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137 Cards in this Set
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1. A transdermal fentanyl patch is often used for management of cancer pain. After application, the time to reach peak plasma levels is: * A. 1hr |
E. 24 hrs
ANZCA pain book 6.5.1 "The time to peak blood concentration is generally between 24 and 72 hours after initial patch application and after the patch is removed, serum fentanyl concentrations decline gradually, with a mean terminal half‐life ranging from 22 to 25 hours" (MIMS, 2008) |
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2. Pharmacological studies are undertaken in several phases. A phase 3 study involves: * A Animal studies |
E. RCT in target population ("full scale evaluation")
Myles textbook p.137 Phase I: first administration in humans (usually healthy volunteers). Confirm/establish basic PK and toxicology data. (n=20-100)
Phase II: selected clinical investigations in target population, aimed at establishing dose-response ('dose finding') relationship, plus some evidence of efficacy and safety
Phase III: full scale clinical evaluation of benefits, potential risks and cost analyses
Phase IV: post marketing surveillance (thousands of patients) |
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3. A pregnant patient 28/40 gestation is involved in a high-speed MVA. On admission to the DEM she complains of sudden onset severe chest pain. Her vital signs show HR 120, BP 160/100, SpO2 95% RA and her ECG shows ST depression. Most likely diagnosis is: * A. Cardiac contusion |
C. Aortic dissection (blunt chest trauma + pregnancy both risk factors)
http://www.nlm.nih.gov/medlineplus/ency/article/000181.htm |
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4. A 5 year-old child with recently diagnosed Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an inhalation induction with sevoflurane for closed reduction of a distal forearm fracture. No other drugs have been given. 10 minutes later the child suffers a cardiac arrest. After a further 5 minutes a venous blood sample shows a potassium level of 8.5mmol/L. The most likely mechanism for the hyperkalaemia is: * A MH |
D. Rhabdo
CEACCP. NM disorders and anaesthesia. http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/early/2011/06/10/bjaceaccp.mkr019.full.pdf
"Inhalation anaesthetics have been implicated in the rhabdomyolysis seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy patients secondary to their effects of further increasing mycoplasmic calcium. It has been difficult to elucidate whether the metabolic reaction seen is related to an anaesthesia-related rhabdomyolysis or a true malignant hyperthermia."
Ped Anaesth study http://anes-som.ucsd.edu/Intranet/Peds_Resources/MH/Malignant%20hyperthermia%20and%20MD.pdf
We did not find an increased risk of malignant hyperthermia susceptibility in patients with DMD or BD compared with the general population. However, dystrophic patients who are exposed to inhaled anesthetics may develop disease-related cardiac complications, or rarely, a malignant hyperthermia-like syndrome characterized by rhabdomyolysis |
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52. A 30yr old pregnant patient develops contractions at 30/40 gestation. Which of the following can not be used for tocolysis? A. Clonidine B. Indomethacin C: Magnesium D. Salbutamol E. Nifedipine |
A - clonidine has no tocolytic effect |
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53. In a patient with intraorbital haemorrhage, following local anaesthetic injection, the adequacy of occular perfusion is best assessed by: * A. Angiography |
B
Royal college of anaesthetists and opthalmologists consensus document http://www.rcoa.ac.uk/system/files/LA-Ophthalmic-surgery-2012.pdf Document page 26
"Indirect ophthalmoscopy should be performed to look for evidence of central retinal artery perfusion compromise" |
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54. What is the appropriate post-operative ibuprofen dosage for a one year old child tds? * A. 5mg/kg |
C. 10 mg/kg
Frank Sham drug doses |
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55. You are inducing a 4yr old child with Arthrogrophysis multiplex congenita. After you administer the induction agents, you find it difficult to place the laryngoscope. What is the likely complication? * A. Malignant hyperthermia |
C |
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56. What is the best measure of the anticoagulant effect of Dabigatran? * A. APTT |
B. Dilute thrombin time
Horlocker article.
http://www.chumontgodinne.be/files/PradaxaPracticalquestionsFinalSept2011.pdf
In situations where an assessment of the anticoagulant activity of dabigatran is required, the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) test, which is widely available, provides an approximate indication of the anticoagulation intensity achieved with dabigatran.
If required, a more sensitive quantitative test with the diluted Thrombin Time (Hemoclot®) can be performed.
The INR is less affected by dabigatran and should therefore not be used. |
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57. What is the ratio of compression to breaths for neonatal resuscitation? * A. 3:1 |
A. 3:1 (ARC neonatal resus guidelines) |
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60. In patients with refractory elevated ICP, bilateral decompressive craniectomy is associated with reduction in ICP and also results in: * A. Reduced duration of ventilation * B. Reduced duration of hospitalisation * C. Improved overall mortality * D. Worse long-term neurological outcome * E. Unchanged long-term neurological outcome
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E. No change long-term outcome
Cochrane review: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16437469 "There is no evidence to support the routine use of secondary DC to reduce unfavourable outcome in adults with severe TBI and refractory high ICP. In the pediatric population DC reduces the risk of death and unfavourable outcome."
2014 article: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/24662856 - retrospective propensity score analysis - no mortality difference.
Alternative answer: Cochrane article above from 2006, only 27 paediatric patients, none adult, and pre DECRA. DECRA 2011 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21434843 Decreased ventilation and ICU LOS but hospital LOS not different. No mortality benefit. Worse long term neurological outcome on EGOS. So A or D?
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61.Tumour lysis syndrome causes all of the following biochemical abnormalities EXCEPT: * A. Hyperkalaemia |
B. Hypernatraemia (all other changes occur)
Medscape: http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/282171-overview#showall Clinically, the syndrome is characterized by rapid development of hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and acute renal failure.
CEACCP. Intensive care management of patients with haematological malignancy. http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/10/6/167.full
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66. You are performing an interscalene nerve block using a nerve stimulator when your patient begins to hiccough. You should aim to position the tip of your needle more * A) Anterior |
B
Stimulating phrenic nerve (anterior) Therefore redirect posteriorly |
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67. The characteristic respiratory pattern in a patient with an acute C5 spinal cord injury is * A. Rapid respiratory rate * B. Arterial hypoxaemia * C. Chest wall immobility * D. Preserved cough * E. Preserved inspiratory force |
B or A
CEACCP. 50% hypoxaemia with high SCI http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/2/5/139.full.pdf+html
Argument for A - C5 still good diaphragmatic power so perhaps less likely to be hypoxaemic than C3 or C4.
Still have SCM/trapezius so will have some accessory muscle function.
See: UTD. Resp physiology SCI
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68. Tavi vs Max medical therapy nonoperable aortic stenosis reduction in risk at 30 days of * A. AMI |
PARTNER trial Outcomes worse at 30d (TAVI vs med mx), but better 1 year survival http://www.nejm.org/doi/pdf/10.1056/NEJMoa1008232
30d: increased stroke, vascular complications/major bleeding no difference in mortality, MI, AF TAVI: 30 day risk of stroke 3% http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22391581
AF (new onset) 1:3 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/22177537
Systematic review: http://www.annalscts.com/article/view/1395/2013 The available data on TAVI versus AVR for patients at a higher surgical risk showed that major adverse outcomes such as mortality and stroke appeared to be similar between the two treatment modalities. The indications for TAVI should therefore be limited to inoperable surgical candidates until long-term data become available.
http://circ.ahajournals.org/content/124/3/355.full . |
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69. Medial peribulbar block tip max distance past equator for minimal vein injury * A. 5 |
B. 10 mm
Normal axial length 22 mm Lindy Cass notes |
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76. A patient has suffered flash burns to half of the left upper limb, all of the left lower limb and the anterior surface of the abdomen. The approximate percentage of the body surface which has been burnt is: * A. 18% |
C. 32%
Rule of 9's: Half of upper limb: 4.5 All of lower limb: 18 Anterior surface abdomen: 9 |
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77. You are anaesthetising an ASA 1 woman for a laparoscopic gynaecological procedure. How long does it take for the PaCO2 to peak? * A. <15min |
B. 15-30 min
See: http://web.squ.edu.om/med-Lib/MED_CD/E_CDs/anesthesia/site/content/v04/040260r00.HTM
During uneventful CO2 -pneumoperitoneum, PaCO2 progressively increases to reach a plateau 15 to 30 minutes after the beginning of CO2 insufflation in patients under controlled mechanical ventilation during gynecologic laparoscopy in the Trendelenburg position |
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82. Anaemia post partial gastrectomy is most likely due to: * A folate deficiency secondary to steatorrhea |
C. Iron http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3496888/ |
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83.: 65year old for video assisted thoracoscopic lower lobe wedge resection. Surgeon requests lung isolation and one lung ventilation. Predictors of intraoperative hypoxia are: * A central rather than peripheral lesion* B left sided lesion * C low Aa Oxygen gradient when ventilating both lungs * D right sided lesion * E supine rather than lateral position |
A,D and E all predictors of intraop hypoxia. ?Poor recall (possibly all except..)
CEACCP. Hypoxaemia during one-lung anaesthesia http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/10/4/117.full
Factors predictive of hypoxaemia during OLV include: ventilation of the left rather than the right lung, low oxygen partial pressure on two lungs, absence of reduction of perfusion to areas of lung pathology, and supine position rather than the lateral decubitus position |
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94. Small air bubbles in the arterial line system will reduce: * A. Dampening coefficient
* B. ?Extrinsic Coefficient * C. Measured systolic pressure * D. Measured MAP * E. Resonant frequency |
E. Systolic may paradoxically increase with small bubble. Resonant freq will always decrease. See 2015A
CEACCP. Blood pressure measurement http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/7/4/122.full |
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Q95: RPT. Capnograph trace form a patient that is intubated and ventilated. What does it indicate See previous paper for a picture, it was the same * A. Endotracheal intubation |
B. Gas sample line leak |
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98.'You extubate a young woman after a dental procedure under GA. She has a history of hereditary angioedema and in recovery she develops airway oedema. Best treatment * A. FFP |
A. FFP
http://www.uptodate.com/contents/hereditary-angioedema-treatment-of-acute-attacks
-adrenaline, corticosteroids, antihistamines no use -1st line C1 esterase inhibitors -if not available, use FFP |
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99. A previously well 65 year old female develops acute shortness of breath 3 days post hip replacement. The most appropriate investigations to confirm PE is * A. CTPA |
A. CTPA |
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100. 20 year old female with 25% burns to her body. She weighs 80 kg. How much replacement fluid should she be given over the next 8 hours? * A. 4L |
A. 4L
Parkland: 4 x 80 x 25 = 8L 1/2 over first 8 hr = 4L |
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101. 50 y.o female with a history of mennohhragia is having a hysterectomy. Her pre-operative Hb is 95. What serum ferritin would confirm iron deficiency anaemia? * A. 30 mcg/L |
C. 3 mcg/l
Ferritin normal 12-200 mcg/l (OHA p1273)
http://www.who.int/vmnis/indicators/serum_ferritin.pdf RCPA manual Female 15-200mcg/L Male 30-300mcg/L https://www.rcpa.edu.au/Library/Practising-Pathology/RCPA-Manual/Items/Pathology-Tests/F/Ferritin
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102. An Adult Jehovah's Witness requires a redo hip replacement for a peritrochanteric fracture. They request that no blood products are given. The anaesthetists decision to PROCEED is best given by: * A. Autonomy |
A. Autonomy |
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103. 100% Saturated air @ 20 degrees is what relative humidity @ 37 degrees * A. 20% |
C. 40%
At 20 deg, 100% sat 20 mmHg At 37 deg, 100% sat 47 mmHg
This case: at 37 deg, 20 / 47 = 0.42 = 42%
http://www.anaesthesia.med.usyd.edu.au/resources/lectures/humidity_clt/humidity.html |
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104. Maximum cumulative dose of intralipid (ml/kg) * A. 10 |
B. 12 ml.kg (AAGBI guideline)
http://www.aagbi.org/sites/default/files/la_toxicity_2010_0.pdf
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105. 60yo alcoholic with HTN, has abdominal pain. No findings at laparotomy. 12 hrs later: Na140 k5 cl115 HCO3 18. What is the most likely diagnosis? * A. ARF |
E. NaCl infusion
Non-anion gap metab acidosis (therefore not: ketones, uraemia, lactic, toxins - incl methanol)
http://www.anaesthesiamcq.com/AcidBaseBook/ab5_2.php
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106. Diagram of a CTG (showing late decelerations). Causes: * A. Uteroplacental insufficiency |
A. uteroplacental insuff.
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107. In a clinical trial, researchers looked at 2 groups - smokers vs. non-smokers and followed then up for a period of time. This type of study is a * A. Cohort
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A. Cohort
-Prospective -pick groups and follow forwards to look for outcomes |
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110. Prothrombinex VF is useful in the perioperative period to correct the coagulopathic defect of all of the following except * A. Isolated factor II deficiency |
B. factor VII
PROTHROMBINEX-VF contains concentrated factor IX, factor II, factor X and low level of factor VII.
http://www.cslbehring.com.au/productfinder/prothrombinexnzau
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111. A 65 year old man otherwise fit and healthy is having a TKR under GA (O2, N2O, sevoflurane and fentanyl). His blood pressure has been stable through-out the case at 130/80. Before the orthopaedic surgeons start reaming and bone cemetation you should * A. Give heparin 5000 iu |
E. vasopressor
Prevention: -increase FiO2 -Avoid hypovolaemia
*OHA says stop N2O* |
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Photograph and Ultrasound picture of regional block. probe held transverse against posterolateral aspect of distal humerus over triceps. shows triangular nerve in close proximity to humerus. After infiltration of 5mls of 0.75% ropivacine Numbess in: * A lateral aspect of forearm |
Sounds like image of radial nerve.. None of answers correspond with radial nerve sensory distribution
Options: A. musculocutaneous nerve B. ulnar nerve (dorsal ring finger) C. D. ulnar nerve E. median nerve |
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Lateral CXR given. Can see lower half of thorax and vertebrae but upper half is all black with clear demarcation * A ? |
Something either side of horizontal fissure. |
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12 year-old with idiopathic scoliosis, most likely have associated * A Phaemochromocytoma
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C. Mitral valve prolapse
Approximately 25% patients with idiopathic scoliosis have mitral valve prolapse, but this is rarely of clinical significance and antibiotic cover is given
CEACCP. Scoliosis surgery http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/6/1/13.full |
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Term neonate, noted to have intermittent stridor few days after birth, then parents also notice stridor during feeding and sleep. Otherwise normal and healthy. Most likely condition is * A Cri-du-chat syndrome |
B. Laryngomalacia
Laryngomalacia - most common cause of chronic pediatric stridor causing approximately 60% of stridor seen in newborns.
http://www2.utmb.edu/otoref/Grnds/Stridor-infants-980415/Stridor-infants-980415.html |
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A picture of an echo 4 chambers view * A Anterior mitral valve leaflet |
Leaflet closest to RV is anterior |
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Cryoprecipate, once thawed must use within * A 30 minutes |
D. 6 hours
A. Thawed Frozen Plasma expires 24 hours from the time of thawing. B. Thawed Cryoprecipitate expires 6 hours from the time of thawing.
http://webserver.pa-ucl.com/wwwdocs/bb/Frame.htm
http://lifeinthefastlane.com/ccc/cryoprecipitate/
http://www.childrensmn.org/manuals/lab/transfusionsvc/018717.pdf |
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Glycine 1.5% used for TURP, osmolality is * A 200
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A. 200
CEACCP. Anaesthesia for transurethral resection of the prostate
http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/9/3/92.full
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Sick ICU patients seem to have moderate - severe ARDS PaO2/FIO2 ratio of 200, C.I. 1.7 (cardiac function seems okay). Decided to have ECMO, best mode is A AV B VA C VV D. ? |
C. VV ECMO
Veno-venous ECMO is designed to provide gas exchange, while veno-arterial ECMO provides both gas exchange and haemodynamic support
CEACCP. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation in adults.
http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/12/2/57 Maybe VA - CI 1.7 not great http://www.annalsofintensivecare.com/content/4/1/15 |
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Middle age women c/o pain in hands when hanging out washing. Also found to have muscle wasting on one of the hand associated with weaker radial pulse. * A CRPS
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C. Thoracic outlet syndrome
No best source but seems most likely of options available See CEACCP: Anaesthesia for vascular surgery of the upper limb http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/early/2013/09/02/bjaceaccp.mkt044.full.pdf |
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Same radial nerve question with photos of a probe over postero-lateral upper arm and ultrasound image that show a triangular shape nerve, most likely the radial nerve. Injecting 5 ml of 0.75% [[ropivacaine] will produce sensory block over * A Medial forearm |
C Dorsum part of hand |
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Blue urticaria is a complication of * A |
C. Patent blue V
Anaphylaxis and blue urticaria associated with Patent Blue V injection http://www.respond2articles.com/ANA/forums/1182/ShowThread.aspx |
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Intraosseous sampling - least accurate on * A Albumin |
Listed options seem to be accurate:
A new study of intraosseous blood for laboratory analysis. http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/20807043
There was a significant correlation between intravenous and IO samples for red blood cell counts and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but not for white blood cell counts and platelet counts. There was a significant correlation between intravenous and IO samples for glucose, blood urea nitrogen, creatinine, chloride, total protein, and albumin concentrations but NOT for sodium, potassium, CO(2), and calcium levels |
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Subtenon's block - muscle most likely to have inadequate block * A Medial rectus |
D. Superior oblique
Ophthalmic Regional Block Chandra M Kumar
Most patients develop akinesia with 4 to 5mL of local anaesthetic agent but the superior oblique and eyelid muscles may remain active
http://www.google.com.au/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=3&ved=0CDMQFjAC&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.researchgate.net%2Fpublication%2F7155728_Ophthalmic_regional_block%2Flinks%2F0deec52a5484f135b0000000&ei=vjgtVK-nMs-A8gWXhYCYDg&usg=AFQjCNGEcWQQ31TSfr5oxUkAdYH3HFN29A&sig2=QRCMeJPeGTzktmImvFUvjg |
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EVAR, best method to reduce risk of renal impairment * A Sodium bicarbonate |
C. N/Saline
CEACCP. EVAR
Because the EVAR procedure involves the liberal use of contrast media to assist placement and deployment of the graft to ensure proper exclusion of the aneurysmal sac, it is worthwhile ensuring that the patients are well hydrated to prevent postoperative renal impairment. There is no current evidence to support routine use of diuretic agents during EVAR |
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EVAR is preferred over open AAA repair because * A Lower cost
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B. Lower mortality
0.9% EVAR, 4.3% open CEACCP 2013. elective open AAA
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Laser flex tube with double cuffs - how to inflate cuff(s)? * A Inflate proximal then distal
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A. proximal then distal (see ref below), but some sources infer use of distal cuff if prox cuff ruptures..?E.
http://books.google.com.au/books?id=3U5DAAAAQBAJ&pg=PA160&lpg=PA160&dq=laser+flex+cuff+inflate+both+cuffs&source=bl&ots=Yty1fjgmCl&sig=QtAnUNFKWBOClnTAOCmSdHfehPY&hl=en&sa=X&ei=zA41VOr_FMyA8gXAyYLQDw&ved=0CCcQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=laser%20flex%20cuff%20inflate%20both%20cuffs&f=false
http://www.csen.com/cuff.pdf (search 'laser')
CEACCP laser. http://e-safe-anaesthesia.org/e_library/04/Lasers_and_surgery_CEACCP_2003.pdf "if cuff bursts, second cuff cna be used |
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Forceps delivery. Loss of sensation medial thigh with loss of adduction at hip joint - resulted from injury to * A Sciatic nerve |
D. |
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Called to cath lab because patient became agitated. Unstable angina having PCI,difficult right coronary stenting. Patient was hypotensive 80/40, HR 80/min in SR. What is the next best management step? * A Transfer to operating theater immediately |
D. TTE to exclude tamponade (stem sounds like possible complication - "became agitated", "difficult RCA stenting")
Likely management stay and stabilise.. (therefore B or D) Probably not A (doesn't sound like need to move immediately) or C (needs to be stabilised first). |
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A printout of 12-lead ECG * A Atrial fibrillation with BBB |
Difference between AF/tachy with BBB and VT:
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Repeat) Diagram about 3-bottle underwater seal drain, with the height of the fluid level in the suction bottle indicates * A Maximal suction applied to the system |
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Photo of a patient with tongue deviation post cervical spinal fusion. Which nerve is damaged? * A Glossopharyngeal nerve |
C. hypoglossal nerve tongue muscles |
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Post cardiac surgery. Rhythm strip to assess pacing on AOO. What is the diagnosis? * A Pacing spikes with loss of capture |
. |
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Young male with MVA + femur # on traction. More than 24 hours. Became confused and drowsy, BP normal, crackles both lung fields with worsening O2 saturation despite increasing oxygen flow. Diagnosis? * A Fat embolism |
A. fat embolism
(cerebral signs make fat embolism the more likely diagnosis) |
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G5P5 in third stage labour. Found to be unresponsive, cyanosed, faint pulse. On oxytocin induction and epidural infusion 10ml/hour. Also oozing from previous IV or blood sampling sites. Diagnosis? * A High spinal |
B. AFE
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In iron deficiency anaemia, one will expect a serum ferritin level to be less than * A 300mg/L
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Ferritin normal 12-200 mcg/l (OHA p1273)
Low iron stores: ferritin <15 mcg/l http://www.who.int/vmnis/indicators/serum_ferritin.pdf |
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Treatment for patients with congenital long QT syndrome * A Pacemaker/defibrillator |
C. Beta blocker
CEACCP: http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/8/2/67.full.pdf
Also emedicine: http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/157826-treatment
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What can not be used for tocolysis in a 30/40 (NOT 34/40) pregnant lady? * A Clonidine
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A. Clonidine (not a tocolytic)
Indomethacin safe until 32 weeks |
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18 month old child with VF arrest, shock with * A 10J
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C. 50J
DC shock in paeds 4J/kg Average 1 yo 10 kg, 2 yo 12 kg
http://www.resus.org.au/public/arc_paediatric_cardiorespiratory_arrest.pdf. |
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Endovascular coiling of cerebral aneurysm under GA, patient suddenly develop hypertension. What is the most likely cause? * A Acute hydrocephalus |
B. Rupture of aneurysm
OHAEs
Detected by: HTN, extravasation of contrast
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A patient on citalopram. Post-op in PACU given tramadol. Developed fever, tremor, restlessness, confusion, hyperreflexia. Diagnosis is * A Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
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C. Serotinin syndrome
Compared with NMS: Very similar features mostly, differences: serotonin syndrome: hyperreflexia, clonus NMS: hyporeflexia http://www.medsafe.govt.nz/profs/PUArticles/Dec2012Neuroleptic.htm |
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Best drug to reduce both gastric acidity and volume * A Ranitidine
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A. Ranitidine
Na citrate (good for reducing acidity, but may incr volume) |
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Patient on moclobemide came in for surgery. In view of the use of vasopressor to treat hypotension one will give judicious amount of * A |
Is this use all except? In which case, avoid metaraminol
-Moclobemide -> MAO inhibitor -Avoid indirect sympathomimetics (ephedrine, metaraminol, amphet, cocaine) -Use direct acting -> phenylephrine, NA, Adr, dopamine, dobutamine
Peck and Hill ATOTW - Anaesthesia and psych drugs part 1 . |
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Patient with hyperthyroidism - proceed with elective surgery only if normal level of these hormones is seen * A TSH |
D T3 & T4 (TSH will improve later)
See: http://www.sassit.co.za/journals/peri-operative%20care/endocrine/perioperative%20management%20of%20the%20thyrotoxic%20patient.pdf
Ideally, thyrotoxic patients should be as close as possible to clinical and biochemical euthyroidism before going to surgery. It is common for TSH values to remain suppressed as a consequence of prolonged hyperthyroidism in patients who have otherwise normalized their T4 and T3 values on therapy [31]. The TSH level in this case will eventually increase, and should not be considered a contraindication to surgery . |
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In pregnant women the dural sac ends at * A
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D. S1
Nysora: http://www.nysora.com/mobile/regional-anesthesia/sub-specialties/3422-spinal-anesthesia-in-children.html |
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The following capnography trace was observed in an intubated and ventilated patient. The most likely explanation for this respiratory pattern is * A endobronchial intubation |
C. Gas sampling line leak (repeat) |
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Full size oxygen cylinder providing 10L/min of oxygen flow to a patient during transport. How long will this cylinder last? * A
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C. 45 min
http://www.boc-healthcare.co.nz/internet.lh.lh.nzl/en/images/HCD130_Medical%20gases%20wall%20poster_Download434_83225.pdf
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Something to do with Echinacea and renal transplant - I think the answer is regarding immune system, other options were bleeding risk, nephrotoxicity |
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Red-man syndrome secondary to vancomycin is due to * A Type II hypersensitivity reaction |
C. Mast cell degranulation
Red man syndrome - anaphylactoid reaction (mast cell degran but not IgE mediated)
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC270616/ |
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A 40 y.o. female newly diagnosed ITP. Retinal detachment for surgery in 2 days. Platelets 40 and blood group A+. Management of her ITP: * A Administer Anti-D antibodies 6 hrs pre op |
C. |
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Absolute contraindication to ECT * A Cochlear implants |
D. Raised ICP |
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Repeat Stellate ganglion block. Needle entry next to SCM muscle at C6. Which direction to advance needle ? * A. C3 * B. C4 * C. C5 * D. C6 * E. C7 |
D. Stellate ganglion block
Enter at C6, aim for chassaignac's tubercle, withdraw 1-2mm and asp/inject -
C7 too close to pleura and greater risk of vertebral artery puncture
http://www.frca.co.uk/Documents/256%20Stellate%20Ganglion%20Block.pdf |
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Repeat CTG with early decelerations * A. GA |
B. Fetal head compression
http://geekymedics.com/2011/05/29/how-to-read-a-ctg/
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Repeat Endocarditis prophylaxis * A Bicuspid valve |
D. Uncorrected cyanotic heart disease
Patient indications 1. Prosthetic heart valve 2. Congenital heart disease, only if: -unrepaired cyanotic (incl palliative shunts/conduits) -prosthetic materials in repair (first 6 mths) -repaired defects with residual defect 3. Heart transplant 4. Previous IE 5. Rh heart disease (indigenous only) |
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Repeat CVL relatively contraindicated in: * A. LBBB |
A. LBBB
Possibility of CHB
http://www.ijcasereportsandimages.com/archive/2011/004-2011-ijcri/004-04-2011-jain/ijcri-00404201144-jain.pdf |
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Repeat Maximum dose (with low risk of toxicity) of lignocaine (with adrenaline 1:100000) for liposuction with tumescence technique * A. 3 mg/kg |
E. 35 mg.kg |
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Repeat You’re anaesthetizing an otherwise well 40 yo male for a craniotomy. Propofol and remifentanil TIVA. Using entropy. The MAP is 70 mmHg, heart rate is 70 bpm, Sats are 98%, state entropy is 50 and the response entropy 70. Most appropriate next step is * A. give 0.5 mg metaraminol iv |
B. Assess TOF |
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Repeat What proportion of the population are heterozygous for pseudocholinesterase deficiency, i.e. have a dibucaine number 30-70? * A. 0.04% |
C. 4%
(ref: Peck and Hill table, ch 4) |
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Repeat CO2 penetrates surface tissue so well with little damage to underlying tissue because * A. Well absorbed by Hb |
D.
A & B wrong. (well absorbed by water). C. ?widely disseminated (dissipates in tissue, doesn't really penetrate) D. correct (long infrared wavelength) E. wronf |
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Repeat With regards to ROTEM: maximal clot firmness (Increased MA: maximal amplitude on TEG) correlates best with needing to give: * A. FFP |
C. platelets |
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Repeat The MELD score is calculated using INR, Bilirubin & what? * A. Creatinine |
A. Creatinine
MELD: -INR -bilirubin -creatinine -aetiology |
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Which is least likely to fraudulent research reduction strategy? |
D. findings reproduced at another institution
From ANZCA bulletin: http://www.anzca.edu.au/communications/anzca-bulletin/bulletin-release-2012/ANZCA%20Bulletin%20September%202012.pdf
A, C, E not reliable strategies B. multiple authors (if their involvement is verified) |
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Repeat An 80 year old man undergoes a unilateral lumbar sympathectic blockade. The most likely side effect that he experiences is: * A. Genitofemoral neuralgia |
A. Genitofemoral neuralgia
Ch 39. Cousins & Bridenbaugh's Common complications of neurolytic lumbar sympathetic blockadea include puncture of major vessel or renal pelvis, subarachnoid injection, neuralgia—genitofemoral nerve (5% to 10% pain in the groin), somatic nerve damage—neuralgia (1%), perforation of a disk, stricture of the ureter after phenol or alcohol injection, infection from catheter technique (extremely rare), ejaculatory failure (bilateral block in young males), and chronic back pain. |
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Repeat The most important effect of Lugol's iodine administration before thyroid surgery is * A. reduce incidence of thyroid storm
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E. Reduces vascularity |
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To exclude raised ICP in an awake patient the most reliable finding is what ? * A. No headache |
D. Pulsatile retinal vein |
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Repeat (march 2011). What percentage of patients with SAH are troponin positive? |
B. 15-30%
Contin Educ Anaesth Crit Care Pain (2008) 8 (2): 62-66. states 20% |
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Repeat: Best determinant of a neonate's heart rate: Auscultate the chest. |
Auscultation |
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Repeat: Optimal fluid management during laparotomy: Pulse pressure variation, EF on a TOE, CVP, BP and HR |
Pulse contour analysis (PPV or SVV) |
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133. A 50 year old male is having an aortic valve replacement for aortic stenosis. He is stable on bypass initially but after the first dose of cardioplegia his MAP falls to 25mmHg, CVP 1 and his mixed venous oxygen saturation is 80%. What is the best management in this situation. |
A or D..
Can't find reference, but this seems right? |
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Repeat: Maximum recommended time for an adult tourniquet: 90 min? 120 min? |
Aim for <90 min (definitely no more than 120 min - maximum) |
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63. Repeat- The most effective method for cerebral protection in aortic arch aneurysm repair |
ANSWER A |
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Repeat: Awaits renal transplant. Why would you ask them to stop Echinacia? Immune suppression, hepatotoxic, coagulopathy, nephrotoxic. Something else? |
Immune suppression. |
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Repeat: Post (R) pneumonectomy on the ward becomes acutely unwell, hypotensive, raised CVP. What do you do? Turn left lateral. |
Turn left lateral (pneumonectomy side dependent) |
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Repeat: Venous air embolism. How to position the patient? a. Head up + R) up b. Head up + L) up c. Head down + R) up d. Head down + L) up |
Head down and right side up (remove air lock from RVOT) |
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Repeat: TBI - What fluid NOT to give? Synthetic colloids, saline, albumin etc
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Albumin (SAFE study) |
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Which population is more liable to CNS damage from Hyponatraemia? * A. Children |
A. Children
http://pediatrics.uchicago.edu/chiefs/resources/documents/hyperhyponatremia.pdf |
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Hb 86 post TKJR in an asymptomatic patient with stable angina. a. Transfuse to 120 b. transfuse to 100 c. observe overnight and repeat mane |
C. Observe
PP2 RBC transfusion should not be dictated by a haemoglobin ‘trigger’ alone, but should be based on assessment of the patient’s clinical status. In the absence of acute myocardial or cerebrovascular ischaemia, postoperative transfusion may be inappropriate for patients with a haemoglobin level of >80 g/L
http://www.blood.gov.au/system/files/documents/pbm-module-2.pdf |
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Health care worker. HBV exposure. Known to have immunisation titres. What do you do? * A. Booster dose of his immunisation* B. HBV immunoglobulins * C. Pegylated Interferon * D. Aciclovir |
The source patient should be tested for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) as soon as possible. No further action is required if the test is negative. If the injured person has not been immunised and the result is likely to be delayed, a dose of HBV vaccine is given immediately, with subsequent doses at one and six months. A single dose (400 IU) of hepatitis B immunoglobulin should also be given as soon as possible (preferably within 72 hours).
If the injured person has been vaccinated against HBV and seroconversion has been documented, then no further action is required. When seroconversion has not been documented, a booster dose of hepatitis B vaccine should be given immediately and, if surface antibodies cannot be measured within 72 hours, a dose of HBIG given.
http://www.australianprescriber.com/magazine/24/4/98/100/#t1
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HIV seroconversion post needlestick injury: a. 0.3% b. 3% c. 30%.. |
a. 0.3% (1:313)
http://www.australianprescriber.com/magazine/24/4/98/100/#t1 |
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Repeat: Craniotomy, MAP 80, transducer 13cm below, CVP given, what's the CPP |
CPP = 70 mmHg
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Repeat: Unremakable finding on a laparotomy. Has been given 3L cystalloid and minimal EBL. Physiological response to such haemodilution includes ALL EXCEPT: a. Increased myocardial O2 extraction. b. Increased tissue O2 extraction. c. Increased tissue flow due to decrease viscosity. d. Increased tissue flow due to vasodilatation. |
a. myocardial O2 extraction (high O2 extraction at rest from heart) |
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Idiopathic scoliosis in a young female. Likely associated pathology: MV prolapse, renal artery stenosis, abnormality with the larynx...etc |
MV prolapse |
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ABG as you diagnose intraoperative MH: Acidosis/alkalosis, high pCO2, Zero BE vs. -9 BE. |
MH ABG: -mixed resp and metabolic acidosis (low bicarb, negative BE) -CO2 elevated
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20 year old male 80kg presents post house fire with 30% burns. Using the Parkland formula how much fluid should he have replaced in the first 8 hours. * A. 2.6L N/saline* B. 3.6L N/saline * C. 3.6L CSL * D. 4.8L N/saline * E. 4.8L CSL |
E. 4.8L CSL |
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A 50 year old male in recovery after an anterior cervical spinal fusion, developing increasing respiratory distress, bulge under original incision, combative, repeatedly removing oxygen mask, spO2 96%. What is the most appropriate management ? * A. Direct laryngoscopy and intubation after inhalational induction with sevoflurane* B. Awake tracheostomy by surgeons * C. Awake fibreoptic intubation using minimal sedation * D. Direct laryngoscopy and intubation with propofol and sux * E. Retrograde intubation |
A. inhalational induction |
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Asthmatic paediatric patient, tonsillectomy. Desaturates and stiff to bag. First thing to do? * A. Salbutamol |
C. ask surgeon to release gag |
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Balloon pump trace 2:1 * A. Early inflation |
See diagrams for each..
http://ceaccp.oxfordjournals.org/content/9/1/24.full
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Repeat A 40 yo woman for laparotomy to remove phaeochromocytoma under combined epidural and general anaesthesia. Pre-operatively treated with phenoxybenzamine and metoprolol. Intra-operatively, blood pressure is 250/130 despite high dose phentolamine and SNP. HR is 70/min and SaO2 are 98%. The next most appropriate treatment is: * A. Epidural Lignocaine* B. IV Esmolol * C. IV Hydralazine * D. IV Magnesium * E. IV Propofol |
D. IV Magnesium |
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Fasting time for a 6 week old.. |
ANZCA guidelines:
<6wks: CF 2 hr, breast/formula 4 hr
>6 wks: CF 2 hr, breast 4 hr, formula/solid 6 hr |
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AAI paced ECG: 1) Failure to capture 2) CHB 3) 2nd degree HB 4) AF |
.. |
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Hyperkalaemia of 7 or 8. Most appropriate immediate (or was it most "effective") therapy: a. Insulin + Glucose b. Bicarb c. Salbutamol d. Resin e. Something else |
Ca Cl 10% 10ml - cardioprotective but won't lower K
Insulin/dextrose and Salbutamol lower K (shift K extracell to intracell)
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Correct INR range for a patient with a mechanical valve |
2.5 - 3.5 |
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Flow volume loop diagram * A. Variable intra-thoracic obstruction* B. Variable extra-thoracic obstruction * C. Restrictive pattern * D. Obstructive pattern * E. Fixed obstruction |
Draw each loop..
http://anest.ufl.edu/files/2011/08/Intrathoracic-vs-Extrathoracic-Airway-Obstruction.pdf
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4 METS is how many ml O2 / min |
1 MET = 3.5 ml.kg.min
4 METs = 14 ml.kg.min |
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A 30 year old multi trauma patient one week post injury has severe ARDS. He is currently ventilated at 6ml/kg tidal volume, PEEP of 15cm H20 and pa02/Fi02 is less than 150. The next step to improve oxygenation is: * A. increase PEEP to 20cmH20* B. increase tidal volume to 10mls/kg * C. initiate nitrous oxide therapy * D. commence high flow oscillatory ventilation * E. ventilate in the prone position |
E. Prone position |
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Repeat When topping up a labour ward epidural to an epidural for lower segment caesarean section, the optimum level of block when assessed for light touch is to: * A. T2
* B. T4 * C. T6 * D. T8 * E. T11 |
B. T4
?T4 for cold/pain vs lower for light touch - maybe T6 correct? |
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Repeat You are involved in research and as part of data collection you collect ASA scores. This type of data is: * A. Categorical* B. Nominal * C. Non-parametric * D. Numerical * E. Ordinal |
E. Ordinal |
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Repeat During a pneumoperitoneum, at what level of intra-abdominal does cardiac output fall? * A. 10 mmHg* B. 20 mmHg * C. 30 mmHg * D. 40 mmHg * E. 50 mmHg |
A. 10 mmHg |
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Repeat Best option to reduce risk of ventilator induced pneumonia? * A. Nurse in supine position* B. Early spontaneous ventilation through ETT * C. Oral hygiene * D. Use antacids * E. Regularly change breathing circle |
C. Oral hygiene |
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Repeat Which drug should be avoided both intra- and post operatively in a woman having surgery who is breast feeding a 6 week old baby? * A. codeine* B. morphine * C. paracetamol * D. parecoxib * E. tramadol |
A. Codeine |
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Repeat A patient is in Class 4 haemorrhagic shock, secondary to a gunshot wound to the abdomen. He is clinically coagulopathic 30 minutes later. He has received intravenous Hartmann's 1L. The coagulopathy is likely related to: * A. acidosis* B. dilution of clotting factors * C. hypothermia * D. systemic release of tissue factor * E. tissue hypoperfusion |
D. systemic release tissue factor |
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Repeat The normal physiological response following ECT is * A. transient tachycardia followed by bradycardia and hypotension* B. transient bradycardia followed by tachycardia and hypertension * C. unpredictable * D. transient tachycardia followed by bradycardia and hypertension * E. tachycardia and hypotension |
B. brady, then tachy and HTN |
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Repeat In preadmission clinic with patient with a tracheostomy. To enable patient to talk you would- * A. Deflate tracheostomy cuff, insert one-way valve, insert fenestrated piece* B. Deflate tracheostomy cuff, remove one-way valve, insert fenestrated piece * C. Inflate tracheostomy cuff, remove one-way valve, insert fenestrated piece * D. Inflate tracheostomy cuff, insert one-way valve, insert fenestrated piece * E. ? |
A. |
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Repeat What is NOT a contraindication to MRI? * A. Pulmonary artery catheter
* B. Arterial line * C. Scissors * D. Coiled ECG cable * E. Laryngoscope |
.. PA contraindicated if thermodilution catheter (some special MRI safe ones exist) Scissors (projectile), coiled ECG (heats) CI'ed
Laryngoscope depends - some are definitely compatible Art line - function outside of gauss line, need to be MR compatible transducer |
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Repeat What is the mechanism of central sensitisation? * A. Increased intracellular magnesium
* B. Antagonism of the NMDA receptor * C. Glycine is the major neurotransmitter involved * D. Recurrent a-delta fibre activation * E. Alteration in gene expression |
E. Alteration gene expression
See ANZCA pain book 3ed p4-6 and p85
Increased intercellular calcium mentioned Increased NMDA receptor activity mentioned Glutamate not glycine mentioned C fibres and A beta mentioned as involved in wind up and secondary hyperalgesia respectively (not A delta)
Gene expression ('altered transcription') definitely mentioned p4 and p6 |
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Repeat Which volatile contributes most to greenhouse gases / environmental pollutant ? * A Desflurane
* B N2O * C Sevoflurane * D Isoflurane * E Halothane |
A. Desflurane
Nitrous more stable over 100y, less potent per kg but used in higher concentrations. Might depend how worded (absolute vs relative potency/CO2 equivalents) |
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Repeat The clinical sign that a lay person should use to decide whether to start CPR is: * A. Absent central pulse* B. Absent peripheral pulse * C. Loss of consciousness * D. Obvious airway obstruction * E. Absence of breathing |
E.
Indications: not responsive and not breathing normally |
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Repeat A patient's competence to give informed consent is determined by all the following except: * A. Ability to communicate a choice* B. Ability to apply reasoning * C. Ability to understand consequences * D. The provision of significant information * E. ? |
?D. |
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First line treatment for acute attack of hereditary angioedema * A FFP* B Adrenaline * C Steroids * D C1 inhibitor concentrate * E anti-histamine |
D. 1st line = C1 inhibitor concentrate
If not available -> FFP
Adrenaline, steroids, anti-hist not effective |
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Repeat Adult male who is intubated and ventilated, with CVL in situ. Just before surgeon starts the Line Isolation Monitor alarms about a leak at 5mA. What do you do? * A. stop procedure and move to a safe location* B. sequentially remove non essential monitors from the circuit until fault is identified * C. unplug the CVL to electrically isolate it until fault is identified * D. ensure the patient is earthed * E. Check the diathermy pad |
.. |
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Repeat Patient with Haemophilia A with known high titres of inhibitors to factor 8. What would you give to prevent bleeding in the patient for OT * a. FVIIa* b. High dose FVIII concentrate * c. FFP * d. Cryo * e. Platelets |
.. |
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Mec stained liquor post LSCS Did not state if infant flat or vigorous * A. Suction* B. Routine care |
A. Suction |
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55 year old subarachnoid haemorrhage secondary to aneurysm. Patient is confused with a oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve) palsy, complains of a severe headache. This patient is in Hunt and Hess class: * A 0
* B 1 * C 2 * D 3 * E 4 |
..
Confusion = 3 Headache and CN alone = 2 |
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Repeat In a 140kg obese patient, compared to a 70 kg person * A. cardiac output >20% lower
* B. cardiac output 10% lower * C. cardiac output no different * D. cardiac output 10% higher * E. cardiac output >20% higher |
Blood flow of fat = 2-3mL/100g/min - http://media.johnwiley.com.au/product_data/excerpt/09/04706559/0470655909-1.pdf
Or in other terms:
CO increases 20-30mL/kg of excess body weight - http://m.bja.oxfordjournals.org/content/85/1/91.full
So: normal 70kg x 70mL/kg/min = 4900 Additional = 70 x 20 = 1400mL/min
Therefore > 20% increase E |