding the use of the AFTO Form350 tag?	00-20 series
	Who is considered an accountable person?	A person who, by law, lawful order, regulation, or contract, maintains accurate records of property or documents in his/her charge
	Who would be considered responsible for an item?	Someone who isn’t accountable, but is physically liable
	If you assume responsibility for an item issued to you by the AF, who is the owner?	AF
	What is the purpose of the report of survey?	Investigation to determine liability, covers accounting and reporting of lost, damaged, or destroyed government property. Used to place responsibility and pecuniary (relating to money) liability
	What determines pecuniary liability?	Willful misconduct, deliberate or unauthorized use, or gross negligence of the individual involved
	What is the purpose of the statement of charges?	It is the bill the AF presents to negligent individuals to allow service to recoup monetary loss
	If it is determined that an individual owes money to the government, what are the two methods inwhich the bill can be paid?	Make payment in cash, or a deduction in paycheck
	What are the two ways classified material can be protected?	Prescribed storage or under personal control and observation of an authorized individual
	Who is the primary point of contact if you want to verify an individual’s security clearance?	Unit security manager
	What are the three levels of classified assets?	Top secret, secret, confidential
	How are classified assets handled?	As the highest classification level it contains
	What type of storage containers are authorized to store classified material?	In approved General Services Administration (GSA) security containers: Safe, vault, secure room
	When you remove a classified document without a marked cover from a safe, how do you ensureit is protected from inadvertent disclosure?	Use an appropriate cover sheet on front and back of documents
	What are the two ways supply personnel verify an individual is authorized to receive classifiedparts?	look this one up I forgot
	Can an individual with a Secret security clearance pick up a Top Secret part? Why or why not?	No, must have equal to or higher security clearance than item
	. How is the AFTO Form 350 tag documented when turning in a classified part to supply?	“CLASSIFIED ITEM” is stamped/written in red on face of all copies of document. Item is double packaged with the internal packaging containing security classification markings, external does not have security classification
	How is the destruction of classified materials or documents accomplished?	By means to eliminate risk of reconstruction. Burning, cross cut shredding, wet-pulping, mutilation, chemical decomposition, pulverizing.
	If you have a toolkit checked out and you don’t have any work at the present time, what do youdo with it? Why?	Secure it, borrowed tools sometimes don’t make it back.
	How often are toolkits inventoried, and who does it?	You do, before you leave support and after work on each aircraft is completed. Tool room monitor does complete inventory upon turn in
	If you have performed work on three aircraft and haven’t inventoried your toolkit at thecompletion of each job, what could happen to the all aircraft if a tool turns up missing?	Waste lots of time looking, if you can’t find it every aircraft you’ve worked on is grounded
	What do you do if you break a tool?	Tell the tool room monitor and bring them all the pieces
	How does maintenance supervision track every item ordered in supply?	By using the SBSS.
	A maintainer uses the SBSS through	supply personnel assigned to their unit.
	Supply personnel assigned to an AMU are responsible for all except	filling out an Air Force Technical Order Form 2005.
	What is assigned as a control and reference number to identify you have placed a demandon Base Supply to obtain a part?	Document number.
	What field of the parts order form identifies the specific aircraft for which the part is to beused on?	. Mark for.
	The responsibility for appointing a bench stock monitor rests with the	workcenter supervisor.
	What supply document is also referred to as the DIFM list?	Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23).
	What describes a TNB?	It is basically a parts rack. Located in the squadron’s supply area.Used to temporarily store aircraft parts.
	The purpose of DD Form 1570-series tags is to	show the current status or condition of US Air Force property
	What DD form is used to show that an item requires work at depot, or some other station, torestore it to a serviceable condition?	DD Form 1577–2 (Green).
	What DD form will you fill out to hold a part as an exhibit item for the deficiency reportingprocess?	DD Form 1575 (Brown).
	Which form is used to process an item through the repair cycle?	AFTO Form 350, Part I.
	Who is responsible for a toolbox signed out from the support section?	. Person who signs it out.
	If a report of survey finds a person to be liable for lost or damaged AF property, theindividual is notified by	a statement of charges or the “you owe me” bill.
	Who is the primary point of contact when a security question arises?	The unit security manager
	How are classified assets protected when not installed on an aircraft?	In a GSA-approved safe.
	Why is it critical that you inventory your toolkit prior to leaving each aircraft you haveworked on?	To ensure no tools are left behind on an aircraft.
	If you break a tool, you should	bring it to the attention of the tool room monitor and turn in all pieces of the broken tool.
	What type of maintenance can be programmed on either a short- or long-range schedule?	Scheduled maintenance
	Why is planning and scheduling an important aspect of planned inspections?	To avoid conflicting inspections while still completing all required maintenance
	Inspection work cards are listed in what order?	In the most logical and practical order of accomplishment, and are grouped according to what specialist is needed to perform the inspection
	What must be done to a locally initiated inspection work card prior to using it?	It must be approved
	What are the four types of inspection concepts?	Periodic: at x flying/operating hours or calendar day. More thorough than phasedPhased: Breaks down periodic inspections into smaller chunks performed at different times-minimizes the time aircraft is out of commission. Isochronal: based on calendar day programmed depot maintenance inspections
	Why does the periodic inspection require extended aircraft down time?	It is a thorough inspection of the entire aircraft at one time
	What is the primary objective of the phased inspection?	To minimize amount of time aircraft is out of commission
	What inspection is based on a calendar day sequence rather than the flying or operating hoursequence?	isochronal
	When is the programmed depot maintenance inspection normally scheduled?	As the need arises
	What is the primary purpose of the EOR (end of runway) inspection?	Last chance look at aircraft immediately before flight- for safety
	. When is the basic postflight inspection performed?	After the last flight of a specified flying period- more thorough than preflight or thruflight
	After the last flight of a specified flying period- more thorough than preflight or thruflight	Eliminates duplicate inspection steps, and has same validity period
	The major and minor inspections are elements of what inspection concept?	isochronal
	What is a calendar inspection?	Special inspection requirement that applies after an extended period- aircraft will not be flown until the inspection is completed
	What must be done during a 90-day calendar inspection?	Basic or hourly postflight inspection Ops check of all functional aircraft systems (excluding landing gear retraction) Accomplishment of all periodic or minor lubrication requirements Any additional inspections or maintenance as determined by the senior maintenance officer
	What inspection is done when the aircraft returns from depot maintenance or if an aircraft hasbeen away from its assigned unit for an extended length of time?	Acceptance inspection
	What are the two types of DRs?	Category I and Category II
	What type of DR, if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness?	Category I
	What type of DR deals with errors in workmanship?	Category II
	Would a TO discrepancy be a reason to submit a DR? Why or why not?	No, submit an AFTO Form 22
	Who would be a good person to ask if you had questions concerning the completeness of a DR?	Unit DR monitor
	What are the five responsibilities of the originator of a DR?	1. Discover, identify, and document noted conditions, which may become DRs2. ensure potential exhibits and supporting data are made available to personnel in the originating point3. forward a draft of the DR to personnel in the originating point4. identify the DR exhibit with DD forms 2332, production quality deficiency report exhibit and 1575, suspended tag-material5. secure, segregate, and suspend DR exhibit
	What is the preferred method to prepare DRs?	The deficiency reporting entry and mail system (DREAMS)
	How much time does the originator have to forward a completed CAT I DR to personnel in theoriginating point?	24 hours
	How much time does the originator have to forward a completed CAT II DR to personnel in theoriginating point?	Within three workdays
	Why are exhibits assigned to a designated storage area?	To ensure they are not returned to the production, maintenance, or operation area
	What tags are normally filled out for a DR exhibit?	2 copies of DD form 1575 2 copies of DD form 2332 One 350 tag
	Who has overall management responsibility and serves as the focal point for all submittingorganization tasks?	Personnel in the originating point (usually QA)
	What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 781H?	To provide a maintenance, inspection, service, configuration, status, and flight record for a particular system. All placed in a binder- each aircraft has its own binder
	What information can be found within the status today box in the AFTO Form 781H?	A symbol representing the highest open symbol in AFTO forms 781A or 781K
	What is an ER? Who normally performs the ER?	Exceptional release-reviewed all the active forms to ensure the aircraft is safe for flight. Performed usually by production superintendent
	In what two AFTO 781 series forms will you find information about airframe time?	Area 9 of 781H and 781J
	As a maintenance specialist, what AFTO 781 series form will you use the most?	781A
	What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 781A?	Documents each discrepancy discovered by pilot or maintenance personnel-used for safety and to avoid duplication of work
	What kind of date format is used in the FROM block of the 781A?	YYYYMMDD
	As a maintenance technician, which entries will you see in the SYM block of the 781A?	Red X, /, or -
	What does a red X symbol indicate?	Unfit for flight or use
	Who usually enters the symbol in the SYM block of the 781A?	The person who discovers the discrepancy
	Who can sign off a red X discrepancy on the AFTO Form 781A?	A technician other than the one who performed the task with “red X orders” (usually a 7-level)
	When will the supply document number be entered into the DOC NO block of the 781A?	If parts are back ordered
	What information must be entered into the CORRECTIVE ACTION block when a red Xcondition is cleared in the 781A?	TO references or equivalent along with a description of the corrective action
	What is done to the 781A if an operational check can’t be accomplished concurrently with orimmediately after completion of the maintenance?	Original entry is closed out by describing the corrective action and stating that an operational check is due. The ops check is written up in the next block of 781A
	What is the purpose of the AFTO Form 781K?	To review and enter delayed discrepancies
	Where are red X entries entered on the AFTO Form 781K?	They are never entered in the 781K
	What additional documentation is required when a delayed discrepancy is corrected on the AFTOForm 781K?	It must be transferred to the 781A, then lined out on 781K after an employee number is written in the “transfer by employee number” column
	How is the AFTO Form 781B designed?	To provide COMSEC equipment status when COMSEC is installed on the aircraft
	Who checks the AFTO Form 781B prior to flight?	Aircraft commander or designated aircrew member
	What form provides avionics configuration and load status and when is it used?	781C
	What documentation is required on the AFTO Form 781C when equipment is removed?	Line through the item entry and enter a notation in “remarks” stating that the item was expended or removed
	How do you document a series of consecutive entries made or checked by the same individual?	Draw a diagonal line through, with a date entry above and time entry below the line
	The automated AFTO Form 781-series subsystem retrieves maintenance data from what system?	IMDS
	What information needs to be added to the automated forms after the product is printed?	Symbols
	Define maintenance data documentation.	The collection, storage, and retrieval of information concerning a maintenance action or involving personnel assigned to a maintenance organization
	List the benefits that base-level maintenance activities can derive from the MDD process.	Production info: what work was done by who on what Maintenance schedules and inventory for calendar maintenance requirements Labor and indirect labor man hours by work center Equipment failures and discrepancies Configuration status
	How is MDD data made available to base-level maintenance activities?	Through computer listings or in units equipped with IMDS
	Name the two categories used to document production data.	Data about maintenance on end items Data about maintenance on off-equipment
	Which documentation category is used to describe maintenance on end items?	1
	What are the advantages of using MDD codes?	To simplify recordings and to reduce space used on forms
	Which data code allows all phases of a job to be tied together for data analysis?	JCN
	What are the four types of work centers that report data to the MDD process?	Owning, performing, reporting (any work center to which maintenance personnel are assigned), nonreporting (work center at which man-hours are expended, but to which nobody is assigned)
	The identification number code consists of how many characters?	5
	The standard equipment reporting designator is normally the first character of which MDD code?	ID number
	What is the purpose of the work unit code?	Identifies system, subsystem, and/or component
	What is IMDS?	Online computer system used for collection, storage, and retrieval of maintenance data
	What is the main objective of IMDS?	To provide maintenance community with instant access to a database of information about maintenance resources
	What types of maintenance resources do IMDS provide information about?	aircraft, subsystems, support equipment, supplies, personnel
	List three of the IMDS subsystems.	Maintenance events, data collection, inquiries
	What is IMDS information used for at the base level?	To more effectively use maintenance, personnel, and equipment resources
	In which AFMAN can you find an introduction to IMDS?	AFCSM 21-556
	What is the simplest security measure to limit access to IMDS?	Keep the remote terminal in work area offline from the base computer
	How can you record your maintenance data if the IMDS system is down?	Manual backup system, usually with AFTO Forms 349
	Entering inaccurate data into IMDS can cause what long-term difficulties?	Supply shortages, ineffective support contracts, and insufficient inventories
	Differentiates between maintenance actions required to complete a job	WCE
	Actions that do not contribute directly to equipment maintenance	indirect labor
	Found in an -06 manua	MDD codes
	Unpredictable maintenance requirements that require prompt attention	unscheduled maintenance
	Used to report, control, and identify each maintenance action	event number
	Known or predictable maintenance requirements	scheduled maintenance
	A change in a job’s status due to a maintenance delay	deferred maintenance
	Generated automatically by IMDS	event number
	List the three parts of a basic event number.	YYDDDXXXX
	What is a WCE?	Differentiates between maintenance actions required to complete a job
	What can be assigned to a specific equipment item for recurring maintenance or inspections?	JST (job standard number)
	Which IMDS tool (screen) provides you with a list of deferred, unscheduled, and scheduledevents by equipment ID, work center, or part/serial number?	380
	What might your expediter use a screen 380 for?	To keep track of and assign jobs for the day
	Explain what “taking time” means.	Entering the hours each maintainer spend working on specific jobs
	What is “event maintenance” and why is it important?	A menu allowing the operator to properly maintain data and status on event IDs and WCEs. Ensures real time information is presented for all work performed, helps maintain error free histories on all job record data
	Describe the inquiry capability of screen 122.	Request all maintenance data performed against a particular event ID
	What types of maintenance inspections are based on the flying or operating hour sequence?	Periodic and phased.
	What type of inspection concept is normally scheduled as the need arises?	Programmed depot maintenance.
	The basic postflight inspection is performed	after the last flight of a specified flying period.
	What type of deficiency report is used for a deficiency that, if uncorrected, would causemajor loss or damage to equipment or a system?	Category I.
	What type of deficiency report is used for a deficiency that is attributable to errors inworkmanship?	Category II.
	Which is not a responsibility of the originator regarding conditions that may lead todeficiency reports?	Investigate.
	The three methods to prepare a DR normally used by flight line technicians include thedeficiency reporting entry and mail system, the	Standard Form 368 and integrated maintenance data system.
	Category II DR must be forwarded to the originating point within	. three workdays of deficiency discovery.
	Why must DR exhibits be conspicuously marked, tagged, and controlled?	To preclude their use.
	What AFTO Form requires review prior to performing maintenance?	AFTO Form 781A.
	The SERIAL NUMBER block on an AFTO Form 781A contains the	. aircraft tail number
	On an AFTO Form 781A, when is the symbol initialed over if a task involves more thanone work center or shop?	Not until all the work on that task is completed.
	If a warning note is required on the AFTO Form 781A, which block will it be entered into?	DISCREPANCY.
	To review and enter delayed discrepancies, you would use the AFTO Form	. 781K.
	Why are AFTO Forms 781K delayed discrepancies required to be transferred back to theAFTO Forms 781A?	So a brief description of the corrective action taken can be documented.
	Which AFTO Form is designed to provide COMSEC equipment status when COMSEC isinstalled on the aircraft?	781B
	The “REMARKS” block on the AFTO Form 781C is used to document	operational status.
	What is defined as the collection, storage, and retrieval of information concerning amaintenance action?	Maintenance data documentation.
	Data in the maintenance data documentation process is made available to base levelmaintenance through	the Integrated Maintenance Data System.
	What maintenance data documentation code ties together all maintenance actions takenrelating to a specific job?	Job control number
	What work center has the basic custodial and maintenance responsibility for an item ofequipment?	Owning.
	What maintenance term includes pilot reported discrepancies or discrepancies discoveredwhile working on unrelated jobs?	Unscheduled maintenance.
	What type of maintenance action occurs when the status of a job changes from INW toAWP?	Deferred maintenanceWhat is normally generated automatically by the Integrated Maintenance Data System andassigned to one specific maintenance discrepancy?
	What is normally generated automatically by the Integrated Maintenance Data System andassigned to one specific maintenance discrepancy?	Event number.
	What is meant by “taking time” in the Integrated Maintenance Data System?	Job data documentation.
	It is important to “take time” when a job is complete to	indicate how long and how many people are required to complete a job.
	When should preventive maintenance be accomplished?	Every time you work on an aircraft
	Describe chafing.	Rubbing-causes premature wear-can lead to arcing or fire
	What are the two major contributors to chafing?	Poor inspection habits during operations and not documenting and reporting chafing problems as they’re found
	How are wiring harnesses that carry flight control signals identified?	Double white lines that cross and form an X
	How far should you physically separate a wiring harness from the aircraft structure?	At least 3/8”
	What type of wrapping should you use for single harness applications where a small bend radius must be maintained?	Spiral wrapping
	What can be used for chafing protection on multiple harnesses up to ¾ inch in diameter?	Convoluted tubing
	What protective devices can be used on pitot-static pressure lines?	Protective plugs or caps
	If the waveguide from the transmitter to the antenna is damaged, why does the transmitted powerdecrease?	Damage increases the Standing Wave Ratio-less energy reaches the transmitter
	Besides physical damage to the waveguide, what other problems with the waveguide can reduce	Dirt, metal objects, other particles, moisture
	Why are protective covers installed on electrical connectors and receptacles?	To protect from dirt, moisture, and FOD
	What is static electricity?	Accumulation of electrical charge on the surface of a material
	.What are the four factors that affect the magnitude of a static charge on a material?	Size, shape, composition, and electrical properties
	What type of material can quickly distribute a static charge over its entire surface?	Conducting substance
	Will static electricity have a tendency to build up more in a high or low humidity environment?	Low humidity- high humidity helps to dissipate electro static charges
	List four components that are ESDS.	Diodes, film resistors, resistor chips, piezoelectric crystals
	How would you know that an ESDS component is present?	Marked with ESDS symbol
	What precaution should you take to be sure you do not have a static charge built up in your bodythat could damage an ESDS component?	Touch an unpainted surface on the grounded plane
	How do you discharge static electricity from your body if you are wearing the full CWDE?	Same way, through gloves
	Which TO will give you further guidance on ESDS components?	00-25-234
	Which two types of torque wrenches will you use on the flight line?	Indicating type and breakaway type
	What type of torque wrench is most commonly used by the Air Force?	Breakaway type
	What happens to a breakaway torque wrench when the applied torque is reached?	Automatically releases
	What should be done to a torque wrench after use?	Set it to its lowest setting
	How often are torque wrenches calibrated?	Every 60 days
	Describe how insulated wire is constructed.	Conductor covered by an insulating material
	Why is the center conductor made up of several strands of wire?	Increases overall flexibility
	What is the difference between insulated wire and shielded cable?	Shielded cable provides a barrier from electro magnetic interference with a braided wire outside the insulation
	What is the purpose of the metallic braid on shielded cable?	Protects from interference
	Which cable is normally used for carrying RF signals?	coaxial
	What is the major difference between coaxial and triaxial?	Triax has extra set of dielectric and shield for added protection- usually used for video
	When inspecting aircraft wire, what are some problem areas you should look for?	Damaged insulation, unusual bends, kinks, improper routing, burned areas, broken wires
	What TO would you consult for in-depth information on inspecting aircraft wire?	8-1-1
	What type(s) of aircraft wire can be repaired if wire insulation or outer jacket damage is apparentwhile conductor or outer shield is exposed but not damaged?	Insulated wire, coax, triax, shielded cable
	What criterion would you use to determine if insulation damage is reparable on a standardinsulated wire?	If insulation is damaged and the conductor is exposed, but not damaged
	What criterion would you use to determine if a coaxial cables’ exposed outer shield could berepaired?	If shielded cable is exposed but not damaged
	What material would you use to repair the damage described in the previous two questions?	Heat shrink tubing
	Describe the function of a splice.	Joins two wires into one continuous wire run
	Explain how you would repair a broken wire near an electrical connector.	Removing the wire from the connector and splicing a new wire within 2-6 inches on the connector
	In addition to flight control harnesses, name some other circumstances when you are notauthorized to install a splice.	Coaxial cables, RF cables, primary power wires
	How is the piggybacked wire routed in relation to the original harness?	Separately braided or encased, tied at intervals, and routed through all original clamps. The harness identifier will be put onto the new wire, and the original wire ends will be capped
	What method of wire repair will save harness replacement costs and the time required to installthem?	piggybacking
	What are the three most common pieces of test equipment you will use to troubleshoot coaxialand triaxial-type cables?	Multi-meter, time domain reflectometer, RF transmission line set
	What piece(s) of test equipment will provide you with an indication of distance to the fault?	Time domain reflectometer
	How often do you inspect a standard connector?	Whenever you disconnect it
	If you notice a discoloration of the ceramic material in a connector, what could this indicate?	That a wire is overheating, could indicate a short
	What prevents you from attaching a connector to the wrong receptacle?	keys
	What is the purpose of a cable clamp?	To relieve stress on wires entering the back of the connector
	What would you do to a wire bundle if the cable clamps’ saddle bars didn’t contact it?	Build up the bundle with wire bundle bushing or acceptable kind of tape
	What is the first step in troubleshooting a connector?	Complete a visual inspection- look for wear, damage, signs of heat
	How would you troubleshoot a wire where you suspect a loose connection at the electrical contact(pin)?	Wiggle each wire during continuity checks
	How can you repair a broken retention clip that’s internal to the connector?	Replace the connector
	The plastic extraction and insertion tool is used on which type(s) of connector?	Rear release connectors
	When you replace more than one pin in a connector, why would you replace them one at a time?	So you don’t put a pin in the wrong hole
	What must be done before you insert the end of a wire into a pin?	Strip the wire
	What would you use to insert a pin into a connector?	Insertion tool
	When you replace a connector, where is a good place to start the process?	At the connectors center
	If used properly, the crimping tool will provide what type of a crimp?	Neither too loose nor too tight
	For you to achieve a proper crimp on wire splices, end caps, terminal lugs, and outer ferrules,what must you use in conjunction with the correct crimper?	Removable dies
	When will you commonly use the large crimper?	On thicker gauged wire/pins
	How would you ensure you are using the proper turret head?	Refer to the tool selection chart contained in the kit
	What information can be gathered by referring to the data plate located in the positioning head?	Which position to set the knob according to which gauge wire you’re crimping
	A wafer connector usually has how many independently removable wafers?	two
	Why do you need to exercise more care with wafer connectors than you do with standardconnectors?	They are more fragile
	How would you troubleshoot a wafer connector?	Same method of continuity checks
	How are electrical contacts housed in a wafer?	Molded into a plastic housing- if one contact gets damaged it cannot be changed out
	Why is aluminum tape or foil used when repairing a colder solder joint?	To prevent other tabs from being heated during solder
	What are two common RF connectors you will come in contact with when working avionicsystems?	Quick release connector, threaded connector
	How would you weaken a quick-release connectors’ crimped?	By not being gentle with rotation and forward/aft inspection motions
	What type wrench must be used when removing the threaded connectors’ front half?	Spanner wrenches
	Why is it important to protect your eyes when working with energized fiber optic circuits?	Some light sources are not visible but can still damage your eye
	Transmit electronic signals out	Fiber optic receivers
	Carry light in an optical glass channel-	fiber optic cables.
	Convert input signals from optical to electrical	fiber optic receivers
	Convert input signals from electrical to optical-	fiber optic transmitters.
	Mating interface between fiber optic cables.	fiber optic connectors
	Transmit IR light generated from LED or laser diode source	fiber optic transmitters
	Why is it important to keep fiber optic termini clean?	If the termini get dirty it will interfere with the transmission
	How much faster does a fiber optic cable transmit information over twisted pair or coaxial cable?	15 times
	Why do fiber optic links generally contain less than five cables?	The optical loss is increased by how many connectors it goes through
	Why is it important you never sharply bend fiber optic cables?	The fibers can break
	Why should you cover fiber optic connectors with ESD or dust caps when not connected to themating receptacle/plug?	To prevent dirt and debris
	Why are fiber optic termini polished to a smooth, scratch-free, chip-free surface?	To ensure functionality
	How is the glass fiber bonded to the ferrule in fiber optic termini?	With epoxy that is rated to withstand the expected airborne environment
	Why is it important to ensure fiber optic connectors are properly aligned and tight, but not tootight?	To prevent misalignment and reduce loss
	How does the flight line maintainer know that a fiber optic connector is tight enough?	A visible red inspection ring indicates an inadequately closed connector
	Why is fiber optic glass a physical hazard?	The glass fibers are easily broken, and transferred from skin to eyes or embed into skin
	How can fiber optic glass be broken without damaging the outer cable construction?	By excessive clamping, or bending
	What is the most likely way for eyes to be exposed to fiber optic light?	From unmated connectors on a powered system
	Why is it not recommended to wet clean a fiber optic connection?	It can damage bulkheads or receptacles
	At a minimum, a fiberscope should have what minimum magnification factor?	200x
	Why is it necessary to use a patch cable to test fiber optic lines?	They are extension leads to connect to testers
	Why is it necessary to determine the signal loss of the patch cable prior to testing the aircraftcabling?	To accurately measure the gain or loss of the aircraft systems
	If your light source output power is significantly less than the unit’s specification, what is themost likely cause and what should you do about it?	Dirty connectors, excessive attenuation in patchcord, laser emitter has fallen out of calibration: clean connectors, examine/replace patchcord, return unit for service
	Which type of maintenance is done before a partfails and is practiced by every maintenance technician each time they work on an aircraft?	.Preventive
	Which is an example of a common chafing area?	.Electronic equipment bays.
	What physical separation must be maintained betweena wiring harness and a bulkhead?	.3/8 inch
	) Why would a plastic cap not be used on thehydraulic system?	.It will not hold if hydraulic pressure is applied.
	The primary cause of electrostatic dischargedamage to avionic components and equipment is	. thedischarge of static electricity into the equipment connector pins.
	What are the two basic types of torque wrenchescurrently in use?	. Indicatingand breakaway.
	) After using a torque wrench	. set thegrip to its lowest setting.
	) In insulated wire, the conductor is made up ofseveral strands to	. increaseflexibility.
	What type of wire insulation may give theappearance of exposed conductors or shielding?	. Kapton.
	) When must you inspect a standard connector?	Priorto reconnecting it.
	How would you repair a connector that has a faultyinternal pin lock?	.Replace the connector.
	) When you are repairing a rear release connector,the only tool device that you should use to	. plasticextraction/insertion tool.
	) When crimping a pin to a wire, what can result ifthe crimp is too tight?	Thewire to pin connection is so fragile it could break under vibration.
	) When you disconnect a wafer connector, what mustbe accomplished?	A thoroughinspection, looking for burn marks, loose connections, and cracks.
	Aluminum tape or foil is used when repairing a coldsolder joint to	. preventadjacent contacts from heating up.
	To reduce optical signal loss in a 500-foot-fiberoptic link, it is more preferable to use	. onecontinuous 500-foot cable.
	If your fiber optic power levels are not whatyou expected during testing, why is your most likely suspect a dirty connector?	If the cableends are dirty, the light cannot penetrate it.
	Explain the difference between theCelsius and Kelvin?	They are the same, except Kelvin is 273higher
	Define the term entropy.	A measure of how far along the natural process of evening ofpressures, temperatures, and densities
	. What is atmospheric pressure at sealevel?	14.69
	. Define airflow.	Volume of air that flows past a fixedpoint in a given amount of time
	At what altitude will combustion notwork, and why is this the case?	12 miles, the air is too thin
	. What are the three layersof the atmosphere, and what are their altitude ranges	Troposphere: 0-6 miles. Stratosphere:6-60 miles. Ozone: 12-30 miles
	. What is the atmosphericpressure at 40,000 feet?	2.72psi
	What is the most noticeable effect on low atmospheric pressure onthe body?	Blood pressure and normal body functions are affected: sometimesblood vessels would rupture in ears and breathing passages
	What is the purpose of the bleed airsystem?	To operate or control pneumatic systemsor components
	. Name three reasons aircraft designers usebleed air as a source of power?	1. There’s a tremendous supply of compressed airavailable from the compressor of an operating jet engine. The small amount ofthrust lost to the aircraft by drawing from this source doesn’t hinder aircraft performance. 2. By using bleed air, it’srelatively easy to transfer power to a component no matter how remotely it is from the airsource. 3. The use of air eliminates theneed for an electrical- or hydraulic-driven power unit; thereby saving weight andspace (pneumatic systems).
	. Name three separate sources foraircraft bleed air.	Aircraft engines, ground air cart, gas turbine compressors, gasturbine units, or auxiliary power units
	What is the temperature and pressure ofbleed air?	200 psi or higher, 600-900 degrees F
	What happens to the system shutoff valveif power to the solenoid is interrupted?	The valve will open or close anytime electrical power to the solenoid is interrupted depending on system design.
	. What happens to the pressure of theairflow through the throat of a Venturi tube?	The pressure decreases in the pinched part of the tube, and ishigher in the wide portions on either side because the velocity of the airflow increasesthrough the pinch
	What function does apressure limiter serve in a bleed air system?	To protect downstream components from excessive pressure
	What are the factors that affect therate of airflow through a flow control valve?	Applied inlet pressure, inlet temperature, differential pressurebetween the inlet and the throat of the venturi
	What valve is installed to remedy theshortcomings of the flow control valve?	Pressure regulator and shutoff valve
	. What are the two functions of an airflowregulator?	Flow control valve and pressure limiter designed to maintain aconstant pressure differential between the venturi inlet and the throat
	. If a flow control and shutoff valvefails to close when the switch for the control solenoid valve is opened and a check reveals that no poweris applied to the solenoid valve. Furthermore, a pressure check reveals that controlpressure is applied to the top of the actuator diaphragm (K). What are the possible causes of thismalfunction?	Either the control solenoid valve(J), or the poppet valve (G) is leaking and causing control pressure to be applied to theactuator
	What material(s) is used forhigh-pressure/high-temperature ducting?	Stainless steel
	. To ensure a good airtight seal wheninstalling a V-band clamp, what action should you take?	Always tap around the edges of the clamp as it is tightened tocorrect and minor misalignments and ensure proper sealing
	Why should the bottom bolts be installedfirst on a bolted flange duct?	It forms a cradle and holds the gasketin place while the remaining bolts are installed
	What type lubricant can be used onbeaded duct sleeves to aid in installation?	Water only
	. List three componentsthat compensate for thermal expansion.	Expansion bellows, thermal compensators,horseshoe bends
	Senses temperature ofprecooler bleed air	. Sensor.
	Positions the modulatingcontrol valve	Temperature control circuit
	) Increases theamount of ram air across the heat exchanger to cool the bleed air sufficiently. c. Temperaturecontrol circuit.	Jet pump modulating andshutoff valve
	Describe the operation of the HE.	bleed air passes through tubular passages and the heat isdissipated through surface area contact with ram air
	Explain the operation of awater boiler	When the engine is operating at a high capacity, the bleed airflowing through the air-water heat exchanger boils the water. The process ofchanging to steam takes a large amount of heat out of the air
	What is the purpose of the wateraspirator and regenerative HE?	To cool bleed air further if it exitsthe secondary HE at higher than normal temps
	. How does the compressor turbinesection increase cooling efficiency?	Bleed air pressure and temperature are increased- so that theexpansion turbine operates efficiently
	Explain how the electronictemperature control anti-icing system operates	If the temp becomes too low, it mixeshot bleed air with turbine discharge air
	. Briefly explain how the ice controlscreen anti-icing system operates.	The turbines discharge tempis controlled by controlling the speed of the turbine
	Why do aircraftair-conditioning systems have water separator bypass valves installed?	The air becomes very dry at highaltitudes
	. What air source is usedfor cabin ventilation?	Ram air- normally isn’tused unless ACS is inoperative
	. An air-conditioning system similar tothat shown in figure 5–32 has a write-up that says during a malfunction of the system, emergencyventilation was selected but entered the cockpit instead of being pulled from it. Is this normal?Why?	Yes. During emergencyventilation, ram air scoop drags in atmospheric air and directs it in through ventilationcontrol valves and into the aircraft ducting to the crew area and electronicequipment.
	What is the purpose of the groundcooling ejector valve?	It causes ram air to be drawn across theHEs on the ground
	. What is the purpose of the flowlimiting Venturi?	Prevents pressure surges from reaching the turbine, prevents acomplete loss of air pressure if the rupture disc ruptures
	When the pilot is receiving full coldair in the cockpit, what are the positions of the dual temperature mixing valve butterflies?	Hot is closed, cold is open
	Controls air pressure onthe opening diaphragm	Anti-ice controller
	) Allows warm air to go tothe separator	. Anti-ice valve
	) Condenses moisture intowater droplets	Water separator
	) Absorbs fluctuations inpressure.	. Lag chamber
	Senses temperature changes.	. Cabin temperature sensor
	Selects the desiredtemperature during automatic operation	Rheostat
	Prevents overheating of thesystem	Manual temperature limiter
	) Used to select the modeof operation	Temperature control switch
	Repositions the dualtemperature mixing valve	Temperature controlbox
	During operation of an LCS, the coolantfluid is routed directly through the electronic unit to be cooled. Is this normal operation?Explain.	Yes. Closed loop= the fluidis continually recycled- not expelled
	. List the characteristicsof liquid coolant	Dielectric heat transfer fluid (nonconductor). Also noncorrosive.Incompatible with water- if it becomes contaminated it will become corrosiveand lose nonconducting properties.
	During operation of an LCS, the liquidcoolant is at normal temperatures. How would the temperature be kept from going lower?	Coolant is diverted throughthe thermal pilot valve to bypass the HE
	. During system operation,what happens when the temperature of the coolant exceeds 115°F?	The thermal pilot valve and modulatingvalve close, diverting coolant through the HE
	What visual indicator alerts you to adirty liquid coolant filter?	A mechanical differential pressureindicator popup
	Remains seated aslong as the pressure on the backside of the poppet equals the valveinlet pressure.	Thermal modulating valve.
	Has a bellows thatreacts to temperature and pressure changes and will open a valve tobypass the HE.	. Thermal pilotvalve.
	Is energized closed for theinitial three minutes of operation.	Solenoid shutoff valve
	Allows excessivecoolant pressure to go around the radar unit and backto the pump	. Delta system bypass
	What does the anti-skidsystem do?	Prevents the AC wheels from locking andskidding upon landing
	What type of electricaldevice is a wheel-speed transducer?	50-cycle-per-revolution AC generator
	How is the frequency of the transducergoverned?	Directly by wheel speed
	For what two reasons is the outputsignal from the wheel transducer formed into a square wave in the circuit card control channel?	removes transients and noise from the signal andprevents antiskid operation from stray signals
	What circuit provides for a gradualapplication of brake pressure after a skid condition has terminated?	Pressure bias modulation circuit
	What circuit monitors the output of thevalve driver?	Locked wheel control circuits
	. If the locked-wheel memory circuit isactivated and any wheel stops rotating, what component will relieve brake pressure to thatwheel?	Valve driver
	What circuit allows for a signal tosimulate a locked or skidding wheel condition?	Test circuit
	How does the touchdown protectioncircuit prevent brake application when the gears are down and locked, but no weight is on thegears?	The locked wheel signal prevents brakepressure from being applied during this condition
	What circuit produces a nearly constantoutput, regardless of the variations in the airplane power supply?	Regulator circuit
	Why is relative humidity higher at lower altitudesthan at higher altitudes?	Moisture is primarily found in the troposphere.
	An increase in altitude makes it harder for aperson to breath because the	. reduced atmospheric pressure isnot enough to push air into the lungs.
	Give examples of systems that use bleed air	anti-G, anti-icing, canopy/defog.
	What component stops the flow of air to theair-conditioning system?	System shutoff valve.
	) What happens if electrical power is interrupted tothe solenoid of an electrically-controlled, pneumatically-operated air-conditioning systemshutoff valve that has a fail-safe feature?	The valve opens or closes depending on systemdesign requirements
	What is the pressure and flow control device thatrestricts airflow and protects aircraft engines against air starvation?	Orifice.
	What is the bleed air system component thatmodulates to maintain a constant downstream air pressure?	. Airflow regulator
	A crush-type gasket used in aircraft ducting is madeof	a soft aluminum or fiber and metal mesh.
	The bleed air precooler assembly maintains aconstant outlet temperature with the aid of a	. modulating valve,sensor, and temperature control circuit.
	) Hot bleed air used for air-conditioning iscooled in a heat exchanger by	ram air.
	To create a greater cooling effect, atomized wateris sprayed across the inlet of the air conditioning system secondary HE by the	. water aspirator
	The air-conditioning system water separators remove70 to 85 percent of the moisture that accumulates in the conditioned air. This is done asa result of	rapid expansion
	The water separator anti-icing component that causesthe aircraft cooling turbine to slow down when an icing condition occurs is the	ice control screen
	When a fighter aircraft air-conditioning system isbeing operated on the ground, the ram air necessary to cool the bleed air flowing through theHE is provided by the	ejector valve
	) How is the warning light in the cockpit activatedif duct pressure on a fighter airconditioning system becomes excessive?	Turbine overspeed switch.
	Where does the final stage of cooling take placebefore conditioned air enters the cockpit?	. Expansion turbine.
	During initial start of a typical LCS, thecontroller timer energizes the solenoid shutoff valve closed for three minutes. The purpose of thisaction is to	allow for system stabilization.
	) In an LCS, what tells you that the liquidcoolant filter is dirty?	. A mechanical pop-upindicator (P) is activated.
	What components control the temperature of thecoolant in an LCS?	Thermal modulating valve and thermal pilotvalve.
	What is the result if an aircraft is operated with amissing or disconnected wheel speed transducer?	The control shield will go into a locked wheelcondition.

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