2013 New Questions2

Front 1

What is the most appropriate endodontic
management for a 9 year old patient for tooth
1.1, with an open apex and a necrotic pulp?
A. Pulpotomy.
B. Apexification.
C. Pulpectomy.
D. Apexogenesis.
E. Apical surgery.

Back 1

B

because the pulp is necrotic

could be with calcium hydroxide

Front 2

During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment
material will undergo an additional expansion
if it occurs
A. under water.
B. under vacuum.
C. in a cold environment.
D. in a dry environment

Back 2

A

Front 3

Which drug should be administered as the
initial management for a patient with chest pain
consistent with a myocardial infarction?
A. Epinephrine.
B. Atropine.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Lidocaine.
E. Acetylsalicylic acid.

Back 3

E

Prehospital management of the suspected MI victim adheres to the MONA acronym: M is morphine; O, oxygen; N, nitroglycerin; and A, aspirin.

Front 4

Which of the following is the most
characteristic gingival feature of
agranulocytosis?
A. Hematoma.
B. Ulceration.
C. Erythema.
D. Fibromatosis

Back 4

B

Front 5

Tooth 2.4 has subgingival recurrent caries on
the distal aspect of a Class II amalgam
restoration. The bite-wing radiograph reveals
caries extending to within 1mm of the alveolar
bone crest. To properly restore the tooth, which
of the following is the most appropriate
procedure?
A. Gingivectomy.
B. Modified Widman flap.
C. Open flap debridement.
D. Resective osseous surgery.

Back 5

D

Crown lengthening

Front 6

During the intravenous administration of
diazepam, which of the following arteries may
accidentally be entered in the antecubital fossa?
A. Ulnar.
B. Radial.
C. Brachial.
D. Deep brachial.
E. Radial recurrent.

Back 6

C

Front 7

The earliest radiographic sign of traumatic
occlusion is
A. hypercementosis.
B. root resorption.
C. alteration of the lamina dura.
D. widening of the periodontal ligament
space.
E. ankylosis.

Back 7

D

Front 8

What statement related to self-threaded pins is
FALSE?
A. The ideal depth for the pin hole is 3mm.
B. The pin does not increase fracture
resistance of the restoration.
C. The pin can increase retention of the
restoration.
D. The drill has a smaller diameter than the
pin.

Back 8

A

it is 2mm

Front 9

A 65 year old patient presents with an ulcerated
lesion of 1cm diameter on the side of the
tongue which has been present for two months.
What is the most appropriate initial
management?
A. Perform cytologic examination.
B. Excise a portion of the ulceration and
adjacent normal tissue.
C. Excise the entire lesion.
D. Refer for implantation of radium needles.
E. Refer for radiotherapy.

Back 9

probably B

Front 10

Which of the following conditions may develop
as a result of juvenile diabetes mellitus?
A. Ataxia.
B. Aphasia.
C. Deafness.
D. Blindness.
E. Motor paralysis.

Back 10

D

Front 11

Compared to heat-cured acrylic resins, coldcure
acrylic resins are
A. stronger and more colour stable.
B. weaker and more colour stable.
C. weaker and less colour stable.
D. stronger and less colour stable.

Back 11

C

Front 12

Periodontal prognosis is worst during
periodontal maintenance therapy with the
presence of deep pockets and frequent
A. bleeding on probing at the gingival
margin.
B. bleeding on probing at the pocket depth.
C. dental plaque at the pocket depth.
D. calculus at the pocket depth.

Back 12

B

Front 13

Which of the following conditions is NOT
associated with the fully edentulous state?
A. Residual ridge reduction.
B. Decrease in masticatory function.
C. Altered taste perception.
D. Rheumatoid arthritis.

Back 13

D

Front 14

Which of the following statements is true?
A. Masks should always be worn when
seeing a patient.
B. A face shield is an appropriate
replacement for a surgical mask.
C. Surgical masks protect against exposure
of spatter which is larger than 1μm.
D. Masks should be changed when they
become moist

Back 14

probably D

Front 15

Primary function of gingival retraction cord
A. Ensure adequate impression material in sulcus
B. Displace epithelial attachment
C. Control salivary flow
D. Eliminate intramuscular debris

Back 15

A

Front 16

Compared to stainless steel, nickel-titanium
Instruments
A. are stronger.
B. become weaker following sterilization.
C. are more flexible.
D. have a shorter shelf life

Back 16

C

Anything to do with nickle... Answer is either allergy or flexibility

Front 17

Type I hypersensitivity results from cross-linking of which immunoglobulinon mast cells?
A. IgA.
B. IgD.
C. IgE.
D. IgG.
E. IgM

Back 17

C

IgE-Type I hypersensitivity and parasitic infection

IgG- any type of infection

Ig A - mucosal immunity

Front 18

Titanium and titanium alloys are used for
manufacturing root form dental implants
because the oxide layer makes the surface
A. porous.
B. passive.
C. wear resistant.
D. osteoinductive

Back 18

B!

Front 19

Which statement is FALSE regarding sodium hypochlorite when used as an irrigant?
A. It is used in 0.5% to 5.25% concentration.
B. Its combination with hydrogen peroxide does not improve its clinical effectiveness.
C. It is well tolerated if expressed beyond the tooth apex.
D. Warming the solution increases its clinical effectiveness.

Back 19

C

Front 20

A 52 year old patient presents with restricted or
limited mouth opening. The patient has loss of
attached gingiva and multiple areas of gingival
recession and tight skin. A panoramic
radiograph shows diffuse widening of the
periodontal ligament. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Progressive systemic sclerosis.
B. Hyperparathyroidism.
C. Cicatricial pemphigoid.
D. Erythema multiforme.
E. Advanced adult periodontitis

Back 20

A

systemic sclerosis (lcSSc) is a multisystem connective tissue disorder. The acronym "CREST" refers to the five main features: calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia

Front 21

Orthodontic headgear can be used for all of the
following EXCEPT
A. anchorage augmentation.
B. molar distalization.
C. maxillary skeletal expansion.
D. growth modification

Back 21

C

Front 22

Ideal orthodontic tooth movement
A. should use large forces to move teeth as quickly and efficiently as possible.
B. occurs with undermining resorption to remove bone.
C. occurs using frontal resorption with deposition and resorption processes.
D. requires subcrestal surgical incisions

Back 22

C

Front 23

Leeway space in the mandible
A. should be maintained in cases of severe
space shortage (>11mm).
B. is maintained by extracting the 2nd
mandibular primary molars between age 6
to 8 years.
C. is 1.7 – 2.5mm per quadrant.
D. is 1.7 – 2.5mm total.

Back 23

C

(1.5 mm in maxilla)

Front 24

A maxillary anterior bite plane causes
A. translation of the maxillary incisors.
B. extrusion of the mandibular incisors.
C. extrusion of the maxillary posterior teeth.
D. no occlusal changes

Back 24

C it is the name of the appliance

Front 25

Maxillary skeletal arch expansion
A. readily occurs in the preadolescent
patient.
B. requires orthognathic surgery for
skeletally immature patients.
C. decreases the arch space available.
D. increases a patient’s overbite

Back 25

A

Front 26

Interceptive orthodontic treatment CANNOT
alter the
A. final basal bone width of the mandible.
B. direction of growth of the mandible.
C. arch space available for the eruption of
the permanent dentition.
D. angulation of the teeth

Back 26

A

Front 27

When a second canal is located in mandibular
incisors, it is most frequently found
A. labial to the main canal.
B. lingual to the main canal.
C. mesial to the main canal.
D. distal to the main canal.

Back 27

B

Front 28

An advantage of a metal-ceramic crown over
an all ceramic crown is
A. superior esthetics.
B. more conservative vestibular preparation.
C. increased restoration strength.
D. superior translucency

Back 28

C

Front 29

On the vestibular aspect of tooth 2.3, there is
4mm of recession with a 3mm probing depth,
no keratinized gingiva and no radiographic
interproximal bone loss. The most predictable
esthetic outcome is achieved with a
A. free gingival graft.
B. subepithelial connective tissue graft.
C. coronally repositioned flap.
D. guided tissue regeneration.

Back 29

B

Front 30

Tooth 3.3 has a 9mm probing depth with a
6mm three-wall infrabony mesial defect. It tests
vital and is not mobile. Which of the following
is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Gingival curettage.
B. Modified Widman flap.
C. Osseous resective surgery.
D. Guided tissue regeneration

Back 30

D

Front 31

Generalized enlarged fibrotic interdental
papillae of 2 months duration are interfering
with orthodontic treatment. There is no
evidence of attachment loss. Scaling and root
planing have not resolved the condition. Which
of the following is the most appropriate
intervention?
A. Gingival curettage.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Osseous resective surgery.
D. Guided tissue regeneration

Back 31

B

Front 32

Following periodontal debridement, reduction
in pocket depth is primarily due to
A. decreased inflammation.
B. reattachment of gingival fibers.
C. epithelial "adhesion" to the tooth.
D. connective tissue regeneration

Back 32

A

Front 33

The re-evaluation of periodontal debridement
effectiveness after 4 to 6 weeks is best assessed
by examining clinical attachment levels and
A. radiographic bone density.
B. plaque index.
C. bleeding index.
D. mobility.

Back 33

C

Front 34

What is the most likely cause of food impaction
at the site of a recently placed Class II
composite resin restoration?
A. Inadequate proximal contact.
B. Gingival overhang.
C. Inadequate marginal ridge morphology.
D. Poor oral hygiene

Back 34

A

Front 35

Retentive pins should ideally be placed
A. within enamel.
B. at the dentino-enamel junction.
C. a minimum of 0.5-1.0mm from the
dentino-enamel junction.
D. a minimum of 1.5-2.0mm from the
dentino-enamel junction

Back 35

C

Pin channels should be initiated at least 0.5 mm from the DEJ if the nearby preparation margin is coronal to the cementoenamel junction; a 1.0-mm distance from the DEJ is preferable. If the nearby margin is apical to the cementoenamel junction, there should be at least 1.0 mm of dentin between the channel and the external surface of the tooth.

Front 36

Which part of the brain is NOT primarily
involved in motor control?
A. Cerebellum.
B. Basal ganglia.
C. Occipital lobe.
D. Frontal lobe.

Back 36

С

Front 37

What is the most effective local anesthetic
technique for a patient with trismus who
requires a pulpectomy on a mandibular molar?
A. Mental nerve block.
B. Gow-Gates block.
C. Vazirani-Akinosi block.
D. Inferior alveolar nerve block.
E. Buccal nerve block.

Back 37

С

Akinosi vazirani requires patients mouth to be closed

Front 38

What is the correct position of the needle tip
for the administration of local anesthetic for an
inferior alveolar nerve block?
A. Anterior to the buccinator muscle.
B. Medial to the medial pterygoid muscle.
C. Lateral to the ramus of the mandible.
D. Superior to the mandibular foramen.
E. Inferior to the pterygomandibular raphe.

Back 38

D

Front 39

Which of the following is NOT correct
regarding nitroglycerin used for medical
emergencies?
A. It is indicated for the definitive
management of angina pectoris.
B. It is indicated for the early management of
a myocardial infarction.
C. It should be administered sublingually.
D. Its administration will increase blood
pressure.
E. Exposure to air or light shortens the shelflife
of the tablets

Back 39

D

Front 40

Which of the following does NOT block
cyclooxygenase-2?
A. Acetaminophen.
B. Acetylsalicylic acid.
C. Celecoxib.
D. Diflunisal.
E. Ibuprofen

Back 40

A!!!

(Diflunisal is a salicylic acid derivative)

Front 41

Which of the following could cause clicking
sounds during speech in denture wearers?
A. Excessive vertical dimension.
B. Nonbalanced occlusion.
C. Excessive buccal flange thickness.
D. Reduced vertical overlap (overbite)

Back 41

A

Front 42

What is the most likely diagnosis of a white,
diffuse, wrinkled appearing lesion of the buccal
mucosa which diminishes in prominence or
disappears upon stretching?
A. Leukoedema.
B. Lichen planus.
C. Candidiasis.
D. Linea alba.
E. White sponge nevus

Back 42

A

Front 43

The major connector of a removable partial
denture should be designed to
A. rigidly connect the denture components.
B. act as a stress-breaker.
C. dissipate vertical forces.
D. distribute forces to the soft tissues.

Back 43

A

Front 44

When using alginate impression material,
which one of the following statements is
correct?
A. Store the impression in water at 37°C
prior to pouring the cast.
B. Remove the impression slowly from the
undercuts.
C. Control the setting time by changing the
water/powder ratio.
D. Pour the cast immediately following
disinfection

Back 44

D!

Front 45

Which of the following is NOT a direct
physiological response to additional forces
placed on abutment teeth?
A. Resorption of bone.
B. Increase in trabeculation.
C. Increase in width of cementum.
D. Increased density in cribiform plate.
E. Decrease in width of periodontal
ligament.

Back 45

E

Front 46

What is the most likely cause of long term
clinical failure for a metal-ceramic crown with
porcelain occlusal coverage on a molar?
A. Recurrent caries.
B. Cohesive porcelain fracture.
C. Adhesive porcelain fracture.
D. Loss of retention.

Back 46

could be A

Front 47

Which is the most appropriate treatment for a
patient who reports persistent thermal
sensitivity 4 weeks after placement of a
posterior composite resin restoration with
acceptable occlusion?
A. Adjust the restoration slightly out of
occlusion.
B. Replace the restoration with a reinforced
zinc oxide eugenol restoration.
C. Replace the restoration with a bonded
amalgam restoration.
D. Replace the restoration with a bonded
composite resin restoration

Back 47

B

pulp need rest and healing time

Front 48

During matrix band removal, the risk of marginal ridge fracture of an amalgam restoration is reduced by
A. completing most of the shaping of the marginal ridge before removal.
B. leaving an excess of amalgam in the occlusal area before removal.
C. contouring and wedging the band.
D. using universal circumferential retainers and bands.

Back 48

A

Front 49

A dry and crumbly mix of amalgam can be the
result of
A. under trituration.
B. over trituration.
C. high copper content.
D. lack of zinc content

Back 49

A

Undertriturated = dull, crumbly, ↓strength, ↑creep. ■ Overtriturated = wet, runny, sticky, ↓↓strength, ↑corrosion, ↓setting expansion time, ↑creep. ■ Properly triturated = shiny, smooth, and homogenous

Front 50

In a Class I occlusion, which cusp of which
permanent tooth moves between the
mesiolingual and distolingual cusps of the
mandibular second molar in a working side
movement?
A. Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first
molar.
B. Distolingual cusp of the maxillary first
molar.
C. Mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary second
molar.
D. Distolingual cusp of the maxillary second
molar.

Back 50

C!

(Distolingual cusp позади)

Front 51

Which of the following space maintainers is
most appropriate for a patient with the bilateral
loss of mandibular first primary molars prior to
the eruption of the permanent molars and
permanent incisors?
A. Lingual holding arch.
B. Bilateral distal shoes.
C. Bilateral band and loop.
D. Nance appliance.

Back 51

C

Front 52

Vital pulps of elderly patients
A. show a decrease in the number of
collagenous fibres.
B. have decreased reparative capacity
compared to younger adults.
C. typically form dentinal bridges with
appropriate pulp capping procedures.
D. show an increase in myelinated nerves
when compared to pulps of younger adults

Back 52

B

Front 53

What is the most appropriate management for
leukoplakia?
A. Observation.
B. Replacement of amalgam restorations.
C. Changes in diet.
D. Biopsy.
E. Carbon dioxide laser ablation

Back 53

D

ref from BB

Front 54

Which of the following is NOT a function of
the wedge in the restoration of a Class II cavity
with amalgam?
A. It separates the teeth to allow restoration of
the contact.
B. It assists in the adaptation of the matrix
band to the proximal portion of the
preparation.
C. It absorbs moisture from the cavity
preparation, allowing the restoration to be
placed in a dry field.
D. It provides stability to the matrix band and
retainer assembly

Back 54

C

Front 55

The purpose of hand hygiene in infection
control is primarily to reduce the
A. resident microflora in the deep tissue
layers.
B. quantity of transient microorganisms on
the surface of the hands.
C. dryness of the skin prior to donning
gloves.
D. risk of patient contamination.

Back 55

B

Front 56

Prolonged therapeutic administration of
cortisone induces
A. hypoglycemia.
B. hypofunction of the adrenal cortex.
C. hypofunction of the adrenal medulla.
D. hyperfunction of the adrenal cortex.
E. hyperfunction of the adrenal medulla.

Back 56

B

(кортикоиды-кортекс)

Front 57

What is the most probable complication of a
local anesthetic injection into the parotid
gland?
A. Infection.
B. Trismus.
C. Diplopia.
D. Facial paralysis.

Back 57

D

Front 58

As the mandible grows downward and forward, bone deposition takes place
A. on all surfaces of the mandible.
B. on the posterior border of the ramus.
C. on the anterior border of the ramus.
D. on the alveolar margins.
E. B. and D

Back 58

probably B

ref from BB