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712 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

He had one of the earliest theories that behavior, intellect, and even personality might be linked to brain anatomy. He developed the doctrine of phrenology.

Franz Gall (1758 –1828)

He was the first person to study the functions of the major sections of the brain. He did this by extirpation on rabbits and pigeons. His work led to his assertion that the brain had specific parts for specific functions.

Pierre Flourens (1794– 1867)

His view was among the first theories that formed functionalism, a system of thought in psychology that studied how mental processes help individuals adapt to their environments.

William James (1842 –1910)

This is an important name in functionalism. Criticized the concept of the reflex arc. He believed that psychology should focus on the study of the organism as a whole as it functioned to adapt to the environment.

John Dewey ( 1859 –1952)

He added to the knowledge of physiology by examining the behavioral deficits of people with brain damage. He was the first person to demonstrate that specific functional impairments could be linked with specific brain lesions.

Paul Broca (1824– 1880)

He was the first to measure the speed of a nerve impulse. By actually measuring the speed of nerve impulses in terms of reaction time, He is often credited with the transition of psychology into a field of the natural sciences.

Hermann von Helmholtz ( 1821– 1894)

He first inferred the existence of synapses.

Sir Charles Sherrington (1857– 1952)

Transmit sensory information from receptors to the spinal cord and brain.

Sensory neurons (also known as afferent neurons)

transmit motor information from the brain and spinal cord to muscles and glands.

Motor neurons (also known as efferent neurons)

They are found between other neurons and are the most numerous of the three types of neurons.


composed of the brain and spinal cord.

central nervous system (CNS)

made up of nerve tissue and fibers outside the brain and spinal cord, such as the 12 pairs of cranial and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

peripheral nervous system (PNS)

consists of sensory and motor neurons distributed throughout the skin, joints, and muscles.

somatic nervous system

Afferent neurons ascend in the cord toward the brain; efferent neurons exit the cord on their way to the rest of the body.

Afferent neurons ascend in the cord toward the brain; efferent neurons exit the cord on their way to the rest of the body.

generally regulates heartbeat, respiration, digestion, and glandular secretions. In other words, the ___ manages the involuntary muscles associated with many internal organs and glands.

autonomic nervous system (ANS)

The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system are the ____ and ___ nervous system.

Sympathetic and parasympathetic

Increases heart rate, Redistributes blood to muscles of locomotion, Increases blood glucose concentration, Relaxes the bronchi, Decreases digestion and peristalsis, Dilates the eyes to maximize light intake, Releases epinephrine into the bloodstream.

Sympathetic Nervous System

The brain is covered with a thick sheath of connective tissue called the _____, which help protect the brain, keep it anchored within the skull, and resorb cerebrospinal fluid.


The meninges are composed of three layers:

the dura mater, the arachnoid mater, and the pia mater.

The human brain can be divided into three basic subdivisions:

the hindbrain, the midbrain, and the forebrain.

the hindbrain and midbrain form the:


a group of neural structures primarily associated with emotion and memory.

limbic system

the _____ is associated with everything from language processing to problem-solving, and from impulse control to long-term planning.

Cerebral cortex

The Cerebral cortex, Basal ganglia, Limbic system, Thalamus, and Hypothalamus are all part of which major brain division?


The Inferior and superior colliculi are all part of which major brain division?


The Cerebellum, Medulla oblongata, and Reticular formation are all part of which major brain division?


Located where the brain meets the spinal cord, the ____ controls balance, motor coordination , breathing, digestion, and general arousal processes such as sleeping and waking. In short, manages vital functioning necessary for survival.

hindbrain (rhombencephalon)

During prenatal development, the hindbrain divides to form the divides to form these two divisions.

myelencephalon (which becomes the medulla oblongata) and the metencephalon (which becomes the pons and cerebellum)

The _____ is a lower brain structure that is responsible for regulating vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure.

medulla oblongata

The _____ lies above the medulla and contains sensory and motor pathways between the cortex and the medulla.


At the top of the hindbrain, mushrooming out of the back of the pons, is the _____, a structure that helps maintain posture and balance and coordinates body movements. Damage to the cerebellum causes clumsiness, slurred speech, and loss of balance.


the ________, which receives sensory and motor information from the rest of the body. The ______ is associated with involuntary reflex responses triggered by visual or auditory stimuli.

midbrain (mesencephalon)

The _____ receives visual sensory input, and the _____ receives sensory information from the auditory system in the midbrain.

superior colliculus, inferior colliculus

This brain division is associated with complex perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes. Among its other functions , the forebrain is associated with emotion and memory.

forebrain (prosencephalon)

During prenatal development, the prosencephalon divides to form the _____ and the _____.

telencephalon (which forms the cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, and limbic system), diencephalon (which forms the thalamus, hypothalamus, posterior pituitary gland, and pineal gland)

refers to the study of functions and behaviors associated with specific regions of the brain.


involves placing several electrodes on the scalp. Broad patterns of electrical activity can thus be detected and recorded.

electroencephalogram (EEG)

detects broad patterns of neural activity based on increased blood flow to different parts of the brain . This method relies on the assumption that when a specific cognitive function activates certain regions of the brain, the blood flow to those regions increases.

regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)

The _____ is a structure within the forebrain that serves as an important relay station for incoming sensory information, including all senses except for smell. After receiving incoming sensory impulses, it sorts and transmits them to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex and is therefore a sensory “way station.”


The _____ subdivided into the lateral hypothalamus, ventromedial hypothalamus, and anterior hypothalamus, serves homeostatic functions, and is a key player in emotional experiences during high arousal states, aggressive behavior, and sexual behavior. It also helps control some endocrine functions, as well as the autonomic nervous system. Receptors in the _____ regulate metabolism, temperature, and water balance.


Feeding, Fighting, Flighting, and (Sexual) Functioning

Functions of the Hypothalamus— The Four Fs:

This brain region is referred to as the hunger center

lateral hypothalamus (LH)

This brain region is identified as the “satiety center,” and provides signals to stop eating.

ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)

This brain region controls sexual behavior as well as regulates sleep and body temperature.

anterior hypothalamus

The _____ is comprised of axonal projections from the hypothalamus and is the site of release for the hypothalamic hormones antidiuretic hormone (ADH, also called vasopressin) and oxytocin.

posterior pituitary

The _____ is the key player in several biological rhythms. Most notably, the _____ secretes a hormone called melatonin, which regulates circadian rhythms. It receives direct signals from the retina for coordination with sunlight.

pineal gland

The _____ coordinate muscle movement as they receive information from the cortex and relay this information (via the extrapyramidal motor system) to the brain and the spinal cord. It helps make our movements smooth and our posture steady .

basal ganglia

The_____ is part of the basal ganglia and gathers information about body position and carries this information to the central nervous system.

extrapyramidal motor system

The _____ comprises a group of interconnected structures looping around the central portion of the brain and is primarily associated with emotion and memory. Its primary components include the septal nuclei, amygdala, and hippocampus.

limbic system

Within the limbic system, the _____ contain one of the primary pleasure centers in the brain. Mild stimulation of the _____ is reported to be intensely pleasurable; there is an association between these nuclei and addictive behavior.

septal nuclei

Within the limbic system, the _____ is a structure that plays an important role in defensive and aggressive behaviors, including fear and rage.


Withing the limbic system, The _____ plays a vital role in learning and memory processes; specifically, it helps consolidate information to form long-term memories, and can redistribute remote memories to the cerebral cortex. It communicates with other portions of the limbic system through a long projection called the fornix.


loss of memory for any new information.

anterograde amnesia

memory loss of events that transpired before brain injury.

retrograde amnesia

Frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal

lobes of the brain

The outer surface of the brain

cerebral cortex

the cortex has numerous bumps and folds called:

gyri and sulci

The cerebrum is divided into two halves, called:

cerebral hemispheres.

The frontal lobe is comprised of two basic regions :

the prefrontal lobes and the motor cortex.

The _____ manages executive function by supervising and directing the operations of other brain regions. This region supervises processes associated with perception, memory, emotion, impulse control, and long-term planning.

prefrontal cortex

To regulate attention and alertness, the prefrontal cortex communicates with the _____ in the brainstem, telling an individual either to wake up or relax, depending on the situation.

reticular formation

The _____ is located on the precentral gyrus (just in front of the central sulcus that divides the frontal and parietal lobes), and initiates voluntary motor movements by sending neural impulses down the spinal cord toward the muscles.

primary motor cortex

A third important part of the frontal lobe is _____, which is vitally important for speech production. It is usually found in only one hemisphere, the so-called “dominant” hemisphere; for most people— both right- and left-handed— this is the left hemisphere.

Broca’s area

The _____ is located on the postcentral gyrus (just behind the central sulcus) and is involved in somatosensory information processing. This projection area is the destination for all incoming sensory signals for touch, pressure, temperature, and pain.

somatosensory cortex

The_____ is associated with spatial processing and manipulation. This region makes it possible to orient oneself and other objects in three-dimensional space, to do spatial manipulation of objects, and to apply spatial orientation

central region of the parietal lobe

The _____ lobes, at the very rear of the brain , contain the visual cortex.


The auditory cortex and Wernicke’s area are located in the _____ lobe.


The_____ is the primary site of most sound processing, including speech, music, and other sound information.

auditory cortex

_____ is associated with language reception and comprehension.

Wernicke’s area

The ____ lobe also functions in memory processing, emotion, and language.


In most cases, one side of the brain communicates with the opposite side of the body. In such cases, we say a cerebral hemisphere communicates ______. In other cases (for instance , hearing), cerebral hemispheres communicate with the same side of the body. In such cases, the hemispheres communicate _____.

contralaterally, ipsilaterally

The _____ is primarily analytic in function, making it well-suited for managing details . For instance, language, logic, and math skills are all located here. Again, language production (Broca’s area) and language comprehension (Wernicke’s area) are primarily driven by _____.

dominant hemisphere (usually the left)

The_____ is associated with intuition, creativity , music cognition, and spatial processing. It simultaneously processes the pieces of a stimulus and assembles them into a holistic image. It serves a less prominent role in language. It is more sensitive to the emotional tone of spoken language, and permits us to recognize others’ moods based on visual and auditory cues, which adds to communication.

nondominant hemisphere (usually the right)

_____ is a neurotransmitter found in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. In the peripheral nervous system, it is used to transmit nerve impulses to the muscles. It is the neurotransmitter used by the parasympathetic nervous system and a small portion of the sympathetic nervous system (for innervating sweat glands). In the central nervous system, it has been linked to attention and arousal.


They are three closely related neurotransmitters known as catecholamines. Due to similarities in their molecular composition, these three transmitters are also classified as monoanimes, or biogenic amines.

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine

They are involved in controlling alertness and wakefulness . As the primary neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system, they promote the fight-or-flight response.

Epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline)

_____ more commonly acts at a local level as a neurotransmitter, epinephrine is more often secreted from the adrenal medulla to act systemically as a hormone. Low levels of _____ are associated with depression; high levels are associated with anxiety and mania.


An important theory about the origin of schizophrenia is called ______. It argues that delusions, hallucinations, and agitation associated with schizophrenia arise from either too much dopamine or from an oversensitivity to dopamine in the brain.

the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.

_____ is associated with a loss of dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia. These disruptions of dopamine transmission lead to resting tremors and jerky movements, as well as postural instability.

Parkinson’s disease

Along with the catecholamines , _____ is classified as a monoamine or biogenic amine neurotransmitter.


This neurotransmitter is generally thought to play roles in regulating mood , eating, sleeping, and dreaming. Like norepinephrine, it is thought to play a role in depression and mania. An oversupply is thought to produce manic states; an undersupply is thought to produce depression.


This neurotransmitter produces inhibitory postsynaptic potentials and is thought to play an important role in stabilizing neural activity in the brain. It exerts its effects by causing hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane.

γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

_____ are therefore relatively slow and have longer effects on the postsynaptic cell than neurotransmitters.

Neuromodulators (Studies suggest that peptides are also involved in neurotransmission. The synaptic action of these neuromodulators (also called neuropeptides) involves a more complicated chain of events in the postsynaptic cell than that of regular neurotransmitters.)

The _____ , which are natural painkillers produced in the brain, are the most important peptides to know. They (and their relatives, enkephalins) have actions similar to morphine or other opioids in the body.


the hypophyseal portal system directly connects:

The hypothalamus and pituitary gland

The_____ releases epinephrine and norepinephrine as part of the sympathetic nervous system.

adrenal medulla

The adrenal cortex produces many hormones called _____, including the stress hormone _____.

corticosteroids, cortisol

The _____ contributes to sexual functioning by producing sex hormones, such as testosterone and estrogen.

adrenal cortex

The _____ are the sex glands of the body— ovaries in females, and testes in males.


_____ is genetically programmed as a result of evolution and is seen in all individuals regardless of environment or experience.

Innate behavior

_____ are not based on heredity but instead on experience and environment.

Learned behaviors

_____ is the extent to which a trait or behavior positively benefits a species by influencing the evolutionary fitness of the species, thus leading to adaptation through natural selection.

Adaptive value

_____ is defined as heredity, or the influence of inherited characteristics on behavior. _____ refers to the influence of environment and physical surroundings on behavior.

Nature, nurture

Research that determines the degree of genetic influence on individual differences between people uses one of three methods :

family studies, twin studies, and adoption studies.

_____ occurs when the ectoderm overlying the notochord begins to furrow, forming a neural groove surrounded by two neural folds,


Cells at the leading edge of the neural fold are called the ____, and will migrate throughout the body to form disparate tissues, including dorsal root ganglia, melanocytes (pigment-producing cells), and calcitonin-producing cells of the thyroid.

neural crest

The remainder of the furrow closes to form the _____, which will ultimately form the central nervous system (CNS). This has an alar plate, which differentiates into sensory neurons, and a basal plate, which differentiates into motor neurons.

neural tube

A ____ is a behavior that occurs automatically in response to a given stimulus.


Infants react to abrupt movements of their heads by flinging out their arms, then slowly retracting their arms and crying.

Moro reflex

The _____ causes the toes to spread apart automatically when the sole of the foot is stimulated,

Babinski reflex

_____ incorporate movement from large muscle groups and whole body motion, such as sitting, crawling, and walking.

Gross motor skills

_____ involve the smaller muscles of the fingers, toes, and eyes, providing more specific and delicate movement. These abilities include tracking motion, drawing, catching, and waving.

Fine motor skills

_____ use the ability of interneurons in the spinal cord to relay information to the source of stimuli while simultaneously routing it to the brain.

Reflex arcs

The PNS is divided into:

the somatic (voluntary) and autonomic (automatic) divisions.

The autonomic system is divided into:

the parasympathetic (rest-and-digest) and sympathetic (fight-or-flight) branches.

the conversion of physical, electromagnetic, auditory, and other information from our internal and external environment to electrical signals in the nervous system.


refers to the processing of physical, electromagnetic, auditory, and other information from our internal and external environment to make sense of its significance.


neurons that respond to stimuli and trigger electrical signals.

Sensory receptors

collections of neuron cell bodies found outside the central nervous system.


Sensory receptors that respond to electromagnetic waves in the visible spectrum (sight)


Sensory receptors that respond to movement of fluid in the inner ear structures (hearing, rotational and linear acceleration)

Hair cells

Sensory receptors that respond to painful or noxious stimuli (somatosensation)


Sensory receptors that respond to changes in temperature (somatosensation)


Sensory receptors that respond to the osmolarity of the blood (water homeostasis)


Sensory receptors that respond to volatile compounds (smell)

Olfactory receptors

Sensory receptors that respond to dissolved compounds (taste)

Taste receptors

the minimum amount of a stimulus that renders a difference in perception.


the minimum of stimulus energy that is needed to activate a sensory system.

absolute threshold

Thresholds can also be called:


the perception of a stimulus below a given threshold .

subliminal perception

the minimum difference in magnitude between two stimuli before one can perceive this difference.

difference threshold or just-noticeable difference (jnd)

Law which states that there is a constant ratio between the change in stimulus magnitude needed to produce a jnd and the magnitude of the original stimulus.

Weber’s law

the changes in our perception of the same stimuli depending on both internal (psychological) and external (environmental ) context.

signal detection theory

the tendency of subjects to systematically respond to a stimulus in a particular way due to nonsensory factors.

response bias

Trials in which the signal is presented are called _____, whereas those in which the signal is not presented are called _____. After each trial, the subject is asked to indicate whether or not a signal was given.

catch trials, noise trials

thick structural layer known as the white of the eye. It does not cover the frontmost portion of the eye.


the frontmost portion of the eye:


The eye is supplied with nutrients by two sets of blood vessels: the _____ vessels, a complex intermingling of blood vessels between the sclera and the retina, and the _____ vessels.

choroidal, retinal

The innermost layer of the eye which contains the actual photoreceptors that transduce light into electrical information the brain can process.


When entering the eye, light passes first through the?


The front of the eye is divided into the_____, which lies in front of the iris, and the _____between the iris and the lens.

anterior chamber, posterior chamber

The iris, which is the colored part of the eye, is composed of two muscles: the _____, which opens the pupil under sympathetic stimulation; and the _____, which constricts the pupil under parasympathetic stimulation.

dilator pupillae, constrictor pupillae

The ____ is continuous with the choroid, as is the ciliary body, which produces the aqueous humor that bathes the front part of the eye before draining into the canal of Schlemm.


The _____ lies right behind the iris and helps control the refraction of the incoming light.


Contraction of the _____, a component of the ciliary body in the eye, is under parasympathetic control.

ciliary muscle

As the ciliary muscle of the eye contracts, it pulls on the suspensory ligaments and changes the shape of the lens, a phenomenon known as _____.


Behind the lens of the eye lies a transparent gel that supports the retina.

the vitreous

The _____ is in the back of the eye and is like a screen consisting of neural elements and blood vessels. Its function is to convert incoming photons of light to electrical signals. It is actually considered part of the central nervous system and develops as an outgrowth of brain tissue.


This theory states that the retina contains two kinds of photoreceptors: those specialized for light-and-dark detection, and those specialized for color detection.

The duplexity or duplicity theory of vision

_____ are used for color vision and to sense fine details.


rods are more functional and only allow sensation of light and dark because they all contain a single pigment called:


the central section of the retina, called the _____, has a high concentration of cones; in fact, its centermost point, called the _____, contains only cones.

macula, fovea

Rods and cones in the eye connect with _____, which highlight gradients between adjacent rods or cones.

bipolar cells

Bipolar cells synapse with ____, which group together to form the optic nerve.

ganglion cells

_____ and _____ receive input from multiple retinal cells in the same area before the information is passed on to ganglion cells. They can thereby accentuate slight differences between the visual information in each bipolar cell. These cells are important for edge detection , as they increase our perception of contrasts.

Amacrine, horizontal cells

the physical anatomical connections between the eyes and the brain and the flow of visual information along these connections.

Visual pathways

As the signal travels through the optic nerves toward the brain, the first significant event occurs at the _____. Here, the fibers from the nasal half (closer to the nose) of each retina cross paths.

optic chiasm

From the optic chiasm, visual information goes to several different places in the brain : the _____ of the thalamus, through radiations in the temporal and parietal lobes to the _____ in the occipital lobe.

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), visual cortex

There are visual information inputs into the _____, which controls some responses to visual stimuli and reflexive eye movements.

superior colliculus

_____ is the ability to simultaneously analyze and combine information regarding color, shape, and motion. Then, these features can be compared to our memories to determine what is being viewed.

Parallel processing

Parallel processing is not only a psychological model, but also has a correlate in neuroscience called _____.

feature detection

Shape is detected by _____, which have very high color spatial resolution; that is, they permit us to see very fine detail when thoroughly examining an object. However, these cells can only work with stationary or slow-moving objects because they have very low temporal resolution.

parvocellular cells

Motion is detected by _____ because they have very high temporal resolution. However, these cells have low spatial resolution, so much of the rich detail of an object can no longer be seen once it is motion. These cells therefore provide a blurry but moving image of an object.

magnocellular cells

The ear is divided into three parts:

the outer, middle, and inner ear

The main function of the _____ is to channel sound waves into the external auditory canal, which directs the sound waves to the tympanic membrane (eardrum).


Louder sounds have greater _____, which corresponds to an increased amplitude of this vibration.


The _____ divides the outer ear from the middle ear.

tympanic membrane

The middle ear houses the three smallest bones in the body, called ossicles. The ossicles help transmit and amplify the vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The _____ is affixed to the tympanic membrane; it acts on the _____, which acts on the _____.

malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), stapes (stirrup)

The baseplate of the stapes rests in the _____ of the cochlea, which is the entrance to the inner ear.

oval window

The middle ear is connected to the nasal cavity via the _____, which helps equalize pressure between the middle ear and the environment.

Eustachian tube

The inner ear sits within a bony labyrinth and contains:

cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals

The cochlea, vestibule, and semicircular canals are continuous with each other and form the _____, which is filled with a potassium -rich fluid called _____.

membranous labyrinth, endolymph

The membranous labyrinth is suspended within the bony labyrinth by a thin layer of fluid called _____.


The _____ is a spiral-shaped organ divided into three parts called scalae.


The middle scala houses the actual hearing apparatus, called _____, which rests on a thin, flexible membrane called the basilar membrane.

the organ of Corti

On top of the organ of Corti is a relatively immobile membrane called the _____.

tectorial membrane

The organ of Corti is composed of thousands of hair cells, which are bathed in _____.


the _____, a membrane-covered hole in the cochlea, permits the perilymph to actually move within the cochlea.

round window

Like the rods and cones of the eye, the hair cells in the organ of Corti convert the physical stimulus into an electrical signal, which is carried to the central nervous system by the _____.

auditory (vestibulocochlear) nerve

The _____ refers to the portion of the bony labyrinth that contains the utricle and saccule, which are sensitive to linear acceleration, so are used as part of the balancing apparatus and to determine one’s orientation in three-dimensional space.


The utricle and saccule contain modified hair cells covered with _____. As the body accelerates, these _____ will resist that motion. This bends and stimulates the underlying hair cells, which send a signal to the brain.


While the utricle and saccule are sensitive to linear acceleration, the three _____ are sensitive to rotational acceleration . These are arranged perpendicularly to each other, and each ends in a swelling called an _____, where hair cells are located. When the head rotates, endolymph resists this motion, bending the underlying hair cells, which send a signal to the brain.

semicircular canals, ampulla

Most sound information passes through the vestibulocochlear nerve to the brainstem, where it ascends to the _____ of the thalamus.

medial geniculate nucleus (MGN)

From the medial geniculate nucleus (MGN), it projects to the _____ in the temporal lobe for sound processing. Some information is also sent to the _____, which localizes the sound, and the _____, which is involved in the startle reflex and helps keep the eyes fixed on a point while the head is turned (vestibulo– ocular reflex).

auditory cortex, superior olive, inferior colliculus

The_____ is for light; the _____ is for music.

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), medial geniculate nucleus (MGN)

_____ are located in olfactory epithelium in the upper part of the nasal cavity. Chemical stimuli must bind to their respective receptors to cause a signal.

Olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves)

Olfactory chemoreceptors (olfactory nerves) are activated, sending signals to the _____. These signals are then relayed via the _____ to higher regions of the brain, including the limbic system.

olfactory bulb, olfactory tract

Somatosensation is usually described as having four modalities:

pressure, vibration, pain, and temperature.

The 5 types of receptors that receive tactile information:

Pacinian corpuscles: respond to deep pressure and vibration, Meissner corpuscles: respond to light touch, Merkle discs: respond to deep pressure and texture, Ruffini endings: respond to stretch, and Free nerve endings: respond to pain and temperature

Somatosensory transduction occurs in the receptors, which send the signal to the central nervous system where it eventually travels to the _____ in the parietal lobe.

somatosensory cortex

A _____ refers to the minimum distance necessary between two points of stimulation on the skin such that the points will be felt as two distinct stimuli.

two-point threshold

Temperature is judged relative to _____, or the normal temperature of the skin (between 86 and 97 ° F). Thus, an object feels “cold” because it is under this; an object feels “warm” because it is above this.

physiological zero

Pain perception is part of the somatosensory system and can result from signals sent from a variety of sensory receptors, most commonly _____.


Kinesthetic sense is also called _____, and refers to the ability to tell where one’s body is in space. hand. The receptors for this are found mostly in muscle and joints, and play critical roles in hand– eye coordination, balance, and mobility.


Modern theories of object recognition assume at least two major types of psychological processing:

bottom-up processing and top-down processing.

_____ processing refers to object recognition by parallel processing and feature detection. Essentially, the brain takes the individual sensory stimuli and combines them together to create a cohesive image before determining what the object is.

Bottom-up (data-driven)

_____ processing is driven by memories and expectations that allow the brain to recognize the whole object and then recognize the components based on these expectations. In other words, this type of processing allows us to quickly recognize objects without needing to analyze their specific parts.

Top-down (conceptually driven)

_____ refers to the ability to use these bottom-up and top-down processes, in tandem with all of the other sensory clues about an object, to create a complete picture or idea.

Perceptual organization

_____ generally are ways for the brain to infer missing parts of a picture when a picture is incomplete.

Gestalt principles

The _____ says that elements close to one another tend to be perceived as a unit.

law of proximity

The _____ says that objects that are similar tend to be grouped together.

law of similarity

The _____ says that elements that appear to follow in the same pathway tend to be grouped together.

law of good continuation

The _____ says that when a space is enclosed by a contour it tends to be perceived as a complete figure and can also refers to the fact that certain figures tend to be perceived as more complete than they really are.

law of closure

Taken altogether, the Gestalt principles are governed by the _____, which says that perceptual organization will always be as regular, simple, and symmetric as possible.

law of prägnanz

Repeated exposure to the same stimulus can cause a decrease in response called _____. _____ is defined as the recovery of a response to a stimulus after the first concept has occurred.

habituation, Dishabituation

_____ is the creation of a pairing, or association, either between two stimuli or between a behavior and a response.

Associative learning

_____ is a type of associative learning that takes advantage of biological, instinctual responses to create associations between two unrelated stimuli.

Classical conditioning

Any stimulus that brings about an innate or reflexive response is called an _____, and the innate or reflexive response is called an _____.

unconditioned stimulus, unconditioned response

Many stimuli do not produce a reflexive response and are known as _____.

neutral stimuli

Classical conditioning, then, is the process of taking advantage of a reflexive, unconditioned stimulus to turn a neutral stimulus into a conditioned stimulus, which is also referred to as _____.


Whereas classical conditioning is concerned with instincts and biological responses, _____ links voluntary behaviors with consequences in an effort to alter the frequency of those behaviors.

operant conditioning

_____ is the process of increasing the likelihood that an individual will perform a behavior.


Reinforcers are divided into two categories. _____ increase a behavior by adding a positive consequence or incentive following the desired behavior. _____ act similarly in that they increase the frequency of a behavior, but they do so by removing something unpleasant.

Positive reinforcers, Negative reinforcers

Negative reinforcers can be subdivided into two categories, which differ in the timing of the unpleasant stimulus. Taking aspirin is an example of _____: the role of the behavior is to reduce the unpleasantness of something that already exists, like a headache. _____, on the other hand, is meant to prevent the unpleasantness of something that has yet to happen.

escape learning, avoidance learning

In contrast to reinforcement, _____ uses conditioning to reduce the occurrence of a behavior.


_____ adds an unpleasant consequence in response to a behavior to reduce that behavior while _____ is the reduction of a behavior when a stimulus is removed .

Positive punishment, Negative punishment

_____ reinforce a behavior after a specific number of performances of that behavior. _____ is a fixed-ratio schedule in which the behavior is rewarded every time it is performed.

Fixed-ratio (FR) schedules, Continuous reinforcement

_____ reinforce a behavior after a varying number of performances of the behavior, but such that the average number of performances to receive a reward is relatively constant.

Variable-ratio (VR) schedules

_____ reinforce the first instance of a behavior after a specified time period has elapsed.

Fixed-interval (FI) schedules

_____ reinforce a behavior the first time that behavior is performed after a varying interval of time.

Variable-interval (VI) schedules

Many organisms undergo _____; that is, learning that occurs without a reward but that is spontaneously demonstrated once a reward is introduced.

latent learning

These neurons are located in the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex and fire both when an individual performs an action and when that individual observes someone else performing that action.

Mirror neurons

_____ refers to the process of putting new information into memory.


There are a few different ways that we encode the meaning of information that requires controlled processing . We can visualize it (_____), store the way it sounds (_____), or put it into a meaningful context (_____).

visual encoding, acoustic encoding, semantic encoding

We tend to recall information best when we can put it into the context of our own lives, a phenomenon called the _____.

self-reference effect

_____ is the repetition of a piece of information to either keep it within working memory (to prevent forgetting) or to store it in short-term and eventually long-term memory.

maintenance rehearsal

The _____ involves associating each item in the list with a location along a route through a building that has already been memorized.

method of loci

the _____ associates numbers with items that rhyme with or resemble the numbers.

peg-word system

_____ ( sometimes referred to as clustering) is a memory trick that involves taking individual elements of a large list and grouping them together into groups of elements with related meaning.


The first and most fleeting kind of memory storage is _____, which consists of both iconic ( visual ) and echoic (auditory) memory. This type of memory lasts only a very short time (generally under one second), but within that time our eyes and ears take in an incredibly detailed representation of our surroundings that we can recall with amazing precision.

sensory memory

Similar to sensory memory, _____ fades quickly, but over the course of approximately 30 seconds without rehearsal. In addition to having a limited duration, short-term memories are also limited in capacity to approximately seven items, usually stated as the 7 ± 2 rule.

short-term memory

_____ is closely related to short-term memory. It enables us to keep a few pieces of information in our consciousness simultaneously and to manipulate that information. To do this, one must integrate short-term memory, attention, and executive function. This is the form of memory that allows us to do simple math in our heads.

Working memory

Unlike maintenance rehearsal, which is simply a way of keeping the information at the forefront of consciousness, _____ is the association of the information to knowledge already stored in long-term memory.

elaborative rehearsal

There are two types of long-term memory. _____ consists of our skills and conditioned responses. _____ consists of those memories that require conscious recall.

Implicit (nondeclarative or procedural) memory, Explicit (declarative) memory

Explicit memory can be further divided into _____ and _____.

semantic memory (the facts that we know) and episodic memory (our experiences)

_____ is the name given to the process of demonstrating that something that has been learned has been retained.


_____, the process of merely identifying a piece of information that was previously learned, is far easier than recall.


Through additional research, Ebbinghaus discovered that the longer the amount of time between sessions of relearning, the greater the retention of the information later on. Ebbinghaus dubbed this phenomenon the _____.

spacing effect

Psychologists think of memory not as simply a stockpile of unrelated facts, but rather as a network of interconnected ideas called a _____.

semantic network

When one node of our semantic network is activated, such as seeing the word red on a sign, the other linked concepts around it are also unconsciously activated, a process known as _____.

spreading activation

Spreading activation is at the heart of a retrieval cue known as _____, in which recall is aided by first being presented with a word or phrase that is close to the desired semantic memory.


The concept that the specific location where information is learned can help in the recollection of a memory.

context effect

A person’s mental state can also affect recall. This retrieval cue is called _____.

state-dependent memory

There are several disorders that can lead to decline in memory. The most common is _____, which is a degenerative brain disorder thought to be linked to a loss of acetylcholine in neurons that link to the hippocampus. It tends to proceed in a retrograde fashion, with loss of recent memories before distant memories.

Alzheimer’s disease

_____ is another form of memory loss caused by thiamine deficiency in the brain. The disorder is marked by both retrograde amnesia (the loss of previously formed memories) and anterograde amnesia (the inability to form new memories ). Another common symptom is confabulation, or the process of creating vivid but fabricated memories , typically thought to be an attempt made by the brain to fill in the gaps of missing memories.

Korsakoff’s syndrome

_____ is the loss of the ability to recognize objects, people, or sounds , though usually only one of the three. It is usually caused by physical damage to the brain, such as that caused by a stroke or a neurological disorder such as multiple sclerosis.


A common reason for memory loss is _____, a retrieval error caused by the existence of other (usually similar) information. It can be classified by its direction. When we experience _____, old information is interfering with new learning. _____ is when new information causes forgetting of old information.

interference, proactive interference, Retroactive interference

_____ (remembering to perform a task at some point in the future) remains mostly intact when it is event-based —that is, primed by a trigger event, such as remembering to buy milk when walking past the grocery store. On the other hand, when it is time-based, such as remembering to take a medication every day at 7: 00 a.m., does tend to decline with age.

Prospective memory

_____ is another memory construction error involving confusion between semantic and episodic memory : a person remembers the details of an event, but confuses the context under which those details were gained.

Source amnesia

As a stimulus is repeated, the stimulated neurons become more efficient at releasing their neurotransmitters and at the same time receptor sites on the other side of the synapse increase, increasing receptor density. This strengthening is known as _____, and is believed to be the neurophysiological basis of long-term memory.

long-term potentiation

The study of _____ looks at how our brains process and react to the incredible information overload presented to us by the world.


The_____ has four key components, or pillars: 1)Thinking requires sensation, encoding, and storage of stimuli 2) Stimuli must be analyzed by the brain (rather than responded to automatically) to be useful in decision-making 3) Decisions made in one situation can be extrapolated and adjusted to help solve new problems (also called situational modification) 4) Problem-solving is dependent not only on the person’s cognitive level, but also on the context and complexity of the problem

information processing model

_____ is the development of one’s ability to think and solve problems across the lifespan.

Cognitive development

He was one of the most influential figures in developmental psychology. He insisted that there are qualitative differences between the way that children and adults think, and thus divided the lifespan into four stages of cognitive development.

Jean Piaget

The four stages of cognitive development:

sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational.

As infants use their reflexes to experience the world around them, they develop organized patterns of behavior and thought called _____.


Piaget theorized that new information is processed via _____.


Adaptation (the processing of new information) to information comes about by two complementary processes: _____ and _____. The former is the process of classifying new information into existing schemata. If the new information does not fit neatly into existing schemata, then the latter occurs. The latter is the process by which existing schemata are modified to encompass this new information.

assimilation and accommodation

The first of Piaget's developmental stages is the _____, starting at birth and lasting until about two years of age. In this stage, a child learns to manipulate his or her environment in order to meet physical needs.

sensorimotor stage

The key milestone that ends the sensorimotor stage is the development of _____, which is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when out of view.

object permanence

Object permanence marks the beginning of _____, in which the child has begun to create mental representations of external objects and events.

representational thought

Piaget's second developmental stage is the _____, which lasts from about two to seven years of age, and is characterized by symbolic thinking , egocentrism, and centration.

preoperational stage

_____ refers to the ability to pretend, play make-believe, and have an imagination.

Symbolic thinking

_____ refers to the inability to imagine what another person may think or feel.


_____ is the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a phenomenon , or inability to understand the concept of conservation.


The third of Piaget's developmental stages is the _____, which lasts from about 7 to 11 years of age. In this stage, children can understand conservation and consider the perspectives of others. Additionally, they are able to engage in logical thought as long as they are working with concrete objects or information that is directly available. These children have not yet developed the ability to think abstractly.

concrete operational stage

Piaget's 4th and final developmental stage is the _____, which starts around 11 years of age , and is marked by the ability to think logically about abstract ideas. Generally coinciding with adolescence, this stage is marked by the ability to reason about abstract concepts and problem-solve.Kaplan (2014-09-09). Kaplan MCAT Behavioral Sciences Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep) (Kindle Locations 2707-2708). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.

formal operational stage

He proposed that the engine driving cognitive development is the child’s internalization of her culture, including interpersonal and societal rules, symbols, and language. As a child develops, her skills and abilities are still in formative stages. With help from adults or other children, those skills can develop further.

Lev Vygotsky

There are two subtypes of intelligence: _____ and _____. The former consists of problem-solving skills, while the latter is more related to use of learned skills and knowledge. Fluid intelligence was shown to peak in early adulthood , while crystallized intelligence peaked in middle adulthood.Kaplan (2014-09-09). Kaplan MCAT Behavioral Sciences Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep) (Kindle Locations 2732-2734). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.

Fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence

Kaplan (2014-09-09). Kaplan MCAT Behavioral Sciences Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep) (Kindle Locations 2720-2723). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.

Kaplan (2014-09-09). Kaplan MCAT Behavioral Sciences Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep) (Kindle Location 2720). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.

_____ starts from a set of general rules and draws conclusions from the information given. An example of this is a logic puzzle. In these puzzles, one has to synthesize a list of logical rules to come up with the single possible solution to the problem.

Deductive (top-down) reasoning

_____ seeks to create a theory via generalizations. This type of reasoning starts with specific instances, and then draws a conclusion from them.

Inductive (bottom-up) reasoning

_____ are simplified principles used to make decisions; they are colloquially called rules of thumb.


The _____ is used when we try to decide how likely something is. When we use this heuristic, we make our decisions based on how easily similar instances can be imagined .

availability heuristic

The _____ involves categorizing items on the basis of whether they fit the prototypical, stereotypical, or representative image of the category.

representativeness heuristic

Using prototypical or stereotypical factors while ignoring actual numerical information is called the _____.

base rate fallacy

Howard Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences is one of the most all-encompassing definitions, with seven defined types of intelligence:

linguistic, logical– mathematical, musical, visual–spatial, bodily– kinesthetic, interpersonal, and intrapersonal .

_____ is one’s level of awareness of both the world and one’s own existence within that world.


In an EEG,_____ waves have a high frequency and occur when the person is alert or attending to a mental task that requires concentration, and they occur when neurons are randomly firing . _____ waves occur when we are awake but relaxing with our eyes closed, and are somewhat slower than the former waves. The latter waves are also more synchronized than former waves.

Beta, Alpha

As soon as you doze off, you enter _____ sleep, which is detected on the EEG by the appearance of _____ waves.

Stage 1, theta

As you fall more deeply asleep, you enter _____ sleep. The EEG shows _____ waves along with _____ and _____.

Stage 2, theta, sleep spindles and K complexes

As you fall even more deeply asleep, you enter Stages _____, also known as _____. EEG activity grows progressively slower until only a few sleep waves per second are seen. These low-frequency, high-voltage sleep waves are called _____ waves. During these stages, it becomes especially difficult to rouse someone from sleep . SWS has been associated with cognitive recovery and memory consolidation, as well as increased growth hormone release.

3 and 4, slow-wave sleep (SWS), delta

In _____ sleep, arousal levels reach that of wakefulness, but the muscles are paralyzed. It is also called paradoxical sleep because one’s heart rate, breathing patterns, and EEG mimic wakefulness , but the individual is still asleep. This is the stage in which dreaming is most likely to occur and is also associated with memory consolidation.

rapid eye movement (REM)

A _____ refers to a single complete progression through the sleep stages.

sleep cycle

_____, a steroid hormone produced in the _____, is also related to the sleep– wake cycle. Its levels slowly increase during early morning because increasing light causes the release of _____ from the hypothalamus. CRF causes release of _____ from the anterior pituitary, which stimulates cortisol release.

Cortisol, adrenal cortex, corticotropin releasing factor (CRF), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

_____ refer to disorders that make it difficult to fall asleep, stay asleep , or avoid sleep, and include insomnia, narcolepsy, and sleep apnea. _____ are abnormal movements or behaviors during sleep, and include night terrors and sleepwalking. Most sleep disorders occur during NREM sleep.

Dyssomnias, Parasomnias

The symptoms of narcolepsy are unique, and include _____, a loss of muscle control and sudden intrusion of REM sleep during waking hours, usually caused by an emotional trigger;_____, a sensation of being unable to move despite being awake; and hallucinations, which are hallucinations when going to sleep or awakening.

cataplexy, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic and hypnopompic

_____, which are most common in children, are periods of intense anxiety that occur during slow-wave sleep.

Night terrors

_____, usually occurs during SWS. Sufferers may eat , talk, have sexual intercourse , or even drive great distances while sleeping with absolutely no recollection of the event.

Sleepwalking, or somnambulism

_____ can be defined as a state in which a person appears to be in control of his or her normal functions, but is in a highly suggestible state.


_____ reduce nervous system activity, resulting in a sense of relaxation and reduced anxiety.


_____, caused by a deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B 1 ) and characterized by severe memory impairment with changes in mental status and loss of motor skills.

Wernicke– Korsakoff Syndrome

_____ were historically used as anxiety-reducing (anxiolytic) and sleep medications, but have mostly been replaced by benzodiazepines, which are less prone to overdose. These include amobarbital and phenobarbital; benzodiazepines include alprazolam, lorazepam, diazepam, and clonazepam. These drugs also increase GABA activity, causing a sense of relaxation. However, both of these drugs can be highly addictive.


_____ cause an increase in arousal in the nervous system. Each drug increases the frequency of action potentials, but does so by different mechanisms.


_____ cause increased arousal by increasing release of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin at the synapse and decreasing their reuptake. This increases arousal and causes a reduction in appetite and decreased need for sleep. Physiological effects include an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Psychological effects include euphoria, hypervigilance (being “on edge”), anxiety, delusions of grandeur, and paranoia.


_____ decreases reuptake of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin, although by a different mechanism. The effects of cocaine intoxication and withdrawal are therefore similar to amphetamines. This drug also has anesthetic and vasoconstrictive properties, and is therefore sometimes used in surgeries in highly vascularized areas, such as the nose and throat. These vasoconstrictive properties can also lead to heart attacks and strokes when used recreationally. _____ is a form of cocaine that can be smoked. With quick and potent effects, this drug is highly addictive.

Cocaine, Crack

Naturally occurring forms of this drug include morphine and codeine. Semisynthetic derivatives, called _____ include oxycodone, hydrocodone, and heroin. These compounds bind to specific receptors in the peripheral and central nervous system, causing a decreased reaction to pain and a sense of euphoria.

Opiates, opioids

_____, or diacetylmorphine, was originally created as a substitute for morphine. However, once injected, the body rapidly metabolizes it to morphine. Usually smoked or injected, it was once the most widely abused opioid; however, this designation has shifted to prescription opioids like oxycodone and hydrocodone.


_____ include drugs such as lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), peyote, mescaline, ketamine, and psilocybin-containing mushrooms. The exact mechanism of most of these drugs is unknown, but is thought to be a complex interaction between various neurotransmitters, especially serotonin. These drugs typically cause distortions of reality and fantasy, enhancement of sensory experiences, and introspection. Physiologic effects include increased heart rate and blood pressure, dilation of pupils, sweating, and increased body temperature.Kaplan (2014-09-09). Kaplan MCAT Behavioral Sciences Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep) (Kindle Locations 3117-3119). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.


Drug addiction is highly related to the _____, one of four dopaminergic pathways in the brain. This pathway includes the_____, the _____, and the connection between them called the _____. This pathway is normally involved in motivation and emotional response, and its activation accounts for the positive reinforcement of substance use. This addiction pathway is activated by all substances that produce psychological dependence.

mesolimbic reward pathway, nucleus accumbens (NAc), the ventral tegmental area (VTA), and the connection between them called the medial forebrain bundle (MFB).

_____ is focusing on one part of the sensorium while ignoring other stimuli.

Selective attention

You are at a party, talking with a friend. However, your ears perk up when you hear your name spoken halfway across the room. Even though you were engaged in conversation and presumably paying attention, you were able to perceive your name being mentioned. This is sometimes called the _____ and is evidence of a different interpretation of selective attention.

cocktail party phenomenon

_____ is the ability to perform multiple tasks at the same time. Most new or complex tasks require undivided attention, and utilize _____. In contrast, familiar or routine actions can be performed with _____, which permits the brain to focus on other tasks with divided attention.

Divided attention, controlled (effortful) processing, automatic processing

_____ refers to the structure of words. Many words are composed of multiple building blocks called morphemes, each of which connotes a particular meaning.


_____ refers to the association of meaning with a word.


_____ refers to how words are put together to form sentences.


_____ refers to the dependence of language on context and pre-existing knowledge. In other words, the manner in which we speak may differ depending on the audience and our relationship to that audience.


_____ is the rhythm, cadence, and inflection of our voices.


The _____, largely credited to linguist Noam Chomsky, advocates for the existence of some innate capacity for language. Chomsky is known for his study of _____. He focused on syntactic transformations, or changes in word order that retain the same meaning. Chomsky noted that children learn to make such transformations effortlessly at an early age. He therefore concluded that this ability must be innate. In this theory, this innate ability is called the _____, a theoretical pathway in the brain that allows infants to process and absorb language rules.

nativist (biological) theory, transformational grammar, language acquisition device (LAD)

Nativists believe in a _____ for language acquisition between two years and puberty. If no language exposure occurs during this time, later training is largely ineffective.

critical period

A _____ is a time when environmental input has maximal effect on the development of an ability. Most psychologists consider this period for language development to be before the onset of puberty.

sensitive period

The _____, proposed by B. F. Skinner, explained language acquisition by operant conditioning. Very young babies are capable of distinguishing between phonemes of all human languages, but by six months of age, show a strong preference for phonemes in the language spoken by their parents. Skinner explained language acquisition by reinforcement. That is, parents and caregivers repeat and reinforce sounds that sound most like the language spoken by the parents. Thus, over time, the infant perceives that certain sounds have little value and are not reinforced, while other sounds have value and are reliably reinforced by parents and caregivers.

learning (behaviorist) theory

Psycholinguistics has long focused on the relationship between language and thinking. Linguist Benjamin Whorf proposed the _____, also called the _____, which suggests that our perception of reality— the way we think about the world— is determined by the content of language.

Whorfian hypothesis, linguistic relativity hypothesis

_____, located in the inferior frontal gyrus of the frontal lobe, controls the motor function of speech via connections with the motor cortex.

Broca’s area

_____, located in the superior temporal gyrus of the temporal lobe, is responsible for language comprehension.

Wernicke’s area

Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area are connected by the _____, a bundle of axons that allows appropriate association between language comprehension and speech production.

arcuate fasciculus

_____ is a deficit of language production or comprehension.


When damage occurs to Broca’s area, speech comprehension is intact but the patient will have a reduced or absent ability to produce spoken language. This is known as _____.

Broca’s (expressive) aphasia

When Wernicke’s area is damaged, motor production and fluency of speech is retained but comprehension of speech is lost. This is known as _____. Because speech comprehension is lost, these patients speak nonsensical sounds and inappropriate word combinations devoid of meaning. Patients

Wernicke’s (receptive) aphasia

If the arcuate fasciculus is affected, the resulting aphasia is known as _____. Because Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are unaffected, speech production and comprehension are intact. However, the patient is unable to repeat something that has been said because the connection between these two regions has been lost.

conduction aphasia

Additionally, the _____ postulates a U-shaped function between the level of arousal and performance. This law states that performance is worst at extremely high and low levels of arousal and optimal at some intermediate level.

Yerkes–Dodson law

Abraham Maslow observed that certain needs will yield a greater influence on our motivation and established what is referred to as _____.

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

The first four levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs pyramid correspond to physiological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, and self-esteem. The highest level of the pyramid corresponds to _____, or the need to realize one’s fullest potential .


Another need-based motivational theory is the _____. This theory emphasizes the role of three universal needs: _____, the need to be in control of one’s actions and ideas; _____ , the need to complete and excel at difficult tasks; and _____, the need to feel accepted and wanted in relationships . Theorists explain that these three needs must be met in order to develop healthy relationships with oneself and others.

self-determination theory (SDT), autonomy, competence, relatedness

_____ explains that behavior is motivated not by need or arousal, but by the desire to pursue rewards and to avoid punishments.

Incentive theory

_____ states that the amount of motivation needed to reach a goal is the result of both the individual’s expectation of success in reaching the goal and the degree to which she values succeeding at the goal.

Expectancy– value theory

This theory explains that when a drug is taken repeatedly, the body will attempt to counteract the effects of the drug by changing its physiology. The problem with this reaction is that it will last longer than the drug, resulting in withdrawal symptoms that are exactly opposite the effects of alcohol: sensations of anxiety, jitteriness, and irritability. The withdrawal created by this mechanism can create a physical dependence on the drug.

opponent-process theory

There are three elements of an emotion:

the physiological response, the behavioral response, and the cognitive response.

According to this theory, a stimulus results first in physiological arousal, which leads to a secondary response in which the emotion is labeled. James believed that when peripheral organs receive information and respond, that response is then labeled as an emotion by the brain.

James– Lange theory of emotion

This theory hypothesized that physiological arousal and feeling an emotion occur at the same time, not in sequence. Thus, severing the feedback should not alter the emotion experienced. In this theory, a person will respond with action after experiencing the emotion both mentally and physically.

Cannon– Bard theory of emotion

This theory of emotion states that the cognitive and physiological components of emotion occur simultaneously and result in the behavioral component of emotion , or action.

the Cannon– Bard theory

This theory of emotion, also termed the cognitive arousal theory or the two-factor theory. It states that both arousal and the labeling of arousal based on environment must occur in order for an emotion to be experienced. What is unique to this theory is this aspect of cognitive appraisal: to feel an emotion, one must consciously analyze the environment in relation to nervous system arousal.

the Schachter– Singer theory

Experiencing emotion is a complex process involving many parts of the brain. The most notable of these circuits is the _____, a complex set of structures that reside below the cerebrum on either side of the thalamus.

limbic system

The limbic system is made up of:

the amygdala, thalamus , hypothalamus, hippocampus and fornix, septal nuclei, and parts of the cerebral cortex;

The _____ is a small round structure that signals the cortex about stimuli related to attention and emotions. The amygdala processes the environment, detects external cues, and learns from the person’s surroundings in order to produce emotion. This region associated with fear and also plays a role in human emotion through interpretation of facial expressions. Controls the implicit memory system.


The _____ functions as a preliminary sensory processing station and routes information to the cortex and other appropriate areas of the brain.


The _____ synthesizes and releases a variety of neurotransmitters. It serves many homeostatic functions, and is involved in modulating emotion.


The _____, within the temporal lobe, is primarily involved in creating long -term memories. Along with the functions of the amygdala and hypothalamus, the storage and retrieval of emotional memories is key in producing an emotional response. It also aids in creating context for stimuli to lead to an emotional experience. Controls the explicit memory system.


The _____ is the anterior portion of the frontal lobes and is associated with planning intricate cognitive functions, expressing personality, and making decisions. It also receives arousal input from the brainstem, coordinating arousal and cognitive states. It has been demonstrated that the left portion is associated with positive emotions and the right portion with negative emotions.

prefrontal cortex

The _____ is associated with attention and cognition, while the _____ connects with regions of the brain responsible for experiencing emotion. Specifically , the _____ is thought to play a substantial role in decision-making and controlling emotional responses from the amygdala.

dorsal prefrontal cortex, ventral prefrontal cortex, ventromedial prefrontal cortex

_____ is the subjective evaluation of a situation that induces stress.

Cognitive appraisal

Cognitive appraisal consists of two stages:

Primary (Stage 1) and secondary (Stage 2) appraisal

_____, is the initial evaluation of the environment and the associated threat. This appraisal can be identified as irrelevant, benign– positive, or stressful. If it reveals a threat, stage 2 appraisal begins.

Stage 1, or primary appraisal

_____ is directed at evaluating whether the organism can cope with the stress. This appraisal involves the evaluation of three things: _____, or damage caused by the event; _____, or the potential for future damage caused by the event; and ______, or the potential to overcome and possibly benefit from the event. Individuals who perceive themselves as having the ability to cope with the event experience less stress than those who don’t. In

Secondary appraisal, harm, threat, and challenge

Stress level can be measured in “life change units” in a system called the _____.

social readjustment rating scale

The "fight or glight" sequence of physiological responses is called the _____ and consists of three distinct stages:

general adaptation syndrome, alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

The first stage of general adaptation syndrome is _____. The initial reaction to a stressor and the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Shortly thereafter, the hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). This hormone stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol, which maintains the steady supply of blood sugar needed to respond to stressful events. The hypothalamus also activates the adrenal medulla, which secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine to activate the sympathetic nervous system.


The second stage of general adaptation syndrome is _____, in which the continuous release of hormones allows the sympathetic nervous system to remain engaged to fight the stressor.


The third and final stage of general adaptation syndrome is _____. In this stage a person will experience difficulty when the body can no longer maintain an elevated response with sympathetic nervous system activity. At this point, individuals become more susceptible to illnesses and medical conditions (such as ulcers and high blood pressure), organ systems can begin to deteriorate (including heart disease), and in extreme cases, death can result.


A self-given label that carries with it a set of qualities.


The individual components of our self-concept related to the groups to which we belong.


This describes a person’s appraisal of him- or herself on scales of masculinity and femininity.

Gender identity

_____ is defined as the state of being simultaneously very masculine and very feminine, while those who achieve low scores on both scales are referred to as _____.

Androgyny, undifferentiated

_____ refers to one’s ethnic group, in which members typically share a common ancestry, cultural heritage, and language.

Ethnic identity

It is believed that our identities are organized according to a_____, such that we let the situation dictate which identity holds the most importance for us at any given moment.

hierarchy of salience

_____ maintains that each of us has three selves. Our self-concept makes up our _____, the way we see ourselves as we currently are. Our _____ is the person we would like to be, and our _____ is our representation of the way others think we should be. Generally , the closer these three selves are to one another, the higher our self-esteem or self-worth will be.

Self-discrepancy theory, actual self, ideal self, ought self

_____ is our belief in our ability to succeed.


_____ refers to the way we characterize the influences in our lives. People with an internal one view themselves of controlling their own fate, whereas those with an external one feel that the events in their lives are caused by luck or outside influences.

Locus of control

_____ occurs when a child is overindulged or overly frustrated during a stage of development. In response to the anxiety, the child forms a personality pattern based on that particular stage, which persists into adulthood as a functional mental disorder known as a neurosis.


The stages of psychosocial development:

1: Oral (0-1) 2: Anal (1-3) 3: phallic / oedipal (3-5) 4: latency (5-12) 5: genital (12+)

Erik Erikson’s stages of personality development:

trust vs. mistrust ( 0 to 1 year), autonomy vs. shame and doubt (1 to 3 years), initiative vs. guilt (3 to 6 years), industry vs. inferiority (6 to 12 years), identity vs. role confusion (12 to 20 years), intimacy vs. isolation (20 to 40 years), generativity vs. stagnation (40 to 65 years), integrity vs. despair (65+)

During Erikson's Stages of personality development, this conflict determines whether the child will come to trust his environment as well as himself or if the child will often be suspicious of the world, possibly throughout his life.

trust vs. mistrust ( 0 to 1 year).

During Erikson's Stages of personality development, this conflict determines whether the child is feels able to exert control over the world and to exercise choice as well as self-restraint or feels a sense of doubt and a persistent external locus of control.

autonomy vs. shame and doubt (1 to 3 years).

During Erikson's Stages of personality development, this conflict determines whether the child feels a sense of purpose, the ability to initiate activities, and the ability to enjoy accomplishment; or if the child will be so overcome by the fear of punishment that the child may either unduly restrict himself, or may overcompensate by showing off.

initiative vs. guilt (3 to 6 years).

During Erikson's Stages of personality development, this conflict determines whether the child will feel competent, be able to exercise his or her abilities and intelligence in the world, and be able to affect the world in the way that the child desires; or feels a sense of inadequacy, a sense of inability to act in a competent manner, and low self-esteem.

industry vs. inferiority (6 to 12 years)

During Erikson's Stages of personality development, this conflict determines whether a person feels he has the ability to see oneself as a unique and integrated person with sustained loyalties, or he develops confusion about one’s identity and an amorphous personality that shifts from day to day.

identity vs. role confusion (12 to 20 years)

During Erikson's Stages of personality development, this conflict determines whether they have the ability to have intimate relationships with others, and the ability to commit oneself to another person and to one’s own goals; or if there will be an avoidance of commitment, alienation, and distancing of oneself from others and one’s ideals.Kaplan (2014-09-09). Kaplan MCAT Behavioral Sciences Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep) (Kindle Locations 4459-4461). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.

intimacy vs. isolation (20 to 40 years)

During Erikson's Stages of personality development, this conflict determines whether an individual feels he is capable of being a productive, caring, and contributing member of society; or he acquires a sense of stagnation and may become self-indulgent, bored, and self-centered with little care for others.Kaplan (2014-09-09). Kaplan MCAT Behavioral Sciences Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep) (Kindle Locations 4463-4464). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.

generativity vs. stagnation (40 to 65 years)

During Erikson's Stages of personality development, this conflict determines whether we will see wisdom with assurance in the meaning of life, dignity, and an acceptance of the fact that one’s life has been worthwhile, along with a readiness to face death; or he feels feelings of bitterness about one’s life , a feeling that life has been worthless, and at the same time, fear over one’s own impending death.

integrity vs. despair (65+)

His theory of personality development focuses not on resolving conflicts or urges, but rather on the development of moral thinking. As our cognitive abilities grow, we are able to think about the world in more complex and nuanced ways, and this directly affects the ways in which we resolve moral dilemmas and perceive the notion of right and wrong.

Lawrence Kohlberg

What are the phases and stages of Kohlberg's moral reasoning theory?

Preconventional morality (obedience, self-interest), conventional morality (conformity, law and order), postconventional morality (social contract, universal human ethics)

In Kohlberg's first phase of moral reasoning called _____, stage one (_____) is concerned with avoiding punishment, while stage two (_____) is about gaining rewards. Stage two is often called the _____ because it is based on the concepts of reciprocity and sharing.

Preconventional moralilty: obedience, self-interest (instrumental relativist stage)

In Kohlberg's second phase of moral reasoning called _____, Stage three (_____) places emphasis on the “good boy, nice girl” orientation in which a person seeks the approval of others. Stage four (_____) maintains the social order in the highest regard.

Conventional morality: conformity, law and order

In Kohlberg's second phase of moral reasoning called _____, Stage five (_____) views moral rules as conventions that are designed to ensure the greater good, with reasoning focused on individual rights. Stage six (_____) reasons that decisions should be made in consideration of abstract principles.Kaplan (2014-09-09). Kaplan MCAT Behavioral Sciences Review: Created for MCAT 2015 (Kaplan Test Prep) (Kindle Locations 4505-4508). Kaplan Publishing. Kindle Edition.

Postconvetional morality: social contract, universal human ethics

His work was focused on understanding cognitive development. For him, the engine driving cognitive development was the child’s internalization of various aspects of the culture: rules, symbols, language, and so on. As the child internalized these various interpersonal and cultural rules, her cognitive activity developed accordingly.

Lev Vygotsky

Vygotsky's definition of those skills and abilities that have not yet fully developed but are in the process of development. Gaining these skills successfully requires the help of a more knowledgeable other, typically an adult.

zone of proximal development

The ability to sense how another’s mind works— for example, understanding how a friend is interpreting a story while you tell it— is referred to as _____.

theory of mind

_____ describes the set of thoughts, feelings , traits and behaviors which are characteristic of an individual across time and different locations.


We can categorize theories of personality into four areas:

psychoanalytic (psychodynamic), humanistic (phenomenological), type and trait, and behaviorist.

_____ theories of personality contain some of the most widely varying perspectives on behavior, but they all have in common the assumption of unconscious internal states that motivate the overt actions of individuals and determine personality. The most noteworthy supporter of the psychoanalytic theory is Freud.

psychoanalytic or psychodynamic

The _____ consists of all the basic, primal, inborn urges to survive and reproduce. It functions according to the pleasure principle, in which the aim is to achieve immediate gratification to relieve any pent-up tension. The _____ is the id’s response to frustration: obtain satisfaction now, not later. Mental imagery, such as daydreaming or fantasy, that fulfills this need for satisfaction is termed _____.

id, primary process, wish fulfillment

The _____ operates according to the _____, taking into account objective reality as it guides or inhibits the activity of the id and the id’s pleasure principle. This guidance is referred to as the _____. The aim of this principle is to postpone the pleasure principle until satisfaction can actually be obtained.

ego, reality principle, secondary process

The _____ is also responsible for moderating the desires of the superego. Whereas the id’s desires are basic needs, those of the superego are refined and focused on the ideal self.


The _____ is the personality’s perfectionist, judging our actions and responding with pride at our accomplishments and guilt at our failures. It can be divided into two subsystems, both of which are a reflection of the morals taught to a child by his caregivers. The _____ is a collection of the improper actions for which a child is punished, and the _____ consists of those proper actions for which a child is rewarded.

superego, conscience, ego-ideal

Freud also stated that our access to the id, ego, and superego falls into three main categories: thoughts to which we have _____ access , thoughts that we aren’t currently aware of (_____), and thoughts that have been repressed (_____).

conscious, preconscious, unconscious

To Freud, an _____ is an innate psychological representation of a biological need. They fall into two types: ____ and _____.

instinct, life and death

The ego’s recourse for relieving anxiety caused by the clash of the id and superego is through _____. They have two common characteristics: first, they _____; second, they _____.

defense mechanisms, destort reality, operate unconsciously

There are eight main defense mechanisms:

repression, suppression, regression, reaction formation , projection, rationalization, displacement, and sublimation.

_____ is the ego’s way of forcing undesired thoughts and urges to the unconscious, and underlies many of the other defense mechanisms, the aim of which is to disguise threatening impulses that may find their way back from the unconscious.


While repression is mostly an unconscious forgetting, this defense mechanism is a more deliberate, conscious form of forgetting.


______ is a defense mechanism resulting in reversion to an earlier developmental state.


When individuals suppress urges by unconsciously converting them into their exact opposites, they are taking advantage of this defense mechanism.

reaction formation

_____ is the defense mechanism by which individuals attribute their undesired feelings to others.


_____ test relies on the assumption that the client projects his unconscious feelings onto the shape.

Rorschach inkblot

the _____ Test consists of a series of pictures that are presented to the client, who is asked to make up a story about each one. The story, presumably, will elucidate the client’s own unconscious thoughts and feelings.

Thematic Apperception

_____ is a defense mechanism resulting in the justification of behaviors in a manner that is acceptable to the self and society.


_____ is a defense mechanism that describes the transference of an undesired urge from one person or object to another.


_____ is a defense mechanism resulting in the transformation of unacceptable urges into socially acceptable behaviors.


Carl Jung identified the ego as the conscious mind, and he divided the unconscious into two parts: the _____ and the _____.

personal unconscious, collective unconscious

_____ are underlying forms or concepts which give rise to archetypal images, which may differ somewhat between cultures.


The _____ is a Jungian archetype which is likened to a mask that we wear in public, and is the part of our personality that we present to the world. Jung describedthis as adaptive to our social interactions, emphasizing those qualities that improve our social standing and suppressing our other, less desirable qualities.


The Jungian archetype of _____ describe sex-inappropriate qualities— in other words, feminine behaviors in males and masculine behaviors in females.

anima (feminine) and the animus (masculine)

The _____ Jungian archetype is responsible for the appearance of unpleasant and socially reprehensible thoughts , feelings , and actions in our consciousness.


The _____, to Jung , was the point of intersection between the collective unconscious, the personal unconscious, and the conscious mind. It strives for unity.


Jung saw the self as a _____: the promoter of unity, balance, and harmony between the conscious mind, personal unconscious, and


Jung described three dichotomies of personality:

Extraversion vs. introversion, Sensing vs. intuiting, Thinking vs. feeling (judging vs percieving was added by Myers-Briggs)

Alfred Adler was the originator of the concept of the _____: an individual’s sense of incompleteness, imperfection, and inferiority both physically and socially.

inferiority complex

Adler's theory of the _____ is the force by which each individual shapes his uniqueness and establishes his personality. _____ represents the manifestation of the creative self and describes a person’s unique way of achieving superiority.

creative self, Style of life

_____ is the notion that an individual is motivated more by his expectations of the future than by past experiences. According to Adler, human goals are based on the subjective or fictional estimate of life’s values rather than objective data from the past.

fictional finalism

_____ major assumption is that behavior is motivated by inborn instincts and _____ principal axiom is that a person’s conduct is governed by inborn archetypes, _____ assumes that people are primarily motivated by striving for superiority.

Freud’s, Jung’s, Adler

Horney postulated that individuals with neurotic personalities are governed by one of ten _____.

neurotic needs

Horney’s primary concept is based on the premise that a child’s early perception of the self is important and stems from a child’s relationship with her parents. Inadequate parenting can cause vulnerability and helplessness, which Horney termed _____, while neglect and rejection cause anger known as _____.

basic anxiety, basic hostility

To overcome basic anxiety or basic hostility and attain a degree of security, the child uses three strategies in her relationships with others:

moving toward people to obtain the goodwill of people who provide security; moving against people, or fighting them to obtain the upper hand; and moving away, or withdrawing, from people.

In direct contrast to the psychoanalysts, who focus on “sick” individuals and their troubling urges, _____ focus on the value of individuals and take a more person-centered approach, describing those ways in which healthy people strive toward self-realization.

humanistic or phenomenological theorists

Kurt Lewin’s _____ theory put very little stock in constraints on personalities such as fixed traits, habits, or structures such as the id, ego , and superego.

force field

If the focus of humanistic psychology is exploring how an individual reaches self-realization, then these forces could be divided into two large groups:

those assisting in our attainment of goals, and those blocking the path to them.

According to Maslow, self-actualized people are more likely than people who are not self-actualized to have what he called _____: profound and deeply moving experiences in a person’s life which have important and lasting effects on the individual.

peak experiences

_____ used himself as a model to theorize about human nature, and set aside the traditional concepts of motivation, unconscious emotion, and reinforcement in his descriptions of personal construct psychology.

George Kelly

A person who devises and tests predictions about the behavior of significant people in her life. The individual constructs a scheme of anticipation of what others will do, based on her knowledge, perception, and relationships with these other people.

personal construct psychology

Carl Rogers is most known for his psychotherapy technique known as _____.

client-centered, person-centered, or nondirective therapy

Carl Rogers pioneered the concept of _____, a therapeutic technique by which the therapist accepts the client completely and expresses empathy in order to promote a positive therapeutic environment.

unconditional positive regard

_____ theorists attempt to create a taxonomy of personality types, while _____ theorists prefer to describe individual personality as the sum of a person’s characteristic behaviors.

Type, trait

William Sheldon proposed personality types based on body type called _____. Sheldon presumed that all short, stocky people were jolly, all tall people were high-strung and aloof, and people in between were strong and well-adjusted.


One well-known type theory divides personalities into types. Individuals with _____ personalities are characterized by behavior that tends to be competitive and compulsive, while someone described as _____ is generally laid-back and relaxed.

Type A, Type B

Hans and Sybil Eysenck described three traits in the PEN model. _____ is a measure of nonconformity or social deviance. _____ is a measure of tolerance for social interaction and stimulation. Finally, _____ is a measure of emotional arousal in stressful situations.

Psychoticism, Extraversion, neuroticism

The Big Five Traits of Personality:

openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism.

Gordon Allport, primarily a trait theorist, listed three basic types of traits or dispositions:

cardinal, central, and secondary.

_____ traits are traits around which a person organizes her life.


_____ traits represent major characteristics of the personality that are easy to infer, such as honesty or charisma .


_____ traits are other personal characteristics that are more limited in occurrence: aspects of one’s personality that only appear in close groups or specific social situations.


A major part of Gordon Allport’s theory is the concept of _____, in which a behavior continues despite satisfaction of the drive that originally created the behavior.

functional autonomy

David McClelland identified a personality trait that is referred to as the _____. People who are rated high in this tend to be concerned with achievement and have pride in their accomplishments. These individuals avoid high risks (to avoid failing) and low risks (because easy tasks will not generate a sense of achievement). Additionally , they set realistic goals, and stop striving toward a goal if success is unlikely.

need for achievement (N-Ach)

_____, for example, are often used in inpatient therapeutic settings: positive behavior is rewarded with tokens that can be exchanged for privileges, treats, or other reinforcers.

Token economies

The _____ perspective of personality takes behaviorism one step further, focusing not just on how our environment influences our behavior, but also on how we interact with that environment . Albert Bandura’s concept of reciprocal determinism is a central idea to this perspective.

social cognitive

_____ refers to the idea that our thoughts, feelings , behaviors, and environment all interact with each other to determine our actions in a given situation.

Reciprocal determinism

the _____ perspective of personality holds that personality can be explained as a result of genetic expression in the brain.


_____ approach to therapy includes interventions that rally around symptom reduction of psychological disorders. In other words, this approach assumes that any disorder has roots in biomedical arenas, and thus the solution should also be of a biomedical nature.


This method assumes that there are biological, psychological, and social components to an individual’s disorder . The biological component of a disorder is something in the body, like having a particular genetic syndrome. The psychological component of a disorder stems from the individual’s thoughts, emotions, or behaviors. Finally, the disorder’s social component results from the individual’s surroundings and can include issues of perceived class in society and even discrimination or stigmatization.


Individuals with a _____ suffer from one or more of the following conditions: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thought, disorganized behavior, catatonia, and negative symptoms.

psychotic disorder

_____ symptoms of schizophrenia are behaviors, thoughts, or feelings added to normal behavior. Examples include delusions and hallucinations, disorganized thought, and disorganized or catatonic behavior.


_____ symptoms of schizophrenia are those that involve the absence of normal or desired behavior, such as disturbance of affect and avolition.


_____ are false beliefs discordant with reality and not shared by others in the individual’s culture that are maintained in spite of strong evidence to the contrary.


_____ involve the belief that common elements in the environment are directed toward the individual.

Delusions of reference

_____ involve the belief that the person is being deliberately interfered with, discriminated against, plotted against, or threatened.

Delusions of persecution

_____ involve the belief that the person is remarkable in some significant way, such as being an inventor, historical figure, or religious icon.

Delusions of grandeur

_____ is the belief that one’s thoughts are broadcast directly from one’s head to the external world, and _____ is the belief that thoughts are being placed in one’s head.

thought broadcasting, thought insertion

_____ are perceptions that are not due to external stimuli but have a compelling sense of reality.


_____ is characterized by the loosening of associations. This may be exhibited as speech in which ideas shift from one subject to another in such a way that a listener would be unable to follow the train of thought .

Disorganized thought

A patient’s speech may be so disorganized that it seems to have no structure— as though it were just words thrown together incomprehensibly. This is sometimes called _____.

word salad

A person with schizophrenia may invent words called _____.


_____ refers to an inability to carry out activities of daily living, such as paying bills, maintaining hygiene, and keeping appointments.

Disorganized behavior

_____ refers to certain motor behaviors characteristic of some people with schizophrenia. The patient’s spontaneous movement and activity may be greatly reduced or the patient may maintain a rigid posture, refusing to be moved.


Catatonic behavior may include useless and bizarre movements not caused by any external stimuli, _____ (repeating another’s words), or _____ (imitating another’s actions).

echolalia, echopraxia

_____ is a psychological state characterized by general lack of drive, or motivation to pursue meaningful goals.


Affective symptoms of schizophrenia may include _____, in which there is a severe reduction in the intensity of affect expression; _____, in which there are virtually no signs of emotional expression; or _____, in which the affect is clearly discordant with the content of the individual’s speech.

blunting, flat affect, inappropriate affect

_____ is the experience of feeling or emotion


_____ is marked by decreased engagement in purposeful, goal-directed actions.


The_____ hypothesis states that schizophrenia causes a decline in socioeconomic status, leading to worsening symptoms, which sets up a negative spiral for the patient toward poverty and psychosis. This is why rates of schizophrenia are much, much higher among the homeless and indigent poor.

downward drift

Before schizophrenia is diagnosed, a patient often goes through a phase characterized by poor adjustment. This phase is called the _____. This phase is exemplified by clear evidence of deterioration, social withdrawal, role functioning impairment, peculiar behavior, inappropriate affect, and unusual experiences.

prodromal phase

A _____ is a period of at least two weeks with at least five of the following symptoms: prominent and relatively persistent depressed mood, loss of interest in all or almost all formerly enjoyable activities (anhedonia), appetite disturbances, substantial weight changes, sleep disturbances, decreased energy, feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt (sometimes delusional), difficulty concentrating or thinking, psychomotor symptoms (feeling “slowed down”), and thoughts of death or attempts at suicide; at least one of the symptoms must be depressed mood or anhedonia.

major depressive episode

Symptoms of a major depressive episode: (SIG E. CAPS)

Sleep, Interest, Guilt, Energy, Concentration, Appetite, Psychomotor symptoms, and Suicidal thoughts

A diagnosis of _____ is given to individuals who suffer from dysthymia, a depressed mood that isn’t severe enough to meet the criteria of a major depressive episode.

persistent depressive disorder

_____ is not a freestanding diagnosis in the DSM-5, but is best categorized as major depressive disorder with seasonal onset. In this case, depressive symptoms are present only in the winter months.

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

The _____ are a major type of mood disorder characterized by both depression and mania.

bipolar disorders (formerly known as manic depression)

_____ are characterized by abnormal and persistently elevated mood lasting at least one week with at least three of the following : increased distractibility, decreased need for sleep, inflated self-esteem or grandiosity (beliefs that one is all-powerful, famous, or wealthy), racing thoughts, increased goal-directed activity or agitation, pressured speech or increased talkativeness, and involvement in high-risk behavior.

Manic episodes

_____ has manic episodes with or without major depressive episodes, whereas _____ has hypomania with at least one major depressive episode.

Bipolar I disorder, Bipolar II disorder

In contrast to mania, _____ typically does not significantly impair functioning, nor are there psychotic features, although the individual may be more energetic and optimistic.


_____ consists of a combination of hypomanic episodes and periods of dysthymia that are not severe enough to qualify as major depressive episodes.

cyclothymic disorder

Symptoms of a manic episode: DIG FAST

Distractible, Insomnia (decreased sleep), Grandiosity, Flight of ideas (racing thoughts), Agitation Speech (pressured), and Thoughtlessness (risky behavior)

_____ is associated with low norepinephrine and serotonin levels, and _____ are associated with high levels of these neurotransmitters.

Depression, manic episodes

The neurotransmitters norepinephrine and serotonin are often linked together into what is called the _____. This theory holds that too much norepinephrine and serotonin in the synapse leads to mania, while too little leads to depression.

monoamine or catecholamine theory of depression

_____ is the most common psychiatric disorder in women of all ages. For men, in contrast, _____ is the most common psychiatric disorder.

Anxiety, substance use disorder

_____ is common in the population and is defined as a disproportionate and persistent worry about many different things— making mortgage payments, doing a good job at work, returning emails, political issues, and so on— for at least six months. These individuals often have physical symptoms like fatigue, muscle tension, and sleep problems that accompany the worry.

Generalized anxiety disorder

The most common type of anxiety disorder is _____.

a phobia

A _____ is an irrational fear of something that results in a compelling desire to avoid it.


_____ is characterized by anxiety that is due to social situations. Individuals with this disorder have persistent fear when exposed to social or performance situations that may result in embarrassment;

Social anxiety disorder

_____ is an anxiety disorder characterized by a fear of being in places or in situations where it might be hard for an individual to escape.


Symptoms of a _____ include fear and apprehension, trembling, sweating, hyperventilation, and a sense of unreality.

panic attack

_____ is characterized by obsessions (persistent, intrusive thoughts and impulses), which produce tension, and compulsions (repetitive tasks) that relieve tension but cause significant impairment in a person’s life. The relationship between the two is key: obsessions raise the individual’s stress level, and the compulsions relieve this stress.

Obsessive– compulsive disorder (OCD)

In _____, a person has an unrealistic negative evaluation of his or her personal appearance and attractiveness, usually directed toward a certain body part. This person sees her nose, skin, or stomach as ugly or even horrific when it is actually normal in appearance.

body dysmorphic disorder

_____ is characterized by an inability to recall past experience that is not due to a neurological disorder.

Dissociative amnesia

A sudden, unexpected move or purposeless wandering away from one’s home or location of usual daily activities.

dissociative fugue

In _____, there are two or more personalities that recurrently take control of a person’s behavior,

dissociative identity disorder (DID, formerly multiple personality disorder)

In _____, individuals feel detached from their own mind and body, or from their surroundings. This often presents as a feeling of automation, and can have findings like a failure to recognize one’s reflection.

depersonalization/ derealization disorder

Individuals with _____ have at least one somatic symptom, which may or may not be linked to an underlying medical condition, and that is accompanied by disproportionate concerns about its seriousness, devotion of an excessive amount of time and energy to it, or elevated levels of anxiety.

somatic symptom disorder

_____ is characterized by being consumed with thoughts about having or developing a serious medical condition. Individuals with this disorder are quick to become alarmed about their health, and either excessively check themselves for signs of illness or avoid medical appointments altogether.

Illness anxiety disorder

A_____ is characterized by unexplained symptoms affecting voluntary motor or sensory functions. The symptoms generally begin soon after the individual experiences high levels of stress or a traumatic event, but may not develop until some time has passed after the initiating experience.

conversion disorder

A _____ is a pattern of behavior that is inflexible and maladaptive, causing distress or impaired functioning in at least two of the following: cognition, emotions, interpersonal functioning, or impulse control.

personality disorder

_____ means that the individual sees the illness as something thrust upon her that is intrusive and bothersome .


In addition to _____, there are ten personality disorders grouped into three clusters: cluster A (paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid), cluster B (antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic), and cluster C (avoidant, dependent, and obsessive– compulsive).

general personality disorder

Personality disorders in cluster A:

paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid (WEIRD)

Personality disorders in cluster B:

antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic (WILD)

Personality disorders in cluster C:

avoidant, dependent, and obsessive– compulsive (WORIED)

_____ personality disorder is marked by a pervasive mistrust of others and suspicion regarding their motives.


_____ personality disorder refers to a pattern of odd or eccentric thinking. These individuals may have ideas of reference (similar to delusions of reference, but not as extreme in intensity) as well as magical thinking, such as superstitiousness or belief in clairvoyance.


_____ personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression.


_____ personality disorder is three times more common in males than in females. The essential feature of the disorder is a pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. This is evidenced by repeated illegal acts, deceitfulness, aggressiveness, or a lack of remorse for said actions.


_____ personality disorder is two times more common in females than in males. In this disorder, there is pervasive instability in interpersonal behavior, mood, and self-image. Interpersonal relationships are often intense and unstable. There may be a profound identity disturbance with uncertainty about self-image, sexual identity, long-term goals, or values. There is often intense fear of abandonment.


_____ personality disorder is characterized by constant attention-seeking behavior. These individuals often wear colorful clothing, are dramatic, and are exceptionally extroverted . They may also use seductive behavior to gain attention.


In _____ personality disorder, one has a grandiose sense of self-importance or uniqueness, preoccupation with fantasies of success, a need for constant admiration and attention, and characteristic disturbances in interpersonal relationships such as feelings of entitlement.


In _____ personality disorder, the affected individual has extreme shyness and fear of rejection. The individual will see herself as socially inept and is often socially isolated, despite an intense desire for social affection and acceptance.


_____ personality disorder is characterized by a continuous need for reassurance. Individuals with dependent personality disorder tend to remain dependent on one specific person, such as a parent or significant other, to take actions and make decisions.


In _____ personality disorder, the individual is perfectionistic and inflexible, tending to like rules and order. Other characteristics may include an inability to discard worn-out objects, lack of desire to change, excessive stubbornness, lack of a sense of humor, and maintenance of careful routines.

obsessive– compulsive

Schizophrenia is highly associated with an excess of _____ in the brain; many medications used to treat schizophrenia block these receptors.


_____ is a type of dementia characterized by gradual memory loss, disorientation to time and place, problems with abstract thought, and a tendency to misplace things. Later stages of the disease are associated with changes in mood or behavior, changes in personality, difficulty with procedural memory, poor judgment, and loss of initiative.

Alzheimer’s disease

_____ is characterized by bradykinesia (slowness in movement ), resting tremor (a tremor that appears when muscles are not being used), pill-rolling tremor (flexing and extending the fingers while moving the thumb back and forth, as if rolling something in the fingers), masklike facies (a facial expression consisting of static and expressionless facial features, staring eyes, and a partially open mouth), cogwheel rigidity (muscle tension that intermittently halts movement as an examiner attempts to manipulate a limb), and a shuffling gait with stooped posture.

Parkinson’s disease

The biological basis of this disease is decreased dopamine production in the substantia nigra, a layer of cells in the brain that functions to produce dopamine to permit proper functioning of the basal ganglia. The basal ganglia are critical to initiating and terminating movements, as well as to sustaining repetitive motor tasks and the smoothening of motions.

Parkinson’s disease

This concept of self is made up of both the intrapersonal self , the ideas an individual has regarding his own abilities, traits, and beliefs; and the interpersonal self, the manner in which others influence creation of the ideal self.

Michelangelo phenomenon

He was one of the first sociologists to study social processes and interaction.

Max Weber

Actions and behaviors that individuals are conscious of and performing because others are around.

Social action

_____ considers just the individual that is surrounded by others. When examining _____, we will look at the behavior and actions of two or more individuals who take one another into account.

Social action, social interaction

The tendency to perform better on simple tasks when in the presence of others. The theory suggests that performance sparks a perceived evaluation in the individual performing.

social facilitation

The concept that the presence of others will significantly raise arousal, which enhances the ability to perform tasks one is already good at (or simple tasks), and hinders the performance of less familiar tasks (or complex tasks).

Yerkes– Dodson law of social facilitation

_____ reflects the idea that performance is not solely influenced by individual ability, but also by social environment and awareness of that environment.

Social facilitation

The _____ law is used to describe the relationship between stress or sympathetic arousal and performance . Just as social facilitation can enhance the ability to perform tasks, so can moderate levels of arousal. Arousal can also be an effect of being surrounded by others and feeling pressure to perform.

Yerkes –Dodson

_____ is a social phenomenon that occurs when individuals are in group settings. Individual behavior can be dramatically different in social environments. This is thought to be due to the presence of a large group that provides anonymity and causes a loss of individual identity.


Deindividuation can lead to _____, or behavior against the norm . This aspect of deindividuation attempts to provide an explanation for violent behavior seen in crowds and mobs: in group settings, the individual loses his sense of individuality and becomes an anonymous part of a group. With anonymity, he is more likely to act in a manner that is inconsistent with his normal self. This is further enhanced when the group is in uniform or masked, disguising the individual within the group and increasing anonymity.

antinormative behavior

The _____ is another observed phenomenon that occurs in social groups wherein individuals do not intervene to help victims when others are present. It has been shown that the likelihood and timeliness of response is inversely related to the number of bystanders. In other words, the more people standing by, the less likely any one of those people is to help.

bystander effect

Considering the bystander effect, people in groups are less likely to _____, take cues from _____, and feel less _____ for taking action.

Notice danger, the group, and responsibility

_____ refers to the tendency of individuals to put in less effort when in a group setting than individually.

Social loafing

_____ refers to the social influence placed on an individual by a group of people or another individual.

Peer pressure

When an individual’s state of harmony is disrupted by a threat of social rejection, the individual will often conform to the norms of the group. Upon doing so, however, the individual will begin to experience internal conflict because the behavior is outside the normal character of the individual. To eliminate the sense of internal conflict, the individual experiences an identify shift wherein the individual adopts the standards of the group as her own.

identity shift effect.

_____, the simultaneous presence of two opposing thoughts or opinions. This generally leads to an internal state of discomfort, which may manifest as anxiety, fear, anger, or confusion . Individuals will try to reduce this discomfort by changing, adding to, or minimizing one of these thoughts.

cognitive dissonance

His conformity experiment showed that individuals will often conform to an opinion held by the group.

Solomon Asch

In contrast to social action, _____ explores the ways in which two or more individuals can both shape each other’s behavior. These include group processes and establishment of culture.

social interaction

_____ describes the tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than the individual ideas and inclinations of the members within the group.

Group polarization (choice shift at the group level)

_____ refers to a social phenomenon in which desire for harmony or conformity results in a group of people coming to an incorrect or poor decision. In an attempt to eliminate or minimize conflict among the group members, consensus decisions are reached without alternate ideas being assessed. In these cases, the desire to agree with the group causes a loss of independent critical thinking. The group also begins to isolate and ignore external viewpoints, seeing their own ideas as correct without question.


Irving Janis conducted the first research on this theory in the 1970s.


A factor within groupthink, it is the creation of optimism and encouragement of risk-taking.

Illusion of invulnerability

A factor within groupthink, it is ignoring warnings against the idea of the group

Collective rationalization

A factor within groupthink, it is the belief that the group’s decisions are morally correct.

Illusion of morality

A factor within groupthink, it is the construction of stereotypes against outside opinions

Excessive stereotyping

A factor within groupthink, it is the pressure put on anyone in the group who expresses opinions against the group, viewing the opposition as disloyal.

Pressure for conformity

A factor within groupthink, it is the withholding of opposing views.


A factor within groupthink, it is the false sense of agreement within the group.

Illusion of unanimity

A factor within groupthink, it is the appointment of members to the role of protecting against opposing views.


_____ can be defined as the beliefs, behaviors, actions, and characteristics of a group or society of people. It is learned through living within a society, observing behaviors and traits, and adopting them.


_____ is the process by which an individual’s or group’s behavior and culture begin to resemble that of another group. This can also mean that groups with different cultures begin to merge into one.

Cultural assimilation

The four primary factors that can be used to assess the completeness of assimilation:

socioeconomic status, geographic distribution, language attainment, and intermarriage.

Assimilation can be slowed by the creation of _____, which are locations (usually neighborhoods) with a high concentration of one specific ethnicity. These are most common in urban areas and often have names like Chinatown or Little Italy.

ethnic enclaves

_____ refer to a group of people within a culture that distinguish themselves from the primary culture to which they belong. They can be perceived as negative when they subvert the majority culture’s definitions of normalcy. Symbolic attachment to things such as clothing or music can differentiate the group from the majority. They can be formed based on race, gender, ethnicity, sexuality, and other differentiating factors from the whole of society.


The process of developing, inheriting, and spreading norms, customs, and beliefs.


_____ occurs during childhood when we initially learn acceptable actions and attitudes in our society, primarily through observation of our parents and other adults in close proximity. _____ is the process of learning appropriate behavior within smaller sections of the larger society. This type of socialization occurs outside of the home and is based on learning the rules of specific social environments.

Primary socialization, Secondary socialization

_____ is the process by which a person prepares for future changes in occupations, living situations, or relationships.

Anticipatory socialization

_____ is another process by which one discards old behaviors in favor of new ones to make a life change, and can have positive or negative connotations


Sociologists define _____ as societal rules that define the boundaries of acceptable behavior.


_____ are widely observed social norms.


_____ provide us with a sense of what is appropriate, what we should do, and what is considered taboo, or socially unacceptable . They exist for behavior, speech, dress, home life, and more and can differ between groups within a society, and also between different cultures.


_____ are norms that refer to behavior that is considered polite in particular contexts.


_____ refers to any violation of norms, rules, or expectations within a society.


_____ is the extreme disapproval or dislike of a person or group based on perceived differences from the rest of society.

Social stigma

This theory posits that the labels given to people affect not only how others respond to that person, but also the person’s self-image. This can lead to channeling of behavior into deviance or conformity.

Labeling Theory

According to _____ theory, deviance can be learned through interactions with others. While deviance is often associated with negative behavior such as crime, functional theorists argue that it is necessary for social order. These theorists argue that deviance provides a clear perception of social norms and acceptable boundaries, encourages unity within society, and can even promote social change.

differential association

_____ is matching one’s attitudes, beliefs, and behaviors to societal norms.


A type of conformity, _____ involves changing one’s behavior to fit with a group while also privately agreeing with the ideas of the group.


A type of conformity, _____ refers to the acceptance of others’ ideas without questioning them.


_____ is a change in behavior based on a direct request.


Techniques used to gain compliance:

Foot-in-the-door, door-in-the-face, lowball, and that's-not-all

_____ is changing one’s behavior in response to a direct order from an authority figure.


_____ focuses on the ways in which people think about others and how these ideas impact behavior .

Social cognition

An _____ is the expression of positive or negative feelings toward a person, place, thing, or scenario.


The _____ component of attitude refers to the way a person feels toward something, and is the emotional component of attitude.


The _____ component of attitude is the way a person acts with respect to something.


The _____ component of attitude is the way an individual thinks about something, which is usually the justification for the other two components.


Components of Attitude: (ABC)

Affective, Behavioral, and Cognitive

The _____ theory states that attitudes serve four functions: knowledge, ego expression, adaptation, and ego defense.

functional attitudes

The _____ function of attitude is important in that it provides consistency and stability: attitudes help provide organization to thoughts and experiences , and knowing the attitudes of others helps to predict their behavior.


The _____ function of attitude allows us to communicate and solidify our self-identity.


The _____ function of attitude is the idea that one will be accepted if socially acceptable attitudes are expressed.


The _____ function of attitude protects our self-esteem or justifies actions that we know are wrong.


The _____ model separates individuals on a continuum, based on their processing of persuasive information.

elaboration likelihood

Per the elaboration likelihood model, those who elaborate extensively; that is, those who think deeply about information, scrutinize its meaning and purpose, and draw conclusions or make decisions based on this thought. This deep thinking is referred to as _____.

central route processing

Per the elaboration likelihood model, those who do not elaborate, focusing on superficial details: the appearance of the person delivering the argument, catchphrases and slogans, and credibility. This is known as _____.

peripheral route processing

_____ postulates that people learn how to behave and shape attitudes by observing the behaviors of others. According to this idea, behavior is not learned by trial-and-error, but develops through direct observation and replication of the actions of others, and in tandem with the influence of personal factors (such as thoughts about the behavior) and the environment in which we observe the behavior.

Social cognitive theory

_____ are positions in society that are used to classify individuals.


There are three key types of statuses:

ascribed, achieved, and master statuses.

An _____ is a status that is given involuntarily, due to such factors as race, ethnicity, gender, and family background.

ascribed status

An _____ is a status that is gained as a result of one’s efforts or choices.

achieved status

A _____ is the status by which a person is most identified. This status is typically the most important status the individual holds and affects all aspects of that person’s life. It is also generally how people view themselves and often holds a symbolic value.

master status

Each status has a _____, or a set of beliefs , values, attitudes, and norms that define expectations for those who hold the status.


_____ is the carrying out of behaviors associated with a given role.

Role performance

The various roles associated with a status are referred to as a _____.

role set

_____ is difficulty in satisfying the requirements or expectations of multiple roles, whereas _____ is difficulty in satisfying multiple requirements of the same role. _____ is the dropping of one identity for another.

Role conflict, role strain, Role exit

_____ are groups to which an individual belongs and can be contrasted with _____, with which an individual competes or is in opposition. Finally, _____ are groups that establish the terms by which individuals evaluate themselves.

In-groups, out-groups, reference groups

The German sociologist Ferdinand Tönnies distinguished two major types of groups. His theory is known as Gemeinschaft und Gesellschaft, which translates to _____ and _____. Gemeinschaft refers to groups unified by feelings of togetherness due to shared beliefs, ancestry, or geography. Gesellschaft refers to groups that are formed because of mutual self-interests working together toward the same goal.

community and society

_____ is a technique for observing, classifying , and measuring the interactions within small groups.

Interaction process analysis (aka system for multiple level observation of groups (SYMLOG)

There are three fundamental dimensions of group interaction:

dominance vs. submission , friendliness vs. unfriendliness, and instrumentally controlled vs. emotionally expressive.

A group holds power over its members, creating group pressure that ultimately shapes members’ behaviors. This is called _____; individuals are compliant with the group’s goals, even when the group’s goals may be in direct contrast to the individual’s goal.

group conformity

The term _____ is used to describe the observable pattern of social relationships among individuals or groups.


_____ are entities that are set up to achieve specific goals and are characterized by having a structure and a culture.


A _____ is a rational system of political organization, administration, discipline, and control.


a bureaucracy has these six characteristics:

paid, nonelected officials on a fixed salary; officials who are provided rights and privileges as a result of making their career out of holding office; regular salary increases, seniority rights, and promotions upon passing exams or milestones; officials who enter the organization by holding an advanced degree or training; responsibilities, obligations, privileges, and work procedures rigidly defined by the organization; and responsibility for meeting the demands of one’s position.

The _____ states that democratic or bureaucratic systems naturally shift to being ruled by an elite group.

iron law of oligarchy

_____ is commonly used to refer to a shift in focus toward efficiency, predictability , calculability, and control in bureaucratic societies.


_____ is the process of displaying oneself to society through culturally accepted behaviors.

Self-presentation (aka impression management)

The _____ was first established by Charles Darwin. Darwin stated that emotional expression involves a number of components: facial expressions, behaviors, postures, vocal changes, and physiological changes. Darwin claimed that expression is consistent with his theories on evolution and should be similar across cultures. Darwin also stated that primates and animals exhibit rudimentary muscle actions that are similar to those used by humans for facial expressions.

basic model of emotional expression

The _____ is closely related to the basic model of emotional expression, and accepts that there are biologically predetermined expressions once an emotion is experienced, but that there is a cognitive antecedent to emotional expression.

appraisal model

The_____ assumes that there is no biological basis for emotions. Instead, emotions are based on experiences and the situational context alone. It also suggests that certain emotions can only exist within social encounters and that emotions are expressed differently— and thus play different roles— across cultures.

social construction model

Cultural expectations of emotions are often referred to as _____.

display rules

A _____ is a shared set of beliefs, attitudes, norms, values, and behaviors among members of the same culture that are organized around a central theme. They influence the rules for expressing or suppressing emotions, and can even influence the ways emotions are experienced.

cultural syndrome

_____ refers to our attempts to influence how others perceive us.

Impression management

When describing impression management, theorists describe three “selves”:

the authentic self, the ideal self, and the tactical self.

The_____describes who the person actually is, including both positive and negative attributes.

authentic self

The_____ refers to who we would like to be under optimal circumstances .

ideal self

The _____ refers to who we market ourselves to be when we adhere to others’ expectations of us.

tactical self

The inpression management strategy characterized by giving information about oneself to establish an identity.


The inpression management strategy characterized by using props, appearance, emotional expression, or associations with others to create a positive image.

Managing appearances

The inpression management strategy characterized by using flattery or conforming to expectations to win someone over.


The inpression management strategy characterized by making questionable behavior acceptable through excuses.

Aligning actions

The inpression management strategy characterized by Imposing an identity onto another person.


Erving Goffman described impression management through the _____, using the metaphor of a theatrical performance to describe how individuals create images of themselves in various situations.

dramaturgical approach

Considering Goffman's dramatugical approach to impression management, the_____ is where the actor is in front of the audience , and performs according to the setting, role, and script in order to conform to the image he wants others to see. In contrast, the _____ is where the actor is not being observed by an audience, and he is free to act in ways that may not be congruent with his desired public image, without having to worry about ruining his performance.

front stage, back stage

_____ states that we are more likely to respond to others aggressively whenever we are feeling negative emotions, such as being tired, sick, frustrated, or in pain.

cognitive neoassociation model

Four main types of attachment styles have been described:

secure, avoidant, ambivalent, and disorganized.

_____ attachment is seen when a child has a consistent caregiver and is able to go out and explore knowing that he or she has a secure base to return to. The child will be upset at the departure of the caregiver and will be comforted by the return of the caregiver. The child trusts that the caregiver will be there for comfort, and while the child can be comforted by a stranger, he or she will clearly prefer the caregiver.


_____ attachment results when the caregiver has little or no response to a distressed child . Given the choice, these children will show no preference between a stranger and the caregiver. They show little or no distress when the caregiver leaves and little or no relief when the caregiver returns.


_____ attachment occurs when a caregiver has an inconsistent response to a child’s distress, sometimes responding appropriately, sometimes neglectfully. As such, the child is unable to form a secure base as he or she cannot consistently rely on the caregiver’s response. The child will be very distressed on separation from the caregiver but has a mixed response when the caregiver returns, often displaying ambivalence.

Ambivalent (anxious– ambivalent attachment)

Children with _____ attachment show no clear pattern of behavior in response to the caregiver’s absence or presence, but instead can show a mix of different behaviors. These can include avoidance or resistance; seeming dazed, frozen, or confused; or repetitive behaviors like rocking .


_____ is the perception or reality that one is cared for by a social network. It can be divided into many different categories: emotional, esteem, material, informational , and network support.

social support

The behavior of _____, or seeking out and eating food, is driven by biological, psychological, and social influences . Biologically, hunger is driven by a complex pathway involving both neurotransmitters and hormones. The sensation of hunger is controlled by the _____. Specifically, the _____ promotes hunger, while the _____ responds to cues that we are full and promotes satiety.

foraging, hypothalamus, lateral hypothalamus, ventromedial hypothalamus

A _____ describes the organization of a group’s sexual behavior.

mating system

_____ is the selection of a mate based on attraction.

Mate choice, or intersexual selection,

_____ refers to how choosy members of the species are while choosing a mate.

Mate bias

Mate bias may carry _____ benefits by providing material advantages , protection, or emotional support, or _____ benefits by promoting better survival in offspring.

direct, indirect

There are five recognized mechanisms of mate choice:

Phenotypic benefits, sensory bias, Fisherian/runway selection, indicator traits, and genetic compatibility.

The mechanism of mate choice where observable traits that make a potential mate more attractive to the opposite sex. Usually, these traits indicate increased production and survival of offspring.

Phenotypic benefits

The mechanism of mate choice that is facilitated by the development of a trait to match a preexisting preference that exists in the population.

Sensory bias

The mechanism of mate choice produced by a positive feedback mechanism in which a particular trait that has no effect on survival becomes more and more exaggerated over time.

Fisherian or runaway selection

The mechanism of mate choice where a trait that signifies overall good health and well-being of an organism, increasing its attractiveness to mates. Notably, these traits may or may not be genetic in origin.

Indicator traits

The mechanism of mate choice defined by the creation of mate pairs that, when combined, have complementary genetics. This theory provides a mechanism for the reduced frequency of recessive genetic disorders in the population: attraction to others who have starkly different genetic makeups reduces the probability of offspring being homozygotic for a disease-carrying allele.

Genetic compatibility

According to this theory, one individual helps another person when he or she feels empathy for the other person, regardless of the cost.

empathy– altruism hypothesis

When an _____ is adopted by a given population in a specific environment, natural selection will prevent alternative strategies from arising. The strategies are thus inherited traits passed along with the population, with the object of the game being becoming more fit than competitors.

evolutionary stable strategy (ESS).

_____ is a measure of an organism’s success in the population. This is based on the number of offspring, success in supporting offspring, and the ability of the offspring to then support others.

inclusive fitness

_____ provides the tools to make judgments and impressions regarding other people.

Social perception (social cognition)

There are three primary components of social perception:

the perceiver, the target, and the situation.

In social cognition, the _____ is influenced by experience, motives, and emotional state.


In social cognition, the _____ refers to the person about which the perception is made.


In social cognition, the _____ is also very important in developing perception. A given social context can determine what information is available to the perceiver.


Individuals tend to organize the perception of others based on traits and personal characteristics of the target that are most relevant to the perceiver. This idea is referred to as _____.

the reliance on central traits

This theory states that there are sets of assumptions people make about how different types of people, their traits, and their behavior are related. Making assumptions about people based on the category in which they are placed is known as stereotyping.

implicit personality theory

The _____ is a cognitive bias in which judgments about a specific aspect of an individual can be affected by one’s overall impression of the individual. It is the tendency to allow a general impression about a person (I like Judy) to influence other, more specific evaluations about a person (Judy is a good mother, Judy is trustworthy, Judy can do no wrong).

halo effect

According to the ______, good things happen to good people, and bad things happen to bad people; noble actions are rewarded, and evil actions are punished. Consequences may be attributed to a universal restoring force; in Hinduism, this force is referred to as karma.

Just-world hypothesis

Self-identity and perception can be skewed through_____. This bias refers to the fact that individuals will view their own success based on internal factors, while viewing failures based on external factors. The notion that all good things that happen are based on our good traits and behaviors, and that all bad things are based on situational factors beyond our control, is used to protect our self-esteem.

self-serving bias, also known as self-serving attributional bias

_____ focuses on the need to maintain self-worth and can be done through internal attribution of successes and external attribution of failures.


_____ focuses on the tendency for individuals to infer the causes of other people’s behavior.

Attribution theory

Fritz Heider , one of the founding fathers of attribution theory, divided the causes for attribution into two main categories:

dispositional (internal) and situational (external).

In attribution theory, _____ attributions are those that relate to the person whose behavior is being considered, including his or her beliefs, attitudes, and personality characteristics.

Dispositional (internal)

In attribution theory, _____ attributions are those that relate to features of the surroundings, such as threats, money, social norms, and peer pressure.

Situational (external)

In order to understand the behavior of others, a variety of cues are used. These include:

consistency cues, consensus cues, and distinctiveness cues.

In attirbution theory, _____ cues refers to the consistent behavior of a person over time. The more regular the behavior, the more we associate that behavior with the motives of the person.

Consistency cues

In attribution theory, _____ cues relate to the extent to which a person’s behavior differs from others. If a person deviates from socially expected behavior, we are likely to form a dispositional attribution about the person’s behavior.


In attribution theory, _____ cues refer to the extent to which a person engages in similar behavior across a series of scenarios. If a person’s behavior varies in different scenarios, we are more likely to form a situational attribution to explain it.


The _____ posits that we are generally biased toward making dispositional attributions rather than situational attributions, especially in negative contexts.

fundamental attribution error

_____ occurs when individuals must make judgments that are complex, but instead they substitute a simpler solution or apply a heuristic.

Attribute substitution

The _____ attempts to classify stereotypes with respect to a hypothetical in-group using two dimensions: warmth and competence. _____ groups are those that are not in direct competition with the in-group for resources; _____ groups are those that have high status within society.

stereotype content model, warm, and competent

The four clasifications of sterotype in the Sterotype Content Model:

Paternalistic, Admiration, Contemptuous, Envious

_____ stereotypes are those in which the group is looked down upon as inferior, dismissed, or ignored.


_____ stereotypes are those in which the group is viewed with resentment, annoyance, or anger.


_____ stereotypes are those in which the group is viewed with jealousy, bitterness, or distrust.


_____ stereotypes are those in which the group is viewed with pride and other positive feelings.


_____ refers to the concept of people being concerned or anxious about confirming a negative stereotype about one’s social group. It can cause reduced performance, encourage self-handicapping strategies, and lower one’s personal investment in an activity.

Stereotype threat

_____ is defined as an irrational positive or negative attitude toward a person, group, or thing, prior to an actual experience with that entity.


_____ is a common way by which large organizations and political groups attempt to create prejudices in others.


There are a variety of social factors that influence prejudice. Three of the most important are:

power , prestige, and class.

Considering the factors that influence prejudice, _____ refers to the ability of people or groups to achieve their goals despite any obstacles , and their ability to control resources.


Considering the factors that influence prejudice, _____ is the level of respect shown to a person by others.


Considering the factors that influence prejudice, _____ refers to socioeconomic status.


_____ refers to the practice of making judgments about other cultures based on the values and beliefs of one’s own culture, especially when it comes to language, customs, and religion.


Considering ethnocentrism,an _____ is a social group with which a person experiences a sense of belonging or identifies as a member. An _____, on the other hand, refers to a social group with which an individual does not identify.

in-group, out-group

_____ is the perception of another culture as different from one’s own, but with the recognition that the cultural values, mores, and rules of a culture fit into that culture itself.

Cultural relativism

_____ occurs when prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently from others.

Discrimination (While prejudice is an attitude, discrimination is a behavior)

Considering discrimination, _____ refers to one person discriminating against a particular person or group, whereas _____ refers to the discrimination against a particular person or group by an entire institution .

Individual discrimination, institutional discrimination

In sociology, _____ focuses on large groups and social structure, whereas _____ focuses on small groups and the individual.

Macrosociology, microsociology

_____ is a system of people within a society organized by a characteristic pattern of relationships

social structure

_____ is the study of the structure and function of each part of society.

Functionalism or functional analysis

In sociology, a _____ to refer to the beneficial consequences of people’s actions. According to these theorists, They help keep society in balance. In contrast, _____ are harmful consequences of people’s actions as they undermine a social system’s equilibrium.

function, dysfunctions

If an action is intended to help some part of a system, it is a _____ function. However, these functions can also have unintended positive consequences on other parts of society ; these are called _____ functions. These functions may flow logically from the former functions, but are unstated or unrecognized.

manifest, latent

_____, which is based on the works of Karl Marx, focuses on how power differentials are created and how these differentials contribute to the maintenance of social order.

Conflict theory

The study of the ways individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, gestures, and other symbols.

symbolic interactionism

_____ focuses on how individuals put together their social reality . It arises from humans communicating and working together to agree on the significance of a concept or principle.

Social constructionism

_____ are well-established social structures that dictate certain patterns of behavior or relationships and are accepted as a fundamental part of culture. They regulate the behavior of individuals in core areas of society.

Social institutions

The six major social institutions:

Family, education, religion, government, economy, medicine

Physicians are expected to adhere to four key tenets of medical ethics:

Beneficence, nonmaleficence, autonomy, Justice

_____ can be defined as encompassing the entire lifestyle for a given group.


Sociologists view culture according to two different categories :

material culture and symbolic culture

_____ culture is associated with artifacts (objects). _____ culture is associated with ideas.

Material, Symbolic

_____ are what a person deems important in life, which dictates one’s ethical principals and standards of behavior. A _____ is something that an individual accepts to be truth.

Values, belief

When a cultural difference impedes interaction with others it is called a _____.

Cultural barrier

A _____ is a formalized ceremony that usually involves specific material objects, symbolism, and additional mandates on acceptable behavior. Rituals tend to have a prescribed order of events or routine.


_____ describes a specific connection to one’s ethnicity in which ethnic symbols and identity remain important, even when ethnic identity does not play a significant role in everyday life.

Symbolic ethnicity

_____ can be defined as the direction of one’s sexual interest toward members of the same, opposite, or both sexes.

Sexual orientation

Alfred Kinsey was a pioneer in human sexuality, and described sexuality on a zero to six scale, with zero representing exclusive heterosexuality and six representing exclusive homosexuality. When ranked on this _____, few people actually fell into the categories of zero and six, with a significant proportion of the population falling somewhere between the two.

Kinsey scale

children per woman per lifetime

Fertility rate

children per 1000 people per year

Birth rate

deaths per 1000 people per year

Mortality rate

immigration rate minus emigration rate

Migration rate

_____ is a specific example of demographic shift referring to changes in birth and death rates in a country as it develops from a preindustrial to industrial economic system.

demographic transition

Demographic transition can be divided into four stages:

Stage 1: preindustrial society; birth and death rates are both high Stage 2: improvements in healthcare, nutrition, sanitation, and wages cause death rates to drop Stage 3: improvements in contraception, women’s rights, and a shift from an agricultural to an industrial economy cause birth rates (births per 1000 individuals per year) to drop. Further, with an industrializing society, children must go to school for many years to be productive in society and may need to be supported by parents for a longer period of time than was formerly the case; families thus have fewer children Stage 4: an industrialized society; birth and death rates are both low.

_____ focuses on how the exponential growth of a population can outpace growth of the food supply and lead to social degradation and disorder.

Malthusian theory

_____ are organized either to promote or to resist social change. Those that promote social change are termed _____; those that resist social change are _____.

Social movements, proactive, reactive

_____ is defined as a category of people who share a similar socioeconomic position in society. This can be identified by looking at the economic opportunities, job positions, lifestyles, attitudes, and behaviors of a given slice of society.

Social class

_____ focuses on social inequalities and studies the basic question of who gets what and why. It is thus related to one’s socioeconomic status (SES).

Social stratification

_____ derives from clearly identifiable characteristics, such as age, gender, and skin color; _____ is acquired via direct, individual efforts. In other words, the former is involuntary, while the latter is obtained through hard work or merit . Caste and estate systems stratify by the former SES, while class systems stratify by the latter SES.

Ascribed status, achieved status

There are three major types of status:

ascribed, achieved, and master status.

Early sociologists explained that social inequality is further accelerated by what is called _____, which refers to a lack of social norms , or the breakdown of social bonds between an individual and society.


_____ focuses on how anomic conditions can lead to deviance. Anomic conditions include excessive individualism, social inequality, and isolation; these all erode social solidarity.

Strain theory

sociologists have focused on the importance of social trust in the proper functioning of civil society. Social trust comes from two primary sources:

social norms of reciprocity (I’ll scratch your back if you scratch mine) and social networks.

_____ can be considered the investments people make in their society in return for economic or collective rewards; the greater the investment, the higher the level of social integration and inclusion.

social capital

One of the main forms of social capital is the social network. Social networks can create two types of social inequality:

situational (socioeconomic advantage) and positional (based on how connected one is within a network, and one’s centrality within that network).

Communities are joined together through ties. _____ refer to peer group and kinship contacts, which are quantitatively small but qualitatively powerful. _____ refer to social connections that are personally superficial, such as associates, but that are large in number and provide connections to a wide range of other individuals.

Strong ties, Weak ties

_____ is typically the result of an economic and occupational structure that allows one to acquire higher-level employment opportunities given proper credentials and experience requirements.

social mobility

Social mobility can either occur within a generation or across generations. _____ changes in social status happen within a person’s lifetime, while _____ changes are from parents to children.

Intragenerational, intergenerational

Social inequality, especially poverty , can be passed on from one generation to the next. This idea is referred to as _____.

social reproduction

_____ can arise from this sense of powerlessness when poor individuals feel alienated from society. However, the problem is that this attitude can create further obstacles to achieving self-help, independence, and self-respect.

Social exclusion

_____ focuses on social stratification across territories and their populations. Examining space helps to illuminate social inequalities because it attends to how geography influences social processes.

Spatial inequality

In epidemiology, _____ is defined as the number of new cases of an illness per population at risk in a given amount of time;


In epidemiology, _____ is a measure of the number of cases of an illness overall—whether new or chronic— per population in a given amount of time;


In epidemiology, _____ is the burden or degree of illness associated with a given disease, while _____ refers to deaths caused by a given disease.

Morbidity, mortality

"= new cases / population at risk / time"


"= total cases / total population / time"


_____ covers patients over the age of 65, those with end-stage renal disease, and those with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). _____ covers patients who are in significant financial need.

Medicare, Medicaid

_____ is when people do not have enough resources to acquire basic life necessities, such as shelter, food, clothing, and water. _____ is when one is poor in comparison to a larger population.

Absolute poverty, Relative poverty