2010 Released Qs And Ans45

Front 1

The definitive diagnosis of central
malignancy of the jawbone is made on
A. clinical examination.
B. radiographic translucency and loss of
trabeculation.
C. exfoliative cytology.
D. biopsy.
E. All of the above.

Back 1

D. biopsy

Front 2

Which of the following epithelial changes
is most likely to be precancerous?
A. Acanthosis.
B. Hyperkeratosis.
C. Parakeratosis.
D. Dysplasia.

Back 2

D. Dysplasia.

Front 3

A tourniquet test gives information as to
A. clot retraction time.
B. capillary fragility.
C. bleeding time.
D. coagulation time.
E. platelet activity.

Back 3

B. capillary fragility.

Front 4

The most common clinical finding in the
diagnosis of an acute periapical abscess is
A. mobility of the tooth.
B. pain on percussion.
C. discoloration of the crown.
D. presence of a cellulitis.
E. lymph node enlargement

Back 4

B. pain on percussion.

Front 5

Smooth, irregular, red patches surrounded
by a white border on the dorsal surface of
the tongue is indicative of
A. fissured tongue.
B. geographic tongue.
C. black hairy tongue.
D. red raspberry tongue.

Back 5

B. geographic tongue.

Front 6

The characteristic oral lesion(s) of
pemphigus is/are
A. vesicles and bullae.
B. Fordyce's granules.
C. white plaques.
D. hairy tongue.
E. candidiasis (candidosis).

Back 6

A. vesicles and bullae.

Front 7

Typical history of a mucocele is
A. a slowly growing tumor mass.
B. a pain immediately before eating.
C. a trauma, swelling, rupture,
disappearance, recurrence.
D. an ulcerated area on buccal mucosa.
E. frequent bleeding.

Back 7

C. a trauma, swelling, rupture,
disappearance, recurrence.

Front 8

A distinctive clinical entity originating as
a proliferative response of the soft tissue
of the oral mucosa to a non-specific
irritant is called
A. cellulitis.
B. abscess.
C. pyogenic granuloma.
D. "canker sore".
E. None of the above.

Back 8

C. pyogenic granuloma.

Front 9

Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis affects
MAINLY the
A. attached gingivae.
B. gingival papillae.
C. alveolar mucosa.
D. buccal mucosa.
E. epithelial attachment

Back 9

B. gingival papillae.

Front 10

In a 10-year old child with a normal mixed
dentition and healthy periodontal tissues,
removal of the labial frenum (frenectomy)
is indicated when a diastema is present
and
A. the frenum is located at the
mucogingival junction.
B. the papilla does not blanch when
tension is placed on the frenum.
C. the frenum is located on the attached
gingiva.
D. the papilla blanches when tension is
placed on the frenum.

Back 10

D. the papilla blanches when tension is
placed on the frenum.

Front 11

Median palatine cysts are classified as
A. developmental.
B. residual.
C. idiopathic.
D. odontogenic.

Back 11

A. developmental.

Front 12

A patient with xerostomia complains that
he has to sip water when chewing food.
Which salivary gland(s) is most likely
responsible for the lack of lubrication?
A. Submandibular.
B. Labial.
C. Parotid.
D. Sublingual.

Back 12

A. Submandibular.

Front 13

A diabetic patient collapses during dental
treatment and you suspect that the cause is
hypoglycemia. The patient is still
conscious. Your immediate treatment is
A. a subcutaneous injection of 10~units
soluble insulin.
B. a subcutaneous injection of 5~units
soluble insulin.
C. a drink of oral glucose or sugar.
D. intravenous glucose - 25g.

Back 13

C. a drink of oral glucose or sugar.

Front 14

A patient returns with persistent bleeding
5 hours after a tooth has been removed.
The most appropriate management is to
A. give 10 mg of Vitamin K
intramuscularly.
B. have patient bite on gauze saturated
with epinephrine.
C. place absorbable gelatin sponge in
the socket and suture.
D. refer the patient for bleeding and
coagulation tests.

Back 14

B. have patient bite on gauze saturated
with epinephrine.

Front 15

The best method of treatment of a nondisplaced
fracture of the body of the
mandible in an edentulous patient is
A. K-wire insertion without
immobilization.
B. open reduction and lower border
wiring without immobilization.
C. open reduction and lower border
wiring plus immobilization.
D. use of splint or lower denture with
circumferential wiring.

Back 15

D. use of splint or lower denture with
circumferential wiring.

Front 16

Which of the following is NOT an
indication for the removal of impacted
mandibular third molars?
A. Recurrent pericoronitis.
B. Crowding of incisors.
C. Pain.
D. Resorption of the distal aspect of the
second molar.

Back 16

B. Crowding of incisors.

Front 17

Patients with a history of ankle swelling,
shortness of breath and orthopnea are
probably suffering from
A. asthma.
B. emphysema.
C. congestive heart failure.
D. constrictive pericarditis.

Back 17

C. congestive heart failure.

Front 18

A patient is not able to close her left eye,
wrinkle her forehead or smile on the left
side. The most likely diagnosis is
A. contralateral subarachnoid
hemorrhage.
B. fracture of the base of the skull.
C. Horner's syndrome.
D. acute mastoiditis.
E. facial nerve paralysis (Bell's palsy).

Back 18

E. facial nerve paralysis (Bell's palsy).

Front 19

A healthy 66 year old patient who had a
myocardial infarct eight years previously
requires an extraction. Your treatment is to
A. admit the patient to hospital for
extraction with local anesthesia.
B. admit the patient to hospital for
extraction with general anesthesia.
C. extract the tooth in your office using
preoperative sedation and local
anesthesia without a vasoconstrictor.
D. treat the patient as you would a
normal patient.

Back 19

C. extract the tooth in your office using
preoperative sedation and local
anesthesia without a vasoconstrictor.

Front 20

In a patient with liver disease, a possible
complication is
A. syncope or shock.
B. postoperative infection.
C. prolonged bleeding.
D. allergic reaction to the anesthetic
solution.

Back 20

C. prolonged bleeding.

Front 21

An antipyretic drug
A. reduces fever.
B. provides analgesia.
C. causes loss of consciousness.
D. creates heat sensitivity.
E. counters the tendency for epileptic
seizures

Back 21

A. reduces fever.

Front 22

Which of the following antibiotics may be
cross-allergenic with penicillin?
A. Neomycin.
B. Cephalexin.
C. Clindamycin.
D. Erythromycin.
E. Tetracycline.

Back 22

B. Cephalexin.

Front 23

The most common systemic side effect of
erythromycin is
A. gastrointestinal.
B. dermatologic.
C. hematologic.
D. cardiovascular

Back 23

A. gastrointestinal.

Front 24

Which of the following drugs is used for
preoperative sedation?
A. Propoxyphene.
B. Phenylbutazone.
C. Diazepam.
D. Atropine.

Back 24

C. Diazepam.

Front 25

Thiopentone sodium (Pentothal) provides
all of the following advantages EXCEPT
A. smooth pleasant induction.
B. good sleep production.
C. rapid recovery.
D. acceptability for both young and old.
E. adequate length of operating time.

Back 25

E. adequate length of operating time.

Front 26

Patient nausea during nitrous oxide
administration is an indication that the
patient
A. is nervous.
B. has not eaten for some time.
C. is allergic to nitrous oxide.
D. has received the nitrous oxide too
quickly.

Back 26

D. has received the nitrous oxide too
quickly.

Front 27

The use of conscious sedation for a
restorative procedure in an office
environment
A. requires the services of an
anesthetist.
B. is contraindicated in children.
C. precludes the use of local anesthesia.
D. requires effective local anesthesia.
E. may be used in conjunction with
narcotics.

Back 27

D. requires effective local anesthesia.

Front 28

The left infraorbital nerve block
anaesthetizes
A. all maxillary teeth on the left side.
B. the maxillary premolar on the left
side, canine and incisor teeth.
C. the left maxillary canine and incisor
teeth only.
D. the entire left maxillary sinus.
E. the entire left naso-lacrimal duct.

Back 28

B. the maxillary premolar on the left
side, canine and incisor teeth.

Front 29

The first sensation lost after administration
of a local anesthetic is
A. pain.
B. touch.
C. pressure.
D. proprioception.

Back 29

A. pain.

Front 30

Which of the following local anesthetics is
subject to inactivation by plasma
esterases?
A. Procaine.
B. Lidocaine.
C. Prilocaine.
D. Mepivacaine.
E. Bupivacaine.

Back 30

A. Procaine.

Front 31

Protracted use of tetracycline may produce
symptoms of vitamin K deficiency
because tetracycline
A. is detoxified by the liver.
B. combines chemically with vitamin K.
C. inhibits growth of intestinal bacteria.
D. interferes with the conversion of
prothrombin to thrombin.

Back 31

C. inhibits growth of intestinal bacteria.

Front 32

The most important therapeutic measure to
be taken in a case of barbiturate poisoning
is to
A. alkalinize the urine.
B. aspirate stomach contents.
C. administer a CNS stimulant.
D. assure adequate respiration.

Back 32

D. assure adequate respiration.

Front 33

The therapeutic index of a drug is the ratio
of
A. the effective dose to the toxic dose.
B. half the toxic dose to half the
effective dose.
C. the maximum tolerated dose to the
minimum effective dose.
D. the lethal dose for 50 of animals to
the effective dose for 50 of
animals.

Back 33

D. the lethal dose for 50 of animals to
the effective dose for 50 of
animals.

Front 34

The short action of certain barbiturates is
due to
A. rapid redistribution.
B. rapid renal excretion.
C. rapid metabolism.
D. build up of tolerance.
E. conjugation with serum proteins

Back 34

A. rapid redistribution.

Front 35

Which of the following does NOT relieve
pain?
A. Codeine.
B. Methadone.
C. Meperidine.
D. Hydromorphone.
E. Chloral hydrate.

Back 35

E. Chloral hydrate.

Front 36

Administration of succinylcholine to a
patient deficient in serum cholinesterase
would most likely result in
A. convulsions.
B. hypertension.
C. prolonged apnea.
D. acute asthmatic attack.

Back 36

C. prolonged apnea

Front 37

A major secondary therapeutic use of the
phenothiazines is as an
A. antiemetic.
B. antidepressant.
C. anticonvulsant.
D. antihypertensive

Back 37

A. antiemetic.

Front 38

penicillin therapy,
A. bacteria should be tested for
penicillin-sensitivity.
B. you should assume that a gramnegative
organism is the causative
agent.
C. penicillin allergy should be
suspected.
D. the dose of penicillin should be
increased

Back 38

B. you should assume that a gramnegative
organism is the causative
agent.

Front 39

Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal?
A. Penicillin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Chloramphenicol.
E. Clindamycin.

Back 39

A. Penicillin.

Front 40

The principal difference between
potassium, procaine and benzathine salts
of penicillin G is their
A. potency.
B. toxicity.
C. duration of action.
D. antibacterial spectrum.
E. diffusion into the cerebrospinal fluid.

Back 40

C. duration of action.

Front 41

During drug-receptor interaction, local
anesthetics interfere with the transport of
which of the following ions?
A. Sodium.
B. Calcium.
C. Chloride.
D. Potassium.
E. Magnesium.

Back 41

A. Sodium.

Front 42

Which of the following drugs does NOT
have a tendency to produce blood
dyscrasia?
A. Codeine.
B. Indomethacin.
C. Phenylbutazone.
D. Chloramphenicol.

Back 42

A. Codeine.

Front 43

Atropine acts as a/an
A. sympatheticomimetic.
B. anticholinergic.
C. antispasmodic.
D. antiemetic.

Back 43

B. anticholinergic.

Front 44

All of the following are possible effects of
acetylsalicylic acid except
A. reduction of fever.
B. shortening of bleeding time.
C. suppression of inflammatory
response.
D. bleeding from the gastrointestinal
tract.

Back 44

B. shortening of bleeding time.

Front 45

Which properties increase the tendency of
a drug to cross membranes?
A. Non-ionized and high lipid
solubility.
B. Non-ionized and low lipid solubility.
C. Ionized and low lipid solubility.
D. Ionized and water solubility

Back 45

A. Non-ionized and high lipid
solubility

Front 46

A natural alkaloid obtained from opium is
A. Hydromorphone.
B. Meperidine.
C. Methadone.
D. Codeine.
E. None of the above

Back 46

D. Codeine.

Front 47

In facial injury management, the most
important first aid measure is to
A. control the bleeding.
B. prevent shock.
C. establish and maintain an airway.
D. control infection.

Back 47

C. establish and maintain an airway.

Front 48

Which of the following drugs is used in
treating opioid-dependent individuals?
A. Codeine.
B. Methadone.
C. Alphaprodine.
D. Pentazocine.
E. Meperidine.

Back 48

B. Methadone

Front 49

Bradycardia is a term that describes a heart
rate of
A. less than 60 per minute.
B. 61-80 per minute.
C. 81-100 per minute.
D. over 100 per minute

Back 49

A. less than 60 per minute.

Front 50

A dento-alveolar abscess most frequently
originates from (a)
A. post-extraction infection.
B. trauma.
C. periodontal cyst.
D. pulpal necrosis

Back 50

D. pulpal necrosis