2010 Released Qs And Ans6

Front 1

Intermittent painful swelling in the
submandibular region that increases at
mealtime is indicative of
A. a ranula.
B. a blockage of Wharton's duct.
C. Ludwig's angina.
D. a blockage of Stensen's duct.
E. an epidemic parotitis.

Back 1

B. a blockage of Wharton's duct.

Front 2

Which of the following anatomic spaces is
most likely to be involved as a result of an
apical infection of a mandibular third
molar?
A. Sublingual.
B. Submandibular.
C. Submental.
D. Submasseteric.

Back 2

B. Submandibular.

Front 3

Which of the following is NOT a true
cyst?
1. Dentigerous cyst.
2. Odontogenic keratocyst.
3. Traumatic bone cyst.
4. Radicular cyst.
5. Lateral periodontal cyst.

Back 3

3. Traumatic bone cyst
5. Lateral periodontal cyst.

Front 4

Chronically inflamed submandibular
lymph nodes are
A. soft.
B. not palpable.
C. firm.
D. fixed.

Back 4

C. firm.

Front 5

Signs and symptoms of occlusal
traumatism are
1. pain.
2. tooth mobility.
3. radiographic evidence of increased
periodontal space.
4. loss of pulp vitality.

Back 5

1. pain.
2. tooth mobility.
3. radiographic evidence of increased
periodontal space.

Front 6

Multinucleated giant cells are associated
with
1. plasmocytoma.
2. odontogenic myxoma.
3. hyperparathyroidism.
4. tuberculosis.
5. osteoclastoma.

Back 6

3. hyperparathyroidism.
4. tuberculosis.
5. osteoclastoma.

Front 7

Which of the following is NEVER
associated with an impacted tooth?
A. Adeno-ameloblastoma.
B. Odontogenic myxoma.
C. Pindborg's tumor.
D. Primordial cyst.
E. Ameloblastoma.

Back 7

D. Primordial cyst.

Front 8

Which of the following is/are NOT
usually affected by hereditary ectodermal
dysplasia?
A. Salivary glands.
B. Teeth.
C. Sweat glands.
D. Hair.
E. Fingernails.

Back 8

A. Salivary glands.

Front 9

The term "carcinoma in situ" implies that
the lesion shows
A. metaplasia.
B. early invasion of malignant cells
through the basement membrane.
C. dysplasia of cells confined within the
epithelium.
D. distant metastasis of a malignant
tumour.

Back 9

C. dysplasia of cells confined within the
epithelium.

Front 10

The redness of an inflammatory lesion of
oral mucosa is due to
A. increased number of capillaries.
B. increased size of capillaries.
C. decreased thickness of epithelium.
D. decreased connective tissue
elements.
E. All of the above.

Back 10

E. All of the above.

Front 11

An occluded submandibular duct can be
diagnosed by
A. history.
B. palpation.
C. sialography.
D. occlusal radiographs.
E. All of the above.

Back 11

E. All of the above.

Front 12

A 2cm, discrete, white lesion of the buccal
mucosa has not resolved after elimination
of all local irritants. The most appropriate
management would be to
A. cauterize it.
B. apply toluidine blue staining.
C. perform an incisional biopsy.
D. re-examine at 6 month intervals.
E. refer patient to family physician.

Back 12

C. perform an incisional biopsy.

Front 13

Exfoliative cytology is of value in the
diagnosis of
A. lichen planus.
B. aphthous ulceration.
C. herpes simplex.
D. benign mucous membrane
pemphigoid.
E. erythema multiforme.

Back 13

C. herpes simplex.

Front 14

Palpation gives information as to
1. induration.
2. tenderness.
3. size.
4. fixation.
5. mobility.

Back 14

E. All of the above.

Front 15

Which one of the following would be of
greatest value in determining the etiology
of an oral ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.

Back 15

A. History of the oral lesion

Front 16

A healthy 38 year old has a 4mm in
diameter, well defined radiolucency at the
apex of tooth 4.1. The tooth has a normal
response to vitality tests. The most
appropriate management is
A. incision and drainage.
B. extraction.
C. observation.
D. apicoectomy.
E. open the tooth for drainage

Back 16

C. observation.

Front 17

Which of the following can be
characterized by a narrowing of pulp
chambers and root canals?
1. Aging.
2. Chronic trauma.
3. Dentinal dysplasia.
4. Taurodontism.

Back 17

1. Aging.
2. Chronic trauma.
3. Dentinal dysplasia.

Front 18

Percussion of a tooth is used to evaluate
1. ankylosis.
2. mobility.
3. pain.
4. vitality.

Back 18

1. ankylosis.
3. pain.

Front 19

A patient with congestive heart failure
may have
1. epistaxis.
2. shortness of breath.
3. exophthalmos.
4. pitting edema of the ankles.

Back 19

2. shortness of breath.
4. pitting edema of the ankles.

Front 20

An end result of ionizing radiation used to
treat oral malignancies of the jaws is
A. deformity.
B. reduced vascularity.
C. increased vascularity.
D. increased brittleness

Back 20

B. reduced vascularity.

Front 21

Resin bonding of composites to acidetched
enamel results in
A. decreased polymerization shrinkage
of the resin.
B. decreased crack formation in the
enamel.
C. reduced microleakage.
D. improved wear resistance of the
composite.

Back 21

C. reduced microleakage

Front 22

Lidocaine (Xylocaine) is an example of a
local anesthetic which is chemically
classified as an
A. amide.
B. ester.
C. aldehyde.
D. ethamine.
E. aminide.

Back 22

A. amide.

Front 23

Management of a patient with an acute
periapical abscess should include
1. elimination of the cause.
2. drainage.
3. supportive therapy.
4. external hot compresses.

Back 23

1. elimination of the cause.
2. drainage.
3. supportive therapy.

Front 24

In Canada, it is ethical for a dentist to
refuse to treat a patient on the basis of the
A. patient’s religious beliefs.
B. patient’s physical handicap.
C. patient’s infectious disease status.
D. complexity of the required treatment.

Back 24

D. complexity of the required treatment.

Front 25

Which of the following are characteristic
symptoms of acute pulpitis?
1. Spontaneous throbbing pain.
2. Prolonged pain initiated by heat.
3. Pain on percussion.
4. Increased pain by cold.

Back 25

1. Spontaneous throbbing pain.
2. Prolonged pain initiated by heat.
3. Pain on percussion.

Front 26

A pontic replacing a mandibular first
molar should be designed so that it(s)
1. gingival surface is concave and
adapts closely to the ridge.
2. has open gingival embrasures.
3. conceals the porcelain to metal
junction on its gingival surface.
4. gingival surface is convex in all
directions.

Back 26

2. has open gingival embrasures.
4. gingival surface is convex in all
directions.

Front 27

Which of the following cements can
chemically bond to enamel?
1. Zinc phosphate cement.
2. Polycarboxylate cement.
3. Reinforced zinc oxide eugenol
cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement.

Back 27

2. Polycarboxylate cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement.

Front 28

A patient suddenly becomes pale and
sweaty after an injection of 4ml of
lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00,000.
The radial pulse is slow and steady. The
respiration is slow. The blood pressure is
80/60. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. A toxic reaction to lidocaine.
B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine.
C. An allergic reaction to the local
anesthetic.
D. Incipient syncope.
E. An impending adrenal insufficiency.

Back 28

D. Incipient syncope.

Front 29

Early signs and symptoms of localized
alveolar osteitis (dry socket) include
1. bleeding.
2. bad odour.
3. pus formation.
4. pain.

Back 29

2. bad odour.
4. pain.

Front 30

Immediately after the extraction of a tooth,
which of the following would be
CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Analgesics.
B. Application of cold.
C. Soft diet.
D. Frequent rinsing of the socket.
E. Rest.

Back 30

D. Frequent rinsing of the socket.

Front 31

The principles of closed fracture
management are
1. incision at fracture site.
2. reduction of fracture.
3. debridement of fracture site.
4. immobilization of fracture.
5. restoration of occlusion.

Back 31

2. reduction of fracture.
4. immobilization of fracture.
5. restoration of occlusion

Front 32

A patient dislocates his mandible for the
first time. After reduction, you should
A. inject the joint with hydrocortisone.
B. inject the joint with a sclerosing
solution.
C. have the patient exercise the
mandible to avoid trismus.
D. immobilize for ten days.

Back 32

D. immobilize for ten days.

Front 33

Which of the following will impede
healing following the surgical closure of
an oro-antral fistula?
1. Poor flap design.
2. Excessive tissue tension.
3. Blowing the nose.
4. Sinus infection.

Back 33

E. All of the above.

Front 34

A periapical infection of a mandibular
third molar may spread by direct extension
to the
1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.
4. submental space.

Back 34

1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.

Front 35

The most likely complication associated
with the extraction of an isolated maxillary
second molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.

Back 35

D. fracture of the tuberosity.

Front 36

The surgical risk for a patient with organic
heart disease depends upon
A. cardiac reserve.
B. blood pressure.
C. respiration.
D. pulse rate.
E. cardiac output.

Back 36

A. cardiac reserve.

Front 37

Displacement of fractures is influenced by
1. age.
2. hemorrhage.
3. direction of the blow.
4. muscle attachments.
5. direction of fracture line.

Back 37

3. direction of the blow.
4. muscle attachments.
5. direction of fracture line.

Front 38

Which of the following may be associated
with a fracture of the mandible?
1. Diplopia.
2. Malocclusion.
3. Swelling of the orbit.
4. Pain.

Back 38

2. Malocclusion.
4. Pain.

Front 39

A Le Fort I or Guerin fracture is a
A. fracture of the zygomatic arch.
B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.
C. fracture of the malar complex
involving the floor of the orbit.
D. pyramidal fracture of the maxilla.
E. cranio-facial dysjunction.

Back 39

B. horizontal fracture of the maxilla.

Front 40

A patient presenting with diplopia,
exophthalmos, nasal bleeding and
swelling, may suffer from a fracture of the
A. neck of the condyle.
B. body of the mandible.
C. zygomatic bone.
D. maxillary tuberosity.

Back 40

C. zygomatic bone.

Front 41

Bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
4. platelet count.

Back 41

1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Front 42

A physical sign of impending syncope is
A. pallor.
B. elevation of blood pressure.
C. fast pulse.
D. All of the above.

Back 42

A. pallor.

Front 43

In an acute upper airway obstruction, the
entry to the airway on an emergency basis
should be made at the
A. cricoid cartilage.
B. thyroid notch.
C. thyroid membrane.
D. cricothyroid membrane.
E. first tracheal ring.

Back 43

D. cricothyroid membrane.

Front 44

Fractures of the maxilla can best be
diagnosed by
1. occlusal radiographs.
2. clinical examination.
3. lateral jaw radiographs.
4. evidence of periorbital edema.
5. anteroposterior radiograph of the
skull.

Back 44

2. clinical examination
4. evidence of periorbital edema

Front 45

Preoperative evaluation of a healthy
patient requiring elective oral surgery in
hospital should include
1. a complete history.
2. a physical examination.
3. an oral examination.
4. appropriate radiographic examination.
5. appropriate laboratory tests.

Back 45

E. All of the above.

Front 46

For an acute bacterial infection, the most
valuable laboratory test(s) is/are the
1. hemoglobin level.
2. white blood cell count.
3. red blood cell count.
4. culture and sensitivity test.

Back 46

2. white blood cell count
4. culture and sensitivity test.

Front 47

Ludwig's angina may cause death by
A. heart failure.
B. asphyxia.
C. convulsions.
D. paralysis of muscles of respiration.
E. pyemia.

Back 47

B. asphyxia.

Front 48

A periapical granuloma is
1. radiolucent.
2. painless.
3. neoplastic.
4. inflammatory.

Back 48

1. radiolucent.
2. painless.
4. inflammatory.

Front 49

It is difficult to obtain satisfactory
anesthesia in the presence of infection near
the injection site because
A. the swelling causes increased
pressure on the nerves.
B. increased blood supply carries the
anesthetic solution away too fast.
C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits
action of the anesthetic agent.
D. alkalinity of the infected tissue
inhibits action of the anesthetic
agent.

Back 49

C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits
action of the anesthetic agent

Front 50

Which of the following is best removed by
curettage?
A. Ameloblastoma.
B. Pleomorphic adenoma.
C. Central giant cell granuloma.
D. Squamous cell carcinoma.
E. Cylindroma.

Back 50

C. Central giant cell granuloma