2A353 Volume 1 Ure

Front 1

The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

Back 1

2%

Front 2

What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards?

Back 2

98%

Front 3

Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures?

Back 3

Manuals, TOs, and handbooks.

Front 4

What safety training phase is described as an effictive tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airmen?

Back 4

Initial

Front 5

A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDS if concentrations are greater than

Back 5

0.1

Front 6

Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by

Back 6

The EPA

Front 7

Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed

Back 7

90 days

Front 8

What affects radiation hazards?

Back 8

Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.

Front 9

The recommended procedures for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in and isolated location and then

Back 9

Allow the assembly to cool in ambient air.

Front 10

The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine to either side at an angle of

Back 10

45°

Front 11

Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue?

Back 11

A feeling of emptiness.

Front 12

When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with those explosive devices?

Back 12

Weapons personnel.

Front 13

Before moving an explosives - loaded aircraft into a hangar you must

Back 13

Remove all ammunition and explosives.

Front 14

All composite material - related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT (form)?

Back 14

55

Front 15

The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to

Back 15

Identify all possible sources of FOD.

Front 16

Who is responsible for FOD prevention?

Back 16

Everyone

Front 17

When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the

Back 17

Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent.

Front 18

In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects?

Back 18

QA

Front 19

The pressure in a fire extinguisher is withing a safe operating range when the gauge needle is withing the

Back 19

Green markings.

Front 20

Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a

Back 20

20-foot radius.

Front 21

Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check?

Back 21

The aircrew.

Front 22

When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the

Back 22

Nose of the aircraft and at a 45° angle outboard of the engine being started.

Front 23

What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals?

Back 23

AFI 11-218

Front 24

During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order?

Back 24

Supervisor only.

Front 25

What are the Air Force's maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability?

Back 25

Organizational, intermediate, and depot.

Front 26

What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need?

Back 26

Preventative.

Front 27

Objectives of the MDD system include

Back 27

Collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.

Front 28

What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database?

Back 28

Select serial controlled and time change items.

Front 29

What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil?

Back 29

781F.

Front 30

The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder

Back 30

After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.

Front 31

Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO

Back 31

781 J.

Front 32

Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting?

Back 32

Item managers.

Front 33

The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the

Back 33

Unit level.

Front 34

The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by

Back 34

Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training.

Front 35

Deleted

Back 35

Deleted

Front 36

Deleted

Back 36

Deleted

Front 37

Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC?

Back 37

CFETP, Part II.

Front 38

The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

Back 38

Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.

Front 39

Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency?

Back 39

Reference

Front 40

What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs?

Back 40

1.

Front 41

Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists two possible responses?

Back 41

Remedy.

Front 42

What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red X's around the border of the first page?

Back 42

Immediate action.

Front 43

Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22?

Back 43

00-5-1.

Front 44

Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency?

Back 44

Urgent.

Front 45

Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what's on the form?

Back 45

Pamphlet.

Front 46

Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet?

Back 46

B-2

Front 47

Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand?

Back 47

B-4

Front 48

What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support?

Back 48

8,000 pounds.

Front 49

On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer is?

Back 49

20 mph.

Front 50

What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft?

Back 50

Axle

Front 51

Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented?

Back 51

Everyone

Front 52

GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted

Back 52

Green with a white band near the top.

Front 53

When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by

Back 53

Qualified operators only.

Front 54

What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC?

Back 54

49hp.

Front 55

What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen?

Back 55

4,400 psig.

Front 56

The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to

Back 56

3,200 psi.

Front 57

The MC-1A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of

Back 57

200 psi.

Front 58

The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from

Back 58

150 to 280°F.

Front 59

What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner?

Back 59

20 mph.

Front 60

The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from

Back 60

47 to 200°F.

Front 61

The A/M32A-86 generator set's T-R produces

Back 61

28.5 VDC.

Front 62

What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance?

Back 62

A/M32A-60.

Front 63

Which technical order had operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60?

Back 63

35C2-3-372-11

Front 64

The FL-1D floodlight consists of two

Back 64

1,000 watt lamp fixtures.

Front 65

What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces?

Back 65

20 mph.

Front 66

What is used to drive the MK-3A-1?

Back 66

An electric motor.

Front 67

How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated?

Back 67

Number 1 and Number 2.

Front 68

The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid?

Back 68

27 gallons.

Front 69

The MB-4 Coleman incorporates

Back 69

Four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.

Front 70

What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman?

Back 70

20 mph.

Front 71

What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer?

Back 71

Hydraulic.

Front 72

Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications?

Back 72

To prevent corrosion.

Front 73

How are special bolts identified?

Back 73

The bolt head is marked with the letter S.

Front 74

Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems?

Back 74

Clevis

Front 75

Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?

Back 75

An internal wrenching type.

Front 76

Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the

Back 76

Groove on the end of the barrel.

Front 77

Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal?

Back 77

Soft rubber.

Front 78

A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by

Back 78

Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal.

Front 79

What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing?

Back 79

15 to 20 inches.

Front 80

The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than

Back 80

15 percent of wall thickness.

Front 81

Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures?

Back 81

300 psi and below.

Front 82

The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a

Back 82

24 inch length of wire.

Front 83

When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in series?

Back 83

3

Front 84

Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them?

Back 84

Axially assembled retaining rings.

Front 85

Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove?

Back 85

Spiral retaining ring.

Front 86

What part of a cannon plug completes the electical circuit?

Back 86

Pin-and-socket contacts.

Front 87

In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates

Back 87

Pin.

Front 88

Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied?

Back 88

Indicating type.

Front 89

Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached?

Back 89

Breakaway type.

Front 90

Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

Back 90

Maximum setting at least six times.

Front 91

What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened?

Back 91

Tension and torsion.

Front 92

Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving?

Back 92

Static.

Front 93

Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to

Back 93

Move the decimal point.

Front 94

When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the

Back 94

Touch-hold mode is in use.

Front 95

Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts?

Back 95

Feeler gauge.

Front 96

What is the longest possible movement between the micrometers spindle and anvil?

Back 96

1.0 inch.

Front 97

Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut?

Back 97

Spring-joint calipers.

Front 98

Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders?

Back 98

Odd-leg calipers.

Front 99

Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame?

Back 99

Slide caliper.

Front 100

Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced?

Back 100

Supervisors at all levels.

Front 101

Bench stock levels are established to provide a

Back 101

30-day usage.

Front 102

Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods?

Back 102

AF IMT 1297.

Front 103

All items thay come through supply channels are assigned what type of code?

Back 103

ERRC.

Front 104

Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and

Back 104

AFTO Form 350.

Front 105

Which DD forms are easily identified by the green margins and letters?

Back 105

1577-2 and 1577-3.

Front 106

Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for

Back 106

100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.

Front 107

Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle?

Back 107

Periodic.

Front 108

Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections?

Back 108

Isochronal.

Front 109

Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements?

Back 109

Programmed depot maintenance.

Front 110

Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in

Back 110

Inspection workcards.

Front 111

Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems?

Back 111

EOR.

Front 112

The TH inspection is normally performed

Back 112

After flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled.

Front 113

Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days?

Back 113

Calendar.

Front 114

Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents?

Back 114

Acceptance.

Front 115

To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form

Back 115

1149.

Front 116

Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance?

Back 116

1-1B-50.

Front 117

What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity?

Back 117

Aircraft weight.

Front 118

Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy?

Back 118

"TRIAGE".

Front 119

Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is

Back 119

Fabricated or manufactured.

Front 120

Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

Back 120

Exhausted or salvaged.

Front 121

What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains?

Back 121

Exfoliation.

Front 122

What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal?

Back 122

Stress.

Front 123

Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in

Back 123

TO 1-1-691.

Front 124

After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

Back 124

Sodium bicarbonate.