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266 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

A 3 year old presents with subluxated maxillarycentral incisors. What is the most appropriatemanagement?


A. Reposition the teeth and place child on asoft diet.


B. Reposition the teeth and splint for 7 – 10days.


C. Place child on a soft diet and monitor theteeth.


D. Extract the traumatized teeth

C. Place child on a soft diet and monitor the teeth.

Which of the following unilateral fixed partialdentures is most likely to have insufficientperiodontal support? A fixed partial dentureextending from the


A. maxillary first premolar to the first molar.


B. maxillary canine to the first molar.


C. mandibular central incisor to the firstpremolar.


D. mandibular second premolar to the secondmolar.

C. mandibular central incisor to the first premolar.

Which of the following oral diseases arelargely preventable through lifestyleadjustments?


1. Dental caries.


2. Periodontal disease.


3. Oral malignancies.


4. Cleft lip and palate.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

A 70-year old female has consumed optimallevels of fluorides all her life. You wouldexpect to find a decreased incidence of


1. Paget's disease of bone.


2. osteoporosis.


3. hyperparathyroidism.


4. dental caries.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) only


E. All of the above.

D. (4) only

Function(s) of the dental pulp include(s)


1. defensive.


2. sensory.


3. circulatory.


4. dentin repair.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) only


E. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

Which disorder is associated withhypercementosis of teeth?


A. Paget’s disease.


B. Fibrous dysplasia.


C. Cherubism.


D. Hyperparathyroidism.

A. Paget’s disease. (Osteitis deformans)

When a second canal is located in mandibularincisors, it is most frequently found


A. labial to the main canal.


B. lingual to the main canal.


C. mesial to the main canal.


D. distal to the main canal.

B. lingual to the main canal.

A patient presents with hypodontia, conicalteeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intoleranceto hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is


A. achondroplasia.


B. malignant hyperthermia.


C. ectodermal dysplasia.


D. cystic fibrosis.

C. ectodermal dysplasia.

Radiographic examination reveals earlyevidence of internal resorption. Which is themost appropriate initial management?


A. Perform an apicoectomy.


B. Perform a pulp extirpation.


C. Perform a pulpotomy.


D. Observe and re-evaluate in 3-6 months.

B. Perform a pulp extirpation.

Side effects of therapeutic doses of codeine caninclude


1. constipation.


2. drowsiness.


3. nausea.


4. respiratory depression.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

The following conditions can be the result ofill-fitting complete dentures.


1. Soft tissue hyperplasia.


2. Alveolar ridge resorption.


3. Angular cheilitis.


4. Carcinoma.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

Excessively dark radiographs are the result of


1. underdevelopment.


2. overexposure.


3. backward placement of the film.


4. excessive milliamperage.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

C. (2) and (4)

What is the most likely cause of long termclinical failure for a metal-ceramic crown withporcelain occlusal coverage on a molar?


A. Recurrent caries.


B. Cohesive porcelain fracture.


C. Adhesive porcelain fracture.


D. Loss of retention.

C. Adhesive porcelain fracture.

Odontogenic infections can spread by


A. direct extension.


B. lymphatics.


C. ingestion.


D. All of the above.

A. direct extension.

Which of the following presents with highserum calcium levels, thinning of cortical boneand giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw and driftingteeth?


A. Hyperthyroidism.


B. Hyperparathyroidism.


C. Hypothyroidism.


D. Hypoparathyroidism.

B. Hyperparathyroidism.

Papillary hyperplasia under a denture is usuallydue to


A. a candida infection.


B. an ill fitting denture.


C. failure to remove the denture at night.


D. an allergy to the denture material.

B. an ill fitting denture.

The anatomical landmarks used to helpestablish the location of the posterior palatalseal of a maxillary complete denture includethe


A. pterygomaxillary notches and the foveapalatinae.


B. pterygomaxillary notches and theposterior nasal spine.


C. posterior border of the tuberosities andthe posterior border of the palatine bone.


D. anterior border of the tuberosities, thepalatine raphe and the posterior border ofthe palatine bone.

A. pterygomaxillary notches and the fovea palatinae.

Conventional glass ionomer cements


A. elicit less pulp response than zinc-oxideand eugenol cements.


B. do not require a protective liner, such ascalcium hydroxide in a deep preparation.


C. have a lower modulus of elasticity thanzinc phosphate cements.


D. bond mechanically to calcium in enameland dentin.


E. are superior to zinc phosphate cement forluting porcelain (all ceramic) crowns.

C. have a lower modulus of elasticity than zinc phosphate cements.

Which of the following is correct?


A. Supragingival calculus does not rely onsalivary minerals for its calcification.


B. Subgingival calculus is not a by-productof streptoccoci mutans.


C. Subgingival calculus is a result rather thanan initiating factor in periodontal disease.


D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

In an 80 year old patient you would expect


1. a reduced size of the pulp chamber.


2. increased incidence of pulp stones.


3. increased tendency to pulpal fibrosis.


4. an increased pulpal vascularity.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

Clinical examination of a 42 year old heavysmoker reveals a white patch in theretromolar/tonsillar pillar region. The patchcannot be wiped off. The most likely diagnosisis


A. lichen planus.


B. leukoplakia.


C. white sponge nevus.


D. frictional hyperkeratosis.


E. pseudomembranous candidiasis

B. leukoplakia.

In pin-retained restorations, the pin holesshould be parallel to the


A. long axis of the tooth.


B. nearest external surface.


C. pulp chamber.


D. axial wall.

B. nearest external surface.

Which of the following provide the longestduration of anesthesia?


A. Lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000epinephrine.


B. Prilocaine 4% with 1:200,000epinephrine.


C. Bupivacaine 0.5% with 1:200,000epinephrine.D. Articaine 4% with 1:100,000 epinephrine.

C. Bupivacaine 0.5% with 1:200,000 epinephrine.

Glass ionomer cements contain


A. zinc oxide and distilled water.


B. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid.


C. fluoro aluminosilica powder andorthophosphoric acid.


D. fluoro aluminosilica powder andpolyacrylic acid.

D. fluoro aluminosilica powder and polyacrylic acid.

The permanent teeth most frequently to becomeankylosed are


A. canines.


B. incisors.


C. molars.


D. premolars.

A. canines.

During periodontal disease activity, the loss ofclinical attachment


A. precedes alveolar bone loss.


B. follows alveolar bone loss.


C. is concomitant with alveolar bone loss.

A. precedes alveolar bone loss.

Properties of glutaraldehyde include


1. rapid formation of cross linkages whichlimit penetration of pulp tissue.


2. minimal effect on pulp tissues.


3. excellent disinfection against oral flora.


4. minimal effectiveness against viruses andspores.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) only


E. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process


A. limits the distal extent of the mandibulardenture.


B. affects the position and arrangement ofposterior teeth.


C. aids in determining the location of theposterior palatal seal.


D. limits the thickness of the maxillarybuccal denture flange.

D. limits the thickness of the maxillary buccal denture flange.

The best way to protect the abutments of aClass I removable partial denture from thenegative effects of the additional load appliedto them is by


A. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth.


B. keeping a light occlusion on the distalextensions.


C. placing distal rests on distal abutments.


D. using cast clasps on distal abutments.


E. regular relining of the distal extensions.

E. regular relining of the distal extensions.

A patient has an acute periradicular abscess ontooth 1.3. The tooth must be extracted. Inaddition to a palatine injection, the mostappropriate local anesthetic technique is a/an


A. buccal infiltration.


B. infraorbital block.


C. middle superior alveolar block.


D. intraligamentary injection.

B. infraorbital block.

A large encapsulated tumor is removed fromthe hard palate. It is filled with fluid. The bestmethod of determining the nature of this lesionis to


A. examine the fluid under a microscope.


B. culture the fluid and examine for bacterialgrowth.


C. submit the tissue for histologicalexamination


D. submit the tissue for exfoliativecytological study.


E. aspirate the fluid for electrophoresisstudy.

C. submit the tissue for histological examination

The Silness-Löe Index measures


A. periodontal disease.


B. oral hygiene.


C. attachment level.


D. probing depth.

B. oral hygiene.

A line angle NOT present on a Class I cavitypreparation on tooth 1.6 is


A. mesiopulpal.


B. buccopulpal.


C. linguopulpal.


D. axiopulpal.


E. None of the above.

D. axiopulpal.

Which of the following has the potential formalignant transformation?


A. Osteomalacia.


B. Albright's syndrome.


C. Paget's disease.


D. Osteogenesis imperfecta.

C. Paget's disease.

During the extraction of an impacted tooth 3.8the lingual nerve is damaged. All of thefollowing can occur EXCEPT a


A. loss of taste from the anterior 2/3 on theleft side of the tongue.


B. deviation of the tongue to the left onprotrusion.


C. decreased salivary output from the leftsublingual gland.


D. decreased salivary output from the leftsubmandibular gland.


E. numbness of the floor of the mouth on theleft side.

A. loss of taste from the anterior 2/3 on the left side of the tongue.

A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patientwith a 3mm anterior functional shift should betaken with the patient in


A. maximum intercuspation.


B. initial contact.


C. normal rest position.


D. maximum opening.


E. protrusive position.

B. initial contact.

Gold contributes which of the followingproperties to a gold-copper alloy?


A. Corrosion resistance.


B. Increased strength.


C. Lowered specific gravity.


D. Increased hardness.

A. Corrosion resistance.

In gingivitis, the sulcular epithelium


1. is a barrier to bacterial invasion.


2. is permeable to bacterial enzymes andtoxins.


3. may be ulcerated.


4. undergoes both degenerative andproliferative changes.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) only


E. All of the above.

C. (2) and (4)

Upon setting, a mixture of plaster of Paris andwater will exhibit


A. loss in compressive strength.


B. expansion.


C. gain in moisture content.


D. contraction.

B. expansion.

In the preparation of gypsum products, anincrease in the water/powder ratio will


A. increase the surface hardness.


B. increase the compressive strength.


C. accelerate the setting reaction.


D. None of the above.

D. None of the above.

An infant has asymptomatic small whitishoutgrowths at the junction of the soft palate andhard palate. What is the most likely diagnosis?


A. Dental lamina cysts.


B. Epstein pearls.


C. Bohn nodules.


D. Fordyce granules.

C. Bohn nodules.

During the setting phase, a dental stone mixturewill exhibit


A. expansion.


B. contraction.


C. loss in compressive strength.


D. gain in moisture content.

A. expansion.

Which of the following statements aboutsodium is correct?


A. Salt-sensitive people should avoid foodslike oranges and bananas.


B. A high salt intake aggravates but does notcause hypertension.


C. Renal sodium excretion varies indirectlywith total sodium intake.


D. The sodium recommmendation is increasedduring pregnancy

B. A high salt intake aggravates but does not cause hypertension.

A smooth-surface proximal carious lesion


A. initially begins as an enamel defect in thecontact area.


B. in enamel, can be depicted as a cone withthe apex of the cone at the dentino-enameljunction.


C. in enamel, can be depicted as a cone withthe base of the cone at the dentino-enameljunction.


D. initially begins as a subgingival enameldefect covered with plaque.

B. in enamel, can be depicted as a cone with the apex of the cone at the dentino-enamel junction.

Zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are less solublethan


A. zinc phosphate cements.


B. Bis-GMA resin cements.


C. glass ionomer cements.


D. calcium hydroxide cements.

A. zinc phosphate cements.

Which of the following is a proliferativeresponse of the soft tissue to an irritant?


A. Cellulitis.


B. Abscess.


C. Pyogenic granuloma.


D. Apthous ulcer.

C. Pyogenic granuloma.

A hinge axis facebow records


A. Bennett angle.


B. centric relation.


C. lateral condylar inclination.


D. horizontal condylar inclination.


E. opening and closing axis of the mandible.

E. opening and closing axis of the mandible.

A common filler added to resin to producedental composites is


A. calcium salt.


B. quartz.


C. zinc oxide.

B. quartz.

Histological sections of a lesion removed fromthe apex of a carious tooth show immaturefibrous tissue and chronic inflammatory cells.The most likely diagnosis is a/an


A. acute periapical abscess.


B. odontogenic fibroma.


C. radicular cyst.


D. periapical granuloma.


E. central fibroma.

D. periapical granuloma.

A reciprocal clasp arm on a removable partialdenture will provide


1. resistance to horizontal force.


2. indirect retention.


3. stabilization.


4. direct retention.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) only


E. All of the above.

B. (1) and (3)

During guided tissue regeneration therapy, theregenerative cells originate primarily from the


A. lamina propria.


B. periodontal ligament.


C. cellular cementum.


D. collagen membrane.

B. periodontal ligament.

Which of the following plasma proteins has thegreatest ability to bind drugs?


A. Albumin.


B. Fibrinogen.


C. Hemoglobin.


D. Gamma globulin.


E. B-lipoprotein.

A. Albumin.

The amount of radiation to a patient can bereduced by


1. using a high speed film.


2. using an aluminum filter.


3. using low kVp.


4. increasing target-film distance.


5. decreasing target-film distance.


A. (1) (2) (3) (4)


B. (1) (2) (4)


C. (1) (3) (5)


D. (2) (3) (4)


E. (2) (3) (5)

B. (1) (2) (4)

Following curettage and root planing, reductionin pocket depth is due to


A. shrinkage of the gingival tissue.


B. reattachment.


C. epithelial "adhesion" to the tooth.


D. healing of connective tissue.


E. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

In radiology, if target-skin distance is doubled,the exposure time must be


A. doubled.


B. tripled.


C. quadrupled.


D. increased 10 times.

C. quadrupled.

High humidity in a room where zinc oxide andeugenol impression paste is being mixed will


A. increase the setting time.


B. not affect the setting.


C. prevent any setting.


D. decrease the setting time.

D. decrease the setting time.

The absence of adequate drainage in aperiodontal pocket may result in


A. cyst formation.


B. abscess formation.


C. epithelial hyperplasia.


D. increased calculus formation.

B. abscess formation.

Which of the following is/are (an) acceptablemean(s) to obtain the gingival retraction that isneeded when using an elastomeric impressionmaterial for making a final impression in fixedprosthodontics?


1. Electrosurgery.


2. A moist retraction cord.


3. A copper band that is removed when theimpression is made.


4. Using a heavy body material in theimpression tray.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) only


E. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

Radiographs of the mandibular incisor teeth ofa 45 year old healthy black female patientreveal periapical radiolucencies. The teeth arevital and asymptomatic. You would


A. perform a biopsy of the radiolucentlesion.


B. perform endodontic therapy on the fourincisors.


C. place a drain in the affected area.


D. observe periodically.

D. observe periodically.

The gingivectomy approach to pocketelimination results in


A. healing by primary intention.


B. adequate access to correct irregularosseous contours.


C. retention of all or most of the attachedgingiva.


D. None of the above.

C. retention of all or most of the attached gingiva.

Which of the following will result in splittingof developing roots?


A. Epithelial diaphragm forms too manylateromedial extensions.


B. Dental follicle cells migrate into theepithelial diaphragm.


C. Cementoblasts fail to develop on andstabilize the root’s surface.


D. Periodontal ligament forms too soon.

B. Dental follicle cells migrate into the epithelial diaphragm.

Myelopoiesis refers to the formation of


a. erythrocytes, granulocytes and agranulocytes


b. erythrocytes only


c. mononuclear cells only


d. both erythrocytes and granulocytes


e. neutrophilic leukocytes only

d. both erythrocytes and granulocytes

Which one of the following tissues is reduced in amount during the termination of thegrowth of an individual?


a. fibrocartilage


b. elastic cartilage


c. lamellar bone


d. cancellous bone


e. hyaline cartilage

e. hyaline cartilage

In a slide showing spongy bone formed solely by intramembranous ossification, all of thefollowing features may be found upon microscopic examination except


a. non-lamellar bone


b. osteoclasts


c. lamellar bone


d. calcified cartilage


e. periosteum

d. calcified cartilage

Demineralized bone consists chiefly of


a. sialic acid and other mucopolysaccharides


b. osteoid


c. amorphous hydroxyapatite


d. canaliculi and lacunae


e. collagen

e. collagen

Osteoclasts arise from


a. osteocytes


b. osteoblasts


c. osteoclasts


d. monocytes


e. osteoprogenitor cells

d. monocytes

Osteocytes arise most directly from


a. chondrocytes


b. osteoblasts


c. osteoclasts


d. monocytes


e. osteoprogenitor cells

b. osteoblasts

In which of the following regions of the temporomandibular joint would you most expectto find phagocytes?


a. synovial membrane


b. central region of meniscus


c. joint capsule


d. articular tissue


e. synovial cavity

a. synovial membrane

The periodontal ligament is composed chiefly of


a. reticular fibers


b. microfibrils


c. collagen(ic) fibers


d. oxytalan fibers


e. elastic fibers

c. collagen(ic) fibers

The most common cell in connective tissue proper is the


a. mast cell


b. lymphocyte


c. macrophage


d. fibroblast


e. fat cell

d. fibroblast

The most common amino acid of collagen(ic) fibers is


a. proline


b. hydroxyproline


c. glycine


d. lysine


e. alanine

c. glycine

When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, the attached epithelial cuff is composed ofepithelium derived from


a. lamina propria


b. epithelial rests (of Malassez)


c. (Hertwig's) epithelial root sheath


d. oral mucosa


e. reduced enamel epithelium

e. reduced enamel epithelium

Tritiated thymidine is a radioisotope that is incorporated into DNA during the s-stage.Consequently, tritiated thymidine may be used to identify dividing cells. Which cellsof the dental organ would you expect would incorporate tritiated thymidine? Cellswhose function is


a. organizing


b. maturation


c. morphogenic


d. protection


e. secretory

c. morphogenic

Which one of the following is a part of the tooth germ (dental/enamel organ)?


a. inner dental epithelium


b. dental sac


c. dental papilla


d. stellate reticulum


e. dental lamina

e. dental lamina

Which one of the following dental (enamel) organs is usually the first to develop?


a. lst permanent molar


b. 2nd deciduous molar


c. permanent central incisor


d. deciduous central incisor


e. deciduous canine

d. deciduous central incisor

Collagen fibers produced by cementoblasts generally lie in the matrix of cementum


a. parallel to Sharpey's fibers


b. parallel to the surface of the cementum


c. perpendicular to the dentino-cemental junction


d. randomly


e. either b or d

e. either b or d


-parallel to the surface of the cementum


- randomly

Enamel undergoes a marked physical and chemical transition during the


a. desmolytic stage


b. morphogenic stage


c. maturation stage


d. secretory stage


e. protective stage

maturation stage

In order for bleeding of the gingiva to occur blood must pass from the lumen of bloodvessels across which of the following sequences of layers?


a. endothelium, submucosa, lamina propria, epithelium


b. tunica intima, muscularis mucosae, adventitia, stratum germinativumc. endothelium, lamina propria, basal lamina, stratum basale


d. simple squamous epithelium, dense connective tissue, basal lamina, stratifiedsquamous epithelium


e. endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm

d. simple squamous epithelium, dense connective tissue, basal lamina, stratified squamous epithelium

The major inorganic constituent of enamel by weight is


a. collagen


b. sodium


c. phosphate


d. calcium


e. carbonate

c. phosphate

Which one of the following least accurately describes the difference between mantle andcircumpulpal dentin? Mantle dentin


a. contains ground substance formed by cells other than odontoblasts


b. contains collagen that is less closely packed and interwoven


c. mineralization is not dependent on matrix vesicles


d. is formed before circumpulpal dentin


e. contains collagen that is less closely packed and interwoven

c. mineralization is not dependent on matrix vesicles

Which one of the following is a "pure" serous gland?


a. parotid gland (adult)


b. palatine gland


c. submandibular gland


d. labial gland


e. sublingual gland

a. parotid gland (adult)

Hypomineralized structures which extend from the dentino-enamel junction to the surfaceof the enamel and are alined with the longitudinal axis of the tooth are called


a. enamel lamellae


b. Hunter-Schreger bands


c. enamel spindles


d. incremental lines of Retzius


e. enamel rods

enamel lamellae

The cells that form cementum arise from the


a. epithelial diaphragm


b. dental papilla


c. outer enamel epithelium


d. fibroblasts


e. dental sac

e. dental sac

The major organic component of dentin is


a. collagen


b. lactate


c. hydroxyapatite


d. lipid


e. desmosine

a. collagen

Which one of the following is NOT present during the bell stage of tooth development?


a. primary dental (enamel) organ


b. outer dental epithelium


c. epithelial (Serre’s) pearls


d. ameloblasts


e. stratum intermedium

a. primary dental (enamel) organ

All the following structures except one is seen during the cap stage of tooth development


a. inner dental (enamel) epithelium


b. stratum intermedium


c. dental papilla


d. dental follicle (sac)


e. stellate reticulum

b. stratum intermedium

Which feature of cellular cementum best differentiates it from acellular cementum?


a. position on tooth


b. lacunae


c. separate and distinct functions


d. embedded Sharpey's fibers


e. an incremental growth pattern

b. lacunae

Sharpey's fibers are formed principally by


a. osteoblasts


b. fibroblasts


c. odontoblasts


d. epithelial cells in the rests of Malassez


e. cementoblasts

b. fibroblasts

The epithelial (Hertwig's) root sheath is involved in the formation of


a. enamel


b. crown


c. root


d. coronal pulp chamber


e. epithelial pearls

c. root

Ameloblasts are derived from


a. dental papilla


b. outer dental epithelium


c. inner dental epithelium


d. dental sac


e. ectomesenchymal cells

c. inner dental epithelium

The periodontal ligament develops from


a. pulpal tissue


b. dental papilla


c. dental sac


d. outer dental epithelium


e. inner dental epithelium

c. dental sac

Changes in direction of groups of enamelprisms


A. have no functional importance.


B. result from incremental growth.


C. make enamel resistant to fracture.


D. extend to the enamel surface.

C. make enamel resistant to fracture.

A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid offiliform papillae, located in the midline of thedorsum of the tongue immediately anterior tothe circumvallate papillae is indicative of


A. benign migratory glossitis.


B. median rhomboid glossitis.


C. a granular cell tumor.


D. iron deficiency anemia.


E. a fibroma.

B. median rhomboid glossitis.

The fusion which contributes to the formationof the upper lip is the one between


A. maxillary and mandibular processes.


B. maxillary and lateral nasal processes.


C. maxillary and medial nasal processes.


D. medial and lateral nasal processes.


E. lateral and medial palatine processes.

C. maxillary and medial nasal processes.

An excisional biopsy of a nodule 5mm indiameter on the lateral border of the tonguewas diagnosed as a fibroma. This patientshould have


A. hemisection of the tongue.


B. radiotherapy to site of biopsy.


C. no additional therapy.


D. re-excision with wider margins.


E. radium implantation around biopsy site.

C. no additional therapy.

After many caries free years a 78 year oldpatient develops multiple root surface caries.This is most likely the result of


A. changes in cementum composition.


B. exposure of the cementoenamel junctions.


C. decreased salivary flow.


D. changes in dietary pattern.

D. changes in dietary pattern.

Botulinum neurotoxins cause which type ofparalysis?


A. Spastic.


B. Flaccid.


C. Periodic.


D. Brachiofacial

B. Flaccid.

Which of the following are signs of aggressiveperiodontitis?


1. Rapid attachment loss.


2. Suspected periodontal microbialpathogens.


3. Onset before the age of 35.


4. Ulcerations of the gingiva.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) E. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

The metabolic clearance of which of thefollowing drugs is NOT reduced in an elderlypatient?


A. Carbamazepine.


B. Warfarin.


C. Morphine.


D. Clindamycin.

D. Clindamycin.

A 65 year old patient who has recovered from astroke 6 months previously and has a history ofendocarditis requires the extraction of amandibular molar. The vital signs areBlood Pressure: 135/85 mmHgPulse: 76/minRespiratory Rate: 16/minThe most appropriate immediate managementof this patient is to


A. proceed with the treatment.


B. use prophylactic antibiotics.


C. use local anesthetic with no epinephrine.


D. delay treatment for 3 months.

B. use prophylactic antibiotics.

Radiographically, the nasopalatine foramenmay be mistaken for


1. an incisive canal cyst.


2. a simple bone cyst/traumatic bone cyst.


3. a radicular cyst.


4. a naso-alveolar cyst.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) only


E. All of the above.

B. (1) and (3)

Which of the following does NOT influencethe rate of induction during inhalationanesthesia?A. Pulmonary ventilation.


B. Blood supply to the lungs.


C. Hemoglobin content of the blood.


D. Concentration of the anesthetic in theinspired mixture.


E. Solubility of the anesthetic in blood.

C. Hemoglobin content of the blood.

The microorganisms that initially colonize thetooth surface are associated with the genus


A. Porphyromonas.


B. Actinobacillus.


C. Streptococcus.


D. Prevotella.

C. Streptococcus.

The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgampreparation on a mandibular first premolarshould slope apically from


A. mesial to distal.


B. buccal to lingual.


C. distal to mesial.


D. lingual to buccal.

B. buccal to lingual.

Intermittent painful swelling in thesubmandibular region that increases atmealtime is indicative of


A. a ranula.


B. a blockage of Wharton's duct.


C. Ludwig's angina.


D. a blockage of Stensen's duct.


E. an epidemic parotitis.

B. a blockage of Wharton's duct.

Zinc phosphate cement, when used as a lutingagent for cast restorations, has which of thefollowing properties?


1. Insolubility.


2. Anticariogenicity.


3. Chemical adhesion.


4. Mechanical retention.


A. (1) (2) (3)


B. (1) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (4) only


E. All of the above.

D. (4) only

A 6 year old patient has an intrusive injury totooth 5.2. All of the following are possiblesequelae to the permanent successor EXCEPT


A. enamel hypoplasia.


B. root dilaceration.


C. delayed eruption.


D. ectopic eruption.

A. enamel hypoplasia.

Multinucleated giant cells are associated with


1. plasmocytoma.


2. odontogenic myxoma.


3. hyperparathyroidism.


4. tuberculosis.


5. osteoclastoma.


A. (1) (3) (4)


B. (2) and (3)


C. (2) and (4)


D. (3) (4) (5)


E. (2) (4) (5)

D. (3) (4) (5)

Which of the following statements regardingphysiologic changes in an elderly patient isNOT correct?


A. Reduced gastric emptying can lead to adecrease in drug absorption.


B. Renal blood flow is decreased.


C. Lipid soluble drugs remain in the body fora longer period of time.


D. Relative tissue perfusion is unaltered.

A. Reduced gastric emptying can lead to a decrease in drug absorption.

Which statement is true?


A. Radiographs can differentiate betweeninfected and non-infected periapicallesions.


B. A definitive diagnosis of an apical lesioncannot be made using radiography alone.


C. Periapical radiolucencies are indicative ofloss of pulp vitality.


D. A periapical radiograph can be used to locate the buccal bone level

B. A definitive diagnosis of an apical lesion cannot be made using radiography alone.

The use of aspirating syringes for theadministration of local anesthetics isrecommended because


1. the effectiveness of local anesthesia isincreased.


2. aspiration of blood is proof that the needleis in an intravascular location.


3. their use removes the hazard of rapidinjection and provides a distinct saving oftime.


4. their use reduces the frequency ofaccidental intravenous injection.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

C. (2) and (4)

The most appropriate management of a painlessulcer of two months duration affecting thelateral border of the tongue is to


A. prescribe systemic antibiotics.


B. perform an incisional biopsy.


C. re-evaluate in 6 months.


D. obtain a complete blood count.


E. obtain a cytologic smear.

B. perform an incisional biopsy.

In chronic gingivitis, the sulcular epithelium


1. is a barrier to bacterial invasion.


2. is permeable to bacterial enzymes andtoxins.


3. may be ulcerated.


4. undergoes both degenerative andproliferative changes.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above

C. (2) and (4)

Decreased alveolar bone density is associatedwith decreased levels of


A. thyroxin.


B. hydrocortisone.


C. parathyroid hormone.


D. estrogen.

D. estrogen.

A 12 year old patient has the followingcephalometric values:SNA = 87° (N = 82°)SNB = 80° (N = 80°)Mandibular Plane Angle = 32°(N = 32°)FMA = 26° (N = 26°)The patient is a skeletal Angle Class II with a


A. normally protrusive maxilla and aretrognathic mandible.


B. protrusive maxilla and an orthognathicmandible.


C. protrusive maxilla and a retrognathicmandible.


D. retrusive maxilla and an orthognathicmandible.

B. protrusive maxilla and an orthognathic mandible.

A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9year old should


A. self-correct.


B. be treated with a removable appliance.


C. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment.


D. be treated in the complete permanentdentition.


E. be observed and treated when the cuspidshave erupted.

B. be treated with a removable appliance.

Typically, vital pulps of elderly patients


A. show a decrease in the number ofcollagenous fibres.


B. have decreased reparative capacitycompared to younger adults.


C. form dentinal bridges after appropriatepulp capping procedures.


D. show an increase in myelinated nerveswhen compared to pulps of younger adults.

B. have decreased reparative capacity compared to younger adults.

The most common complication of avenipuncture is


A. syncope.


B. hematoma.


C. thrombophlebitis.


D. embolus.

B. hematoma.

Which part of the brain is NOT primarilyinvolved in motor control?


A. Cerebellum.


B. Basal ganglia.


C. Occipital lobe.


D. Frontal lobe.

C. Occipital lobe.

The most common order of serial extraction inthe maxillary arch is


A. primary canines, first premolars, primaryfirst molars.


B. primary canines, primary first molars, firstpremolars.


C. first premolars, primary canines, primaryfirst molars.


D. primary first molars, primary canines, firstpremolars

B. primary canines, primary first molars, first premolars.

Cephalosporins


1. may be cross-allergenic with penicillin.


2. have a narrower spectrum than penicillin.


3. have a mechanism of action similar to thatof penicillin.


4. may cause cholestatic hepatitis.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

B. (1) and (3)

For which of the following pathologicalconditions would a lower central incisor toothbe expected to respond to heat, cold andelectric pulp test?


A. Apical cyst.


B. Acute apical abscess.


C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.


D. Chronic apical periodontitis.

C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.

If a periodontal probe is inserted 4 or 5mm tothe base of a pocket on the mesialbuccal of atooth and then pushed facially causingblanching, this indicates that


A. gingival hyperplasia exists.


B. there is an inadequate zone of attachedgingiva.


C. the lateral wall of the pocket does notconsist of bone.

C. the lateral wall of the pocket does not consist of bone.

In cephalometric analysis of children withmalocclusion, the angle ANB is frequentlyused. In patients with severe Class~IImalocclusion, this angle is


A. greater than the normal.


B. less than the normal.


C. normal.


D. unrelated.

A. greater than the normal.

The most common malignant tumor of thetongue is a/an


A. papilloma.


B. adenocarcinoma.


C. fibrosarcoma.


D. squamous cell carcinoma.


E. granular cell myoblastoma.

D. squamous cell carcinoma.

After a thermal stimulus has been removedfrom a tooth persistent pain suggests


A. a normal pulp.


B. pulp necrosis.


C. reversible pulpitis.


D. irreversible pulpitis.


E. exposed cervical dentin.

D. irreversible pulpitis.

When closing a diastema with directcomposite, care must be taken to ensure thatthe


A. width to height relationships areappropriate.


B. entire embrasure is filled.


C. restoration does not extend subgingivally.


D. enamel is reduced 0.3 to 0.5mm prior toetching.

A. width to height relationships are appropriate.

Which one of the following is NOT acontraindication to ibuprofen?


A. Concurrent use of alcohol.


B. Asthmatic reaction to acetylsalicylic acid.


C. An allergy to acetaminophen.


D. A gastric ulcer.

C. An allergy to acetaminophen.

A laboratory remount of processed dentures isdone in order to correct occlusal disharmonyproduced by errors primarily in the


A. mounting of the casts in the articulator.


B. registration of jaw relation records.


C. processing of acrylic.


D. setting of condylar guidance.

C. processing of acrylic.

Polycarboxylate cement may be used as a basematerial beneath a metallic restoration because


A. its thermal conductivity is similar todentin and enamel.


B. its thermal diffusivity is similar to dentinand enamel.


C. its compressive strength when set willresist forces of condensation.


D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

Mandibular condylar region grows by


A. sutural and interstitial proliferation.


B. interstitial and appositional proliferation.


C. appositional and sutural proliferation.


D. interstitial proliferation only.


E. appositional proliferation only.

B. interstitial and appositional proliferation.

Which of the following is NOT a feature ofbruxism?


A. Radiographic evidence of the widening ofthe periodontal ligament.


B. Increased mobility of teeth.


C. Premature wear of occlusal surfaces.


D. Erosion.

D. Erosion.

To maintain pulp health and vitality, thepreferred treatment for asymptomatic teeth withvery deep dentinal caries is


A. direct pulp capping using a dentin bondingagent.


B. to avoid pulp exposure and use indirectpulp capping.


C. direct pulp capping using calciumhydroxide.


D. to remove all affected dentin.

B. to avoid pulp exposure and use indirect pulp capping.

What percentage of natal teeth aresupernumerary?


A. 10.


B. 50.


C. 90.

A. 10.

After the elimination of occlusal trauma, evenin the presence of inflammation, which of thefollowing is most likely to result?


A. Reduction in tooth mobility.


B. Regeneration of the periodontal ligament.


C. Restoration of lost alveolar bone.


D. Gain of clinical attachment.

A. Reduction in tooth mobility.

Which of the following drugs has the strongestantisialagogue properties?


A. Codeine.


B. Atropine.


C. Acetylsalicylic acid.


D. Ibuprofen.


E. Penicillin.

B. Atropine.

*To achieve optimum strength and esthetics, ametal ceramic restoration with a porcelain buttjoint margin should really have a


A. 0.8 – 1.0mm shoulder reduction.


B. 0.8 – 1.0mm incisal reduction.


C. 90 degree cavosurface margin.


D. finish line that is 2mm subgingival.

C. 90 degree cavosurface margin.

A modified hinge non-adjustable articulator islimited in its accuracy to reproduce dynamicjaw movements because it can only reproduce


A. large centric relation-maximumintercuspation slides.


B. one hinge axis movement.


C. eccentric movements by multiplelateroprotrusive registrations.

B. one hinge axis movement.

Laboratory examination of the blood of apatient with an acute bacterial infection wouldshow


A. lymphocytosis.


B. leukocytosis.


C. monocytosis.


D. leukopenia.


E. eosinophilia.

B. leukocytosis.

A silane coupling agent is used to


A. control polymerization shrinkage incomposite resins.


B. enhance the bond between a porcelainveneer and the resin cement.


C. reduce the surface tension when investinga wax pattern.


D. facilitate the soldering of gold castings.

B. enhance the bond between a porcelain veneer and the resin cement.

Which one of the following statements isFALSE?A. Stippling in healthy gingiva varies withlocation.


B. Healthy gingiva does not bleed.


C. The interdental papillae in the posteriorregions are broader than in the anteriorregion.D. Healthy gingiva is bright red in color.

D. Healthy gingiva is bright red in color.

In endodontic therapy, the most effectiveirrigating solution for dissolving organic debrisisA. ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).


B. sodium hypochlorite.


C. calcium hydroxide.


D. hydrogen peroxide.


E. sodium chloride.

B. sodium hypochlorite.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor forperiodontitis?


A. Smoking.


B. Poorly controlled diabetes.


C. Coronary heart disease.


D. Poor oral hygiene

C. Coronary heart disease.

A very apprehensive patient experiencing painmay be prescribed a barbiturate, chloralhydrate or an antihistamine to control theanxiety. In which of the following would youexpect an exaggerated response to the use ofthese drugs?


1. A diabetic.


2. The elderly.


3. A rheumatic.


4. A patient with chronic renal disease.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

C. (2) and (4)

INITIAL treatment of necrotizing ulcerativegingivitis includes


1. debridement.


2. oral hygiene instruction.


3. occlusal adjustment.


4. gingivoplasty.


A. (1) and (2)B. (1) (2) (3)C. (1) (2) (4)D. (2) and (3)E. (2) and (4)

A. (1) and (2)

Cephalometrics is useful in assessing which ofthe following relationships?


A. Tooth-to-tooth.


B. Bone-to-bone.


C. Tooth-to-bone.


D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

An endomorph is characterized as a personwho


A. is short and fat.


B. is tall and thin.


C. is muscular.


D. matures early.


E. matures late.

A. is short and fat.

A 78 year old patient presents with severalcarious lesions on the root surfaces of themaxillary posterior teeth. The restorativematerial of choice is a


A. microfilled composite resin.


B. hybrid composite resin.


C. silver amalgam.


D. glass ionomer cement.


E. reinforced zinc oxide and eugenolcement.

D. glass ionomer cement.

The most effective appliance to correct midfaceretrusion in the early mixed dentition is (a)


A. inter-arch elastics.


B. chin cup.


C. reverse-pull headgear.


D. bionator.

C. reverse-pull headgear.

Which of the following statements is correctwith regard to root canal instrumentation?


A. Reamers only are used in curved canals.


B. Reamers or files are placed in the canal toits determined length, rotated onecomplete turn, removed, cleaned and theprocess repeated.


C. If the root canal is curved the instrumentmust be precurved before insertion.


D. Files are more effective than reamers forremoving necrotic debris from rootcanals.


E. Use of a reamer must be followed by useof a corresponding file.

C. If the root canal is curved the instrument must be precurved before insertion.

After a tooth surface has been completelycleaned, the new mucoprotein coating whichforms on the surface is called


A. pellicle.


B. plaque.


C. materia alba.


D. primary cuticle.


E. Nasmyth's membrane.

A. pellicle.

If the norm for the cephalometric angle SNA is82 degrees and a patient's SNA is 90 degrees,this would likely indicate


A. protrusive maxillary incisors.


B. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base.


C. maxillary prognathism.


D. mandibular prognathism.

C. maxillary prognathism.

Overeruption of the posterior teeth results inincreased


1. crowding.


2. overbite.


3. overjet.


4. rotation.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above

D. (4) only

Periodontal pockets CANNOT be reduced by


A. occlusal adjustment.


B. scaling and root planing.


C. open flap curettage.


D. guided tissue regeneration.

A. occlusal adjustment.

Lack of ramus height is caused by faultydevelopment of


A. membranous bone.


B. endochondral bone.


C. Meckel’s cartilage.


D. temporomandibular joint.

B. endochondral bone.

In taking an impression with polysulfide orsilicone materials, if the heavy bodied traymaterial begins to set before seating, theresultant die will


A. not be affected dimensionally.


B. be overall smaller.


C. be overall larger.


D. develop a rough surface texture.


E. develop bubbles at the interface of thesyringe and tray material.

B. be overall smaller.

Which medication is used to control pulpalhemorrhage when performing an emergencypulpotomy?


A. Iodoform.


B. Ferric sulfate (15%).


C. C.M.C.P.


D. Cresatin.


E. Epinephrine (1:1000).


F. Formocresol.

B. Ferric sulfate (15%).

The addition of platinum to a dental gold alloyresults in increased


1. strength.


2. hardness.


3. melting point.


4. resistance to corrosion.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

C. (2) and (4)

Which of the following should be evaluated forsurgical removal before new complete denturesare fabricated?


1. Mandibular tori.


2. Epulis fissuratum.


3. Papillary hyperplasia.


4. Sharp, prominent mylohyoid ridges.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

A 10 year old girl has poorly formed, distortedpermanent right maxillary canine, lateral andcentral incisors. The remaining teeth andsupporting structures are unremarkable. Thepatient most likely has


A. ectodermal dysplasia.


B. segmental odontomaxillary dysplasia.


C. radicular dentin dysplasia.


D. regional odontodysplasia.


E. coronal dentin dysplasia.

D. regional odontodysplasia.

*Which of the following space maintainers ismost appropriate for a patient with the bilateralloss of mandibular first primary molars prior tothe eruption of the permanent molars andpermanent incisors?


A. Lingual holding arch.


B. Bilateral distal shoes.


C. Bilateral band and loop.


D. Nance appliance.

C. Bilateral band and loop.

Idiopathic osteosclerosis is


A. painful.


B. found mostly in the maxilla.


C. radiolucent.


D. nonexpansile.

D. nonexpansile.

Which one of the following statements is trueas defined in endodontics?


A. Overfilling refers to the incomplete fillingof the canal system with a surplus ofmaterial extruding beyond the apicalforamen.


B. Underfilling refers to the complete fillingof the canal space, but leaving voids inthe pulp chamber for possiblerecontamination or infection.


C. Overextension refers to the extrusion offilling material through an accessorycanal.


D. Underextension refers to the verticalextent of the filling material regardless ofits completeness of obturation.E. All of the above.

D. Underextension refers to the vertical extent of the filling material regardless of its completeness of

Which of the following pharmacokineticchange(s) occur(s) with aging?


1. Absorption is altered by a decrease in thegastric pH.


2. Metabolism is decreased by a reducedliver mass.


3. Distribution is altered by a decrease intotal body fat.


4. Excretion is reduced because of lessenedrenal blood flow.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

D. (4) only

Following the administration of a right inferioralveolar nerve block, right facial paralysis isnoted. Which of the following muscles is NOTaffected?


A. Levator palpebrae superioris.


B. Buccinator.


C. Mentalis.


D. Nasalis.


E. Orbicularis oris.

A. Levator palpebrae superioris.

The occlusal parameter that is most useful todifferentiate between an overbite of dental orskeletal origin is the


A. mandibular curve of Spee.


B. mandibular curve of Wilson.


C. molar sagittal relationship.


D. mandibular anterior lack of space.


E. maxillary curve of Wilson.

C. molar sagittal relationship.

What is the most important factor to considerwhen deciding whether or not to use pulpprotection?


A. depth of the pulpal floor.


B. thickness of the remaining dentin.


C. amount of carious material removed.


D. location of the carious lesion.

B. thickness of the remaining dentin.

Which of the following structures may beassociated with the role of the central nervoussystem in sleep (nocturnal) bruxism?


A. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal).


B. A delta and C nerves.


C. Sphenopalatine ganglion.


D. Petrous nerves.

A. Basal ganglia (nigrostriatal).

With two rescuers performing cardiopulmonaryresuscitation (CPR) on an adult patient, howmany external chest compressions are given perminute?


A. 40.


B. 60.


C. 80.


D. 100.

D. 100.

Metabolism of ibuprofen is NOT affected by


A. decreased cardiac output.


B. plasma protein binding.


C. gastric emptying rate.


D. hepatic enzyme activity.

A. decreased cardiac output.

Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia,increased mitosis, intact basal cell layer andchronic inflammatory cells are histologicfeatures that may be found in


A. squamous cell carcinoma.


B. carcinoma in situ.


C. papillofibroma.


D. endothelioma.

B. carcinoma in situ.

A patient presents with a 3 week history ofprolonged tooth pain to hot and cold. Threedays ago the symptoms changed to moderatepain on biting combined with a dull,spontaneous ache relieved by cold. The mostlikely diagnosis is


A. chronic apical abscess.


B. a cracked tooth.


C. pulpal necrosis.


D. reversible pulpitis.


E. a vertical root fracture.

A. chronic apical abscess.

Increasing the kilovoltage results in greater


1. gamma radiation.


2. penetration.


3. collimation.


4. secondary radiation.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) only.E. All of the above

C. (2) and (4)

Which of the following statements is trueregarding the radiographic appearance offurcation involvements?


A. A definitive diagnosis can be made from aradiograph.


B. Bone loss is greater than it appears on aradiograph.


C. They are best evaluated with periapicalradiographs.


D. Furcation involvements cannot be seen onradiographs.

C. They are best evaluated with periapical radiographs.

With respect to local anaesthetics, which of thefollowing statements is/are correct?


A. Certain nerve fibers are more susceptible.


B. In mixed nerves, sensory fibers are moresusceptible.


C. They are marketed as water-soluble acidsalts.


D. They are capable of blocking every typeof nerve tissue.


E. All of the above.

C. They are marketed as water-soluble acid salts.

Clinical diagnosis of periodontitis requires thepresence of


1. bleeding upon probing.


2. loss of periodontal attachment.


3. a periodontal pocket.


4. tooth mobility.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

Localized gingival recession of a mandibularpermanent incisor in an 8 year old can becaused by


A. vitamin C deficiency.


B. ankyloglossia.


C. localized aggressive (juvenile)periodontitis.


D. traumatic occlusion.


E. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

C. localized aggressive (juvenile) periodontitis.

The sharpness of a radiographic image can beimproved by


A. increasing the object-to-film distance.


B. using a larger focal spot.


C. using a larger collimator.


D. increasing the focal spot-to-film distance.

D. increasing the focal spot-to-film distance.

Which of the following statements is/are trueregarding diazepam?


1. Its long duration of action is partly due toactive metabolites.


2. It does not produce anti-anxiety effectsafter intramuscular administration.


3. Intravenous administration is morereliable than oral.


4. Its sedative effect can be reversed bynaloxone.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

A 75-year old female patient is being treatedfor oral lichen planus with a topicalcorticosteroid. She also has low vitamin D.The most likely cause of a reduced alveolarbone mass in this patient is


A. postmenopausal osteoporosis.


B. senile osteoporosis.


C. drug-induced osteoporosis.


D. osteomalacia

D. osteomalacia

Shock is a circulatory disturbance characterizedby


A. increase in blood pressure.


B. alteration in circulating blood volume.


C. elevation of temperature.


D. decrease in amount of interstitial fluid.

B. alteration in circulating blood volume.

In chronic periodontitis, the causativemicroorganisms are found in


1. the periodontal ligament.


2. the connective tissues of the gingiva.


3. the alveolar bone.


4. the periodontal pocket.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

A patient is hit in the right eye with a baseball.Which of the following would indicate a rightorbital floor fracture?


A. Right periorbital edema.


B. Right periorbital ecchymosis.


C. Limited upward movement of the righteye.


D. Premature occlusal contact on themaxillary right.

C. Limited upward movement of the right eye.

Which of the following is caused by a specificmicroorganism?


A. Geographic tongue.


B. Lichen planus.


C. Median rhomboid glossitis.


D. Pyogenic granuloma.

C. Median rhomboid glossitis.

The epithelium covering the lesions of chronichyperplastic pulpitis is believed to be derivedfrom the


A. reduced enamel epithelium.


B. epithelium of the gingiva.


C. odontoblastic layer.


D. epithelial rests of Malassez.


E. remnants of the dental lamina.

D. epithelial rests of Malassez.

In acutely inflamed gingival tissue, there is anincrease in theA. number of mast cells.B. number of plasma cells.C. level of histamine.D. A. and B.E. A. and C.

E. A. and C.

Cementing a full gold crown with zincphosphate includes


1. applying a thick coat of cement internally.


2. application of continuous loading.


3. cleaning excess cement off while setting.


4. having excess cement covering themargins.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

B. (1) and (3)

Which of the following is associated withaggressive periodontitis in adolescents?


A. Treponema denticola.


B. Aggregatibacter (Actinobacillus)actinomycetemcomitans.


C. Porphyromonas gingivalis.


D. Prevotella intermedia.

B. Aggregatibacter (Actinobacillus)

The predominant micro-organisms associatedwith periodontitis are


A. gram-positive aerobes.


B. gram-negative aerobes.


C. gram-positive anaerobes.


D. gram-negative anaerobes.

D. gram-negative anaerobes.

Which condition produces a radiopaque image?A. Osteomalacia.


B. Multiple myeloma.


C. Osteopetrosis.


D. Letterer-Siwe disease.


E. Central giant cell granuloma.

C. Osteopetrosis.

Upon stimulation of salivary flow, which glandis the main source of salivary volume?


A. Submandibular.


B. Submaxillary.


C. Sublingual.


D. Parotid.

D. Parotid.

In placing an amalgam, interproximal wedgingwill be most effective in controlling the


A. buccal contour.


B. gingival contour.


C. lingual contour.


D. marginal ridge contour.

D. marginal ridge contour.

Which of the following, if left untreated, ismost likely to result in a periapical lesion?


A. Internal resorption.


B. Reversible pulpitis.


C. Acute suppurative pulpitis.


D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis.


E. Diffuse calcification of the pulp.

C. Acute suppurative pulpitis.

The most appropriate time to begin orthodonticcorrection of an Angle Class II malocclusion is


A. following eruption of the maxillary firstpermanent molars.


B. following eruption of the maxillarypermanent central and lateral incisors.


C. several months prior to the pubertalgrowth spurt.


D. at the start of the pubertal growth spurt.

D. at the start of the pubertal growth spurt.

A suprabony pocket is associated with


1. enlargement of the marginal gingiva.


2. horizontal loss of alveolar bone.


3. subgingival calculus.


4. spontaneous bleeding.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above

C. (2) and (4)

The average annual dose of ionizing radiationthat a patient receives from dental radiographsis


A. greater than the average amount receivedfrom natural sources.


B. about the same as the average amountreceived from medical sources.


C. about the same as the average amountreceived from cosmic radiation.


D. low when compared to the average totalamount of radiation received.

D. low when compared to the average total amount of radiation received.

The immediate treatment of a periodontalabscess is to


A. establish drainage.


B. prescribe an analgesic.


C. relieve the occlusion.


D. prescribe an antibiotic.

A. establish drainage.

For an acid-etched Class III composite resin,the cavosurface margin of the cavity can bebevelled to


A. eliminate the need for internal retention.


B. improve convenience form.


C. aid in finishing.


D. increase the surface area for etching.

D. increase the surface area for etching.

Retention of a gold inlay is improved by


1. addition of an occlusal dovetail.


2. increasing the parallelism of walls.


3. lengthening the axial walls.


4. placing a gingival bevel.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

A. (1) (2) (3)

A patient complains of tooth pain which issharp and stabbing when chewing sweet or coldfoods. Pain is relieved by warmth and directpressure. Your diagnosis is


A. a carious lesion with pulpal inflammation.


B. a carious lesion with pulp degeneration.


C. traumatic occlusion.


D. a cracked tooth.

D. a cracked tooth.

Which of the following applies to gutta-percha?


A. It can be thermoplasticized.


B. It is a good thermal conductor.


C. It can be inserted easily into fine canals.


D. It is soluble in periapical exudate.

A. It can be thermoplasticized.

Which of the following isare (an) indication(s)for the removal of impacted mandibular thirdmolars?


1. Recurrent pericoronitis.


2. Prevention of crowding of mandibularincisors.


3. Pain.


4. They are impacted.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

Prevention of gingival irritation by a majorconnector of a removable partial denture isaccomplished by


A. using split palatal bars.


B. reducing the size of the connector.


C. ensuring maximum distribution ofocclusal forces.


D. providing relief between the connectorand the gingiva.

D. providing relief between the connector and the gingiva.

An increase of immunoglobulins is consistentwith increased numbers of


A. fibroblasts.


B. neutrophils.


C. lymphocytes.


D. plasma cells.

D. plasma cells.

A surgical flap not repositioned over a bonybase will result in


1. slower healing.


2. foreign body inflammatory reaction.


3. wound dehiscence.


4. necrosis of bone.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

B. (1) and (3)

In a removable partial denture, a palatal strap isused instead of a narrow bar because it is


A. more rigid with less thickness.


B. easier to polish.


C. more stable.


D. less irritating to the soft tissues.


E. more hygienic.

A. more rigid with less thickness.

*Regardless of the target-film distance employedfor intraoral surveys, the diameter of theprimary beam at the patient's skin surfaceshould not be greater thanA. the longest side of the film.B. the size of the lead diaphragm.C. 7cm.D. the size of the filter.

C. 7cm.

The predominant organisms associated withactive periodontitis are


1. cocci.


2. rods.


3. spirochetes.


4. motile rods.


A. (1) and (2)B. (3) and (4)C. (1) only


D. (1) and (3)E. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

What is the name of the area in which the resinof the adhesive system micromechanicallyinterlocks with dentinal collagen?


A. Active zone.


B. Smear layer.


C. Hybrid layer.


D. Adhesive zone.

C. Hybrid layer.

The primary role of calcium hydroxide inindirect pulp cap procedures is to


A. reduce bacterial load.


B. occlude the dentinal tubules.


C. build up the internal form of the cavitypreparation.


D. provide a hermetic seal.

B. occlude the dentinal tubules.

An 8 year old patient presents 4 hours posttraumawith an oblique crown fracture of 2.1exposing 2mm of vital pulp. The mostappropriate pulpal treatment is


A. apexogenesis.


B. apexification.


C. extraction.


D. root canal treatment.

A. apexogenesis.

Diabetes mellitus is the result of


A. hypersecretion of the posterior pituitary.


B. atrophy of the islands of Langerhans.


C. destruction of the adrenal cortex.


D. destruction of the posterior pituitary orassociated hypothalamic centres.

B. atrophy of the islands of Langerhans.

Which of the following microorganisms aremost frequently found in infected root canals?


A. Streptococcus viridans.


B. Staphylococcus aureus.


C. Lactobacilli.


D. Enterococci.


E. Staphylococcus albus

A. Streptococcus viridans.

Which of the following statements concerningthe airway is correct?


A. Sympathetic fibres constrict thebronchioles.


B. The trachea is membranous posteriorly toaccommodate the pulsations of the aorta.


C. The right primary bronchus forms twosecondary bronchi.


D. An aspirated foreign body would likelyfall into the right primary bronchus.

D. An aspirated foreign body would likely fall into the right primary bronchus.

A recommended method for disinfectingalginate impressions is to immerse theimpression for 10 minutes in


A. a complex phenolic.


B. 2% glutaraldehyde.


C. 10% ethyl alcohol.


D. a 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite

D. a 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite

The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgampreparation on a mandibular first premolarshould slope apically from


A. mesial to distal.


B. buccal to lingual.


C. distal to mesial.


D. lingual to buccal.

B. buccal to lingual.

Which of the following steroids can produceCushing's syndrome?


A. Estradiol.


B. Testosterone.


C. Prednisolone.


D. Progesterone.


E. Diethylstilbestrol.

C. Prednisolone.

Early anoxia is characterized by


1. cyanosis.


2. bradycardia.


3. tachycardia


A. (1) onlyB. (1) and (2)C. (1) and (3)D. All of the above.

C. (1) and (3)

Upon examination of an edentulous patient, itis observed that the tuberosities contact theretromolar pads at the correct occlusal verticaldimension. The treatment of choice is to


A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically toprovide the necessary clearance.


B. reduce the tuberosities surgically toprovide the necessary clearance.


C. construct new dentures at an increasedocclusal vertical dimension to gain thenecessary clearance.


D. proceed with construction of the dentureand reduce the posterior extension of themandibular denture to eliminateinterferences.

B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance.

On Monday morning, a seven-year old childpresents with a 3 mm, coronal fracture withpulp exposure of the maxillary left centralincisor, which occurred during a football gameSunday afternoon. The tooth is sensitive to hotand cold fluids. The treatment of choice is


A. direct pulp capping with calciumhydroxide and a suitable protectiverestoration.


B. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy.


C. gutta-percha pulpectomy.


D. gutta-percha pulpectomy followed by anapicoectomy.


E. root-end induction.

B. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy.

A patient prescribed metronidazole shouldavoid


A. alcohol.


B. antacids.


C. caffeine.


D. cheese.


E. grapefruit juice.

A. alcohol.

In the Vita® Classical Shade Guide, the hue ofthe A shade series is


A. red.


B. grey.


C. yellow.


D. brown.

D. brown.

Distortion of a wax pattern is mainly due to


A. insufficient plasticity duringmanipulation.


B. insufficient bulk of material.


C. relaxation of stresses introduced duringmanipulation.


D. insufficient paraffin ingredient.


E. refrigeration.

C. relaxation of stresses introduced during manipulation.

Which of the following types of bone containthe insertions of the periodontal ligamentfibres?A. Woven.B. Bundle.C. Lamellar.D. Cortical.

B. Bundle

Low serum levels of parathyroid hormone andvitamin D combined with low bone mass in theskeleton are consistent with the diagnosis of


A. hypoparathyroidism.


B. hypothyroidism.


C. dietary calcium deficiency.


D. postmenopausal osteoporosis.

A. hypoparathyroidism.

The most likely diagnosis for a patient with aninterincisal opening of 30mm before feelingpain and a maximum opening of 44mm withpain isA. internal derangement of the TMJ withreduction.


B. internal derangement of the TMJ withoutreduction.C. tetani of the masticatory muscles.D. subluxation of the TMJ.E. myofascial pain

E. myofascial pain

Which of the following is the most powerfuljaw-closing muscle?


A. Temporalis.


B. Lateral pterygoid.


C. Masseter.


D. Medial pterygoid.

C. Masseter.

Microbial virulence factors


A. are produced by non-pathogenicmicrobes.


B. are always pathogenic.


C. include exotoxins, capsules, endotoxinsand enzymes.


D. are caused only by Gram-positivemicrobes.

C. include exotoxins, capsules, endotoxins and enzymes.

The primate spaces are located between the


1. maxillary canines and lateral incisors.


2. maxillary canines and first molars.


3. mandibular canines and first molars.


4. mandibular canines and lateral incisors.


A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)D. (4) onlyE. All of the above.

B. (1) and (3)

The major connector of aremovable partial denture should be designed to


A. rigidly connect the denturecomponents.


B. act as a stress-breaker.


C. dissipate vertical forces.


D. distribute forces to the softtissues.

A. rigidly connect the denture components.

Following rootplaning, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associatedwith which of the following?


A. Golgi receptor.


B. Free nerve endings.


C. Odontoblastic processes.


D. Cementoblasts.

C. Odontoblastic processes.

An articlereports that subjects receiving chlorhexidine varnish had significantly lower(pStreptococcus mutans levels than did those receiving fluoride varnish. Whattype of reporting error is of the most concern when interpreting these results?


A. Type II (ß)error.


B. Type I (ß)error.


C. Type II (α)error.


D. Type I (α)error

A. Type II (ß) error.

In which salivary gland is a pleomorphic adenoma mostfrequently found?


A. Parotid.


B. Submandibular.


C. Sublingual.

A. Parotid.

In gingivitis, theinitial cellular immune response predominantly involves


A. T lymphocytes.


B. Blymphocytes.


C. neutrophils.


D. plasma cells.

D. plasma cells.

The main purpose of flux in soldering is to


A. dissolvesurface oxides and prevent further oxidation.


B. prevent recrystallization andgrain growth.


C. prevent oxidation and lower the melting range of the solder.


D. dissolve surface oxides and lower the melting range.

A. dissolve surface oxides and prevent further oxidation.

Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to causegingival hyperplasia?


A. Cyclosporine.


B. Fluoxetine.


C. Phenytoin.


D. Nifedipine.

B. Fluoxetine.

Periodontitis


1. develops from gingivitis.


2. is associated with continuous destruction of the alveolarbone.


3. goes through stages of tissue destruction and quiessence.


4. results in occlusal traumatism.


A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E.All of the above.

B. (1) and (3)

Which of the following hemostatic agents is most likely tocreate a systemic reaction?


A. Aluminum sulphate (Pascord®).


B. Aluminum chloride (Hemodent®).


C. Epinephrine(Racord®).


D. Ferric sulphate (Astringedent®).

C. Epinephrine (Racord®).

Widening of the periodontal space is NOT seenradiographically in


A. trauma from occlusion.


B. orthodontic tooth movement.


C. scleroderma.


D. Paget's disease.

D. Paget's disease.

Multiple osteomas and supernumerary teeth may be associatedwith


A. Gorlin’s syndrome.


B. Rubenstein – Taybi syndrome.


C.Gardner’s syndrome.


D. Cleidocranial dysplasia.


E. Ectodermal dysplasia. 's

C. Gardner’s syndrome.

Methyl methacrylate resins will perform better thancomposite resins for long span, temporary bridges because of superior


A. hardness.


B. fracture toughness.


C. wearresistance.


D. dimensional stability.

B. fracture toughness.

Whichform of hepatitis does NOT have a known carrier state?


A. Hepatitis A.


B.Hepatitis B.


C. Hepatitis C.


D. Hepatitis D

A. Hepatitis A.

A decrease in the particle size ofthe amalgam alloy will affect the amalgam by


A. increasing flow.


B. decreasingexpansion.


C. retarding setting rate.


D. increasing early strength.

D. increasing early strength.

Gingivitisis a reversible form of periodontal disease. Gingivitis does not necessarilyprogress to periodontitis.


A. The first statement is true, the second false.


B.The first statement is false, the second true.


C. Both statements are true.


D.Both statements are false.

C. Both statements are true.

Themodulus of elasticity of a material is determined by


A. dividing stress bystrain below elastic limit.


B. dividing strain by stress.


C. multiplyingproportional limit by strain.


D. squaring proportional limit and dividing bystrain

A. dividing stress by strain below elastic limit.

The modulus of elasticity of a materialis determined by


A. dividing stress by strain belowelastic limit.


B. dividing strain by stress.


C. multiplying proportional limitby strain.


D. squaring proportional limit anddividing by strain

A. dividing stress by strain below elastic limit.

At his first post insertionappointment, a patient with a new removable partial denture complains of atender abutment tooth. The most likely cause is


A. overextended borders of the partial. inadequatepolishing of the framework.


B. improper path of insertion.


C. the occlusion.

C. the occlusion.

Which muscle is primarilyresponsible for moving the mandible to a lateral position?


A. Masseter.


B. Lateral pterygoid.


C. Medial pterygoid.


D. Buccinator.


E. Temporalis. >

B. Lateral pterygoid.

Which of the following is/arelocally delivered antimicrobial(s) agent(s) used to treat infected periodontalpockets?


1. Metronidazole.


2. Chlorhexidine.


3. Doxycycline.


4. Clindamycin.


A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C.(2) and (4) D. (4) only. E. All of the above. p;8p[q

A. (1) (2) (3)

Crestal bone loss around implantsprior to occlusal loading is more significantly associated with


A. smooth collars.


B. roughened collars.


C. internal connections.


D. external connections.

A. smooth collars.

The absence of lamina dura on adental radiograph is suggestive of


A. hyperparathyroidism.


B. Paget's disease.


C. hyperthyroidism.


D. vitamin D deficiency.


E. acromegaly.

A. hyperparathyroidism.

Which of the following muscles isa depressor of the mandible?


A. Temporalis.


B. Lateral pterygoid.


C. Masseter.


D. Medial pterygoid.

B. Lateral pterygoid.

Excessive flare of the distobuccalcavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam cavity preparation will result in


A.unsupported enamel at the margin.


B. weak amalgam at the margin.


C. poorretention.


D. poor esthetics.

A. unsupported enamel at the margin.

What type of insurance must adentist carry in order to practice dentistry in Canada?


A. Malpractice.


B.Office overhead.


C. General liability.


D. Long term disability

A. Malpractice.

A hardened gold alloy will exhibit


A. less plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in asoftened condition.


B. greater plastic deformation per unit of stress than thesame alloy in a softened condition.


C. no difference in the plastic deformationper unit of stress of the alloy in hard or soft condition.

A. less plastic deformation per unit of stress than the same alloy in a softened condition.

Hydrocolloid impressions areremoved from the mouth with a snap because they exhibit


A. syneresis.


B.imbibition.


C. viscoelasticity.


D. low elastic recovery.


E. low tear strength.

E. low tear strength.

An indirect pulp capping procedurefor primary molar teeth is indicated when


A. caries involves dentin to a depthof 1mm.


B. there is continuous pain.


C. there is radiolucency in thebifurcation.


D. removal of caries will lead to pulp exposure.

A. caries involves dentin to a depth of 1mm.

The best time to begininterceptive orthodontic treatment for a patient with a skeletal Class IImalocclusion is


A. as soon as the malocclusion is diagnosed.


B. immediatelyfollowing complete eruption of the deciduous dentition. C. immediatelyfollowing complete eruption of the first permanent molars.


D. several monthsprior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt.


E. after skeletal maturity.

D. several months prior to the pre-pubertal growth spurt.

Excessive flare of the distobuccalcavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam cavity preparation will result in


A.unsupported enamel at the margin.


B. weak amalgam at the margin.


C. poorretention.


D. poor esthetics.

A. unsupported enamel at the margin.

Allof the above. The tissue which cannot be seen on dental radiographs is


A.dentin.


B. enamel.


C. cementum.


D. pulp.


E. periodontal ligament.

E. periodontal ligament.

Followingsubgingival curettage, the amount of gingival shrinkage depends upon


A. thethickness of the free gingiva.


B. the degree of edematous hyperplasia present.C. whether the pocket orifice is broad or narrow. D. the degree of suppurationpresent. E. All of the above.

B. the degree of edematous hyperplasia present.

Whichof the following is/are associated with dentin dysplasia type I?


1.Obliteration of pulp chambers.


2. Normal appearance of clinical crowns.


3.Small underdeveloped roots.


4. Periapical radiolucent areas.


A. (1) (2) (3) B.(1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

Thefirst sensation lost after administration of a local anesthetic is


A. pain.


B.touch.


C. pressure.


D. proprioception

A. pain.

Mandibulargrowth


A. is sustained over a longer period of time in girls.


B. is sustainedover a longer period of time in boys.


C. occurs at the same chronologic age inboth sexes.


D. occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls

B. is sustained over a longer period of time in boys.

Whichof the following medications does NOT cause gingival hyperplasia?


A.Cyclosporine.


B. Nifedipine.


C. Phenytoin.


D. Carbamazepine.

D. Carbamazepine.

Theprimordial cyst probably results from


A. cystic degeneration of the stellatereticulum early in the formation of the tooth.


B. epithelial remnants in theperiodontal ligament.


C. an extension of pulpal inflammation after death of thepulp.


D. failure of formation of the enamel matrix. E. the dental lamina.

A. cystic degeneration of the stellate reticulum early in the formation of the tooth.