2010 Released Qs And Ans43

Front 1

The most appropriate management for a
tooth with a history of previous trauma
that now exhibits apical resorption is
A. observation over 6 months for further
resorption.
B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium
hydroxide.
C. immediate instrumentation and
obturation followed by apical
curettage.
D. extraction, apical resection,
retrofilling and replantation.
E. extraction and replacement with a
fixed or removable prosthesis.

Back 1

B. complete instrumentation and
medication with intracanal calcium
hydroxide.

Front 2

Which of the following dental procedures
could be performed with minimal risk for
a 35 year old patient with a severe
bleeding disorder?
A. Mandibular block anesthesia.
B. Supragingival calculus removal.
C. Incisional biopsy.
D. Subgingival restoration.

Back 2

A. Mandibular block anesthesia.

Front 3

Which of the following cells are
characteristic of chronic inflammation of
the dental pulp?
1. Plasma cells.
2. Macrophages.
3. Lymphocytes.
4. Neutrophils.

Back 3

1. Plasma cells.
2. Macrophages.
3. Lymphocytes.

Front 4

An open proximal contact on an amalgam
restoration can be prevented by
A. appropriate wedge selection.
B. tightening the matrix band.
C. light condensing forces.
D. simultaneous placement of adjacent
proximal restorations.

Back 4

A. appropriate wedge selection.

Front 5

Severe throbbing tooth pain which
increases when the patient lies down is a
symptom of
A. a pulp polyp.
B. late stage of acute pulpitis.
C. chronic pulpitis.
D. chronic apical abscess.
E. pulp hyperemia.

Back 5

B. late stage of acute pulpitis.

Front 6

Which of the following presents with high
serum calcium levels, thinning of cortical
bone and giant cell osteoclasts in the jaw
and drifting teeth?
A. Hyperthyroidism.
B. Hyperparathyroidism.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Hypoparathyroidism.

Back 6

B. Hyperparathyroidism.

Front 7

A patient experiences pain and some
gingival swelling in the anterior segment
of the mandible. The mandibular lateral
incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender
to percussion and gives a positive
response to the electric pulp tester. There
is some mobility. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. acute serous pulpitis.
C. lateral periodontal abscess.
D. acute suppurative pulpitis.
E. chronic ulcerative pulpitis.

Back 7

C. lateral periodontal abscess.

Front 8

Which of the following factors improves
the prognosis for a successful direct pulp
cap on a secondary tooth?
A. Lack of hemorrhage at the exposure
site.
B. The more fibrotic the pulp, the better
the prognosis.
C. The exposure is uncontaminated.
D. The decreased blood supply in an
older patient.

Back 8

C. The exposure is uncontaminated.

Front 9

The appropriate management for an
avascular white lesion, 5 x 3mm in size,
that has been present on the buccal
mucosa for 6 months and has recently
become ulcerated is
A. observation.
B. excisional biopsy.
C. incisional biopsy.
D. aspiration biopsy.
E. cytologic examination.

Back 9

B. excisional biopsy.

Front 10

A patient experiences pain and some
gingival swelling in the anterior segment
of the mandible. The mandibular lateral
incisor has a shallow restoration, is tender
to percussion and gives a positive
response to the electric pulp tester. There
is some mobility. The most likely
diagnosis is
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. acute serous pulpitis.
C. lateral periodontal abscess.
D. acute suppurative pulpitis.
E. chronic ulcerative pulpitis.

Back 10

C. lateral periodontal abscess.

Front 11

What is the most significant radiographic
finding in hyperparathyroidism?
A. Demineralization of teeth.
B. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts.
C. Hypercementosis.
D. Rampant caries.
E. Generalized loss of lamina dura.

Back 11

E. Generalized loss of lamina dura.

Front 12

Amphetamines
A. increase mental alertness and
decrease fatigue.
B. have analgesic properties
C. have no effect on psychomotor
activity.
D. are useful in controlling arrhythmias.

Back 12

A. increase mental alertness and
decrease fatigue.

Front 13

Collagenase activity is inhibited by
A. clindamycin.
B. tetracycline.
C. penicillin.
D. metronidazole.

Back 13

B. tetracycline.

Front 14

Which of the following indicates a failure
of a dental implant?
A. Gingival inflammation.
B. Horizontal bone loss of one third of
the implant length.
C. Mobility.
D. Increased probing depths.

Back 14

C. Mobility.

Front 15

Which function is NOT affected if the
lingual nerve is anesthized distal to the
anastomosis of the lingual and chorda
tympani nerve?
A. Swallowing.
B. Salivary gland.
C. Sensitivity of gingiva and tongue.
D. Taste.

Back 15

A. Swallowing.

Front 16

A 50 year old patient presents for
extraction of an asymptomatic tooth. The
preoperative blood pressure is 198/111
mmHg. The most appropriate treatment is
to
A. extract the tooth using a local
anesthetic without epinephrine.
B. extract the tooth using a local
anesthetic with epinephrine.
C. refer to a physician for preoperative
evaluation.
D. extract the tooth and refer to a
physician.

Back 16

C. refer to a physician for preoperative
evaluation.

Front 17

Which of the following side effects is
most likely to occur while using an
epinephrine-impregnated retraction cord?
A. Gingival hermorrhaging.
B. Decreased respiratory rate.
C. Hypotension.
D. Tachycardia.

Back 17

D. Tachycardia.

Front 18

Voids in a gypsum cast are most likely the
result of
A. low surface tension of a silicone
impression material.
B. high surface tension of an irreversible
hydrocolloid.
C. using a hydrophilized addition
silicone.
D. spraying a surfactant on the
impression.

Back 18

B. high surface tension of an irreversible
hydrocolloid.

Front 19

Correction of a bilateral posterior
constriction of the maxillary arch has the
best long term prognosis for stability if:
A. the maxillary posterior teeth are
centered on the alveolar process.
B. slow, fixed expansion quad-helix is
used.
C. there is no functional shift from
initial contact to maximum
intercuspation.
D. there is a history of prolonged
thumb-sucking.

Back 19

C. there is no functional shift from
initial contact to maximum
intercuspation.

Front 20

When a mandibular second molar that has
tipped mesially following extraction the
adjacent first is uprighted by fixed
orthodontic therapy (e.g. fixed appliance
on 47, 45, 44 and 43) the following tooth
movements usually occur:
1. extrusion of the second molar.
2. lingual tipping of the second molar.
3. intrusion of the anchor unit.
4. buccal tipping of the anchor unit

Back 20

E. All of the above.

Front 21

Epstein-Barr virus is accociated with
A. infectious mononucleosis.
B. shingles.
C. herpetic gingivostomatitis.
D. rubeola.

Back 21

A. infectious mononucleosis.

Front 22

Enamel caries is associated with
A. certain strains of streptococci.
B. certain strains of staphylococci.
C. certain strains of actinomyces.
D. certain strains of gram negative
anerobic bacteria.

Back 22

A. certain strains of streptococci.

Front 23

Which of the following features would be
most indicative of a cracked tooth?
A. Periapical radiolucency.
B. Hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli.
C. Pain upon biting pressure.
D. No response to electric pulp testing.

Back 23

C. Pain upon biting pressure.

Front 24

The antibiotic of choice for infections of
pulpal origin is
A. penicillin V.
B. metronidazole.
C. erythromycin.
D. tetracycline.

Back 24

A. penicillin V.

Front 25

The appropriate management for a white
lesion, 10 x 15mm in size, that has been
present on the buccal mucosa for 6 months
and has recently become ulcerated is
A. observation.
B. excisional biopsy.
C. incisional biopsy.
D. aspiration biopsy.
E. cytologic examination

Back 25

C. incisional biopsy.

Front 26

An anaphylactic reaction to penicillin is
most likely to occur
1. when the drug is administered
parenterally.
2. in patients who have already
experienced an allergic reaction to
the drug.
3. within minutes after drug
administration.
4. when the drug is administered orally.
5. in patients with a negative skin test to
penicillin allergy.

Back 26

1. when the drug is administered
parenterally.
2. in patients who have already
experienced an allergic reaction to
the drug.
3. within minutes after drug
administration.

Front 27

Side effects of therapeutic doses of
codeine can include
1. constipation.
2. drowsiness.
3. nausea.
4. respiratory depression.

Back 27

1. constipation.
2. drowsiness.
3. nausea.

Front 28

How would you manage a percussion
sensitive tooth that responds normally to
pulp testing?
A. Pulpectomy.
B. Occlusal assessment.
C. Coronal pulpotomy.
D. None of the above.

Back 28

B. Occlusal assessment.

Front 29

A patient has a draining sinus tract 6mm
apical to the free gingival margin of a
maxillary lateral incisor. You would
A. enucleate the sinus tract.
B. test the tooth for percussion
sensitivity.
C. perform pulp vitality tests.
D. open the tooth without anesthesia.
E. open into the pulp chamber and
establish the correct root length.

Back 29

D. open the tooth without anesthesia.

Front 30

For the bleaching of a discoloured and
devitalized tooth the most effective agent
is
A. sodium hypochlorite 5%.
B. parachlorophenol.
C. sodium bicarbonate.
D. hydrogen peroxide 30%.

Back 30

D. hydrogen peroxide 30%.

Front 31

The pulpal floor of an occlusal amalgam
preparation on a mandibular first premolar
should
A. be 2mm into the dentin.
B. slope apically from mesial to distal.
C. be parallel to the buccolingual cusp
plane.
D. be perpendicular to the long axis of
the tooth.

Back 31

C. be parallel to the buccolingual cusp
plane.

Front 32

After performing an apicoectomy, which
of the following should be placed in the
bony defect prior to suturing the flap?
A. Corticosteroids.
B. Antibiotic powder.
C. Oxidized cellulose.
D. Bone wax.
E. Nothing.

Back 32

E. Nothing.

Front 33

The mesiolingual groove is found on the
mandibular
A. permanent second molar.
B. permanent first molar.
C. second premolar.
D. first premolar.

Back 33

D. first premolar.

Front 34

Which of the following methods of cavity
preparation is most likely to cause damage
to the pulp?
A. Ultra high speed and water spray.
B. Ultra high speed and no water spray.
C. Conventional speed and no water
spray.
D. Conventional speed and water spray.

Back 34

B. Ultra high speed and no water spray.

Front 35

A patient complains of pain in a
mandibular molar when chewing hard
foods and taking cold liquids. Electric
pulp tests and radiographic appearance are
normal. The pain is likely caused by
A. acute apical periodontitis.
B. chronic apical periodontitis.
C. a cracked tooth.
D. chronic pulpitis.

Back 35

C. a cracked tooth.

Front 36

A carious maxillary central incisor with
acute suppurative pulpitis requires
A. immediate endodontics and
apicectomy.
B. incision and drainage.
C. opening of the canal and drainage for
one week.
D. pulpotomy.

Back 36

B. incision and drainage.

Front 37

The material of choice for obturating the
root canal system of a primary tooth is
A. silver cone.
B. gutta percha.
C. zinc-oxide eugenol.
D. paper point medicated with
formocresol.
E. zinc oxyphosphate.

Back 37

C. zinc-oxide eugenol.

Front 38

Apicoectomy is CONTRAINDICATED
when
A. periodontal disease causes
inadequate bony support.
B. there is a granuloma at the apex of
the tooth.
C. more than one tooth is involved.
D. the cortical plate is more than 4mm
thick.
E. the patient is diabetic

Back 38

A. periodontal disease causes
inadequate bony support.

Front 39

Hyperemia of the pulp is
A. an acute inflammation of the dental
pulp characterized by intermittent
paroxysms of pain which may
become continuous.
B. an excessive accumulation of blood
in the pulp resulting in vascular
congestion.
C. a chronic situation whereby minute
arterioles of pulpal tissue are
engorged for long periods creating
temporary episodes of pain.
D. a transient invasion of bacterial
elements into the outer lying stroma
of the pulpal tissue.

Back 39

B. an excessive accumulation of blood
in the pulp resulting in vascular
congestion.

Front 40

Periodontal involvement is most likely to
develop when a Class II restoration has
A. a flat marginal ridge.
B. no proximal contact.
C. deficient occlusal anatomy.
D. been placed supragingivally

Back 40

B. no proximal contact.

Front 41

Cell rests of Malassez are thought to
originate from
A. stellate reticulum.
B. dental papilla.
C. Hertwig's root sheath.
D. stratum intermedium.

Back 41

C. Hertwig's root sheath.

Front 42

Following the removal of a vital pulp, the
root canal is medicated and sealed. The
patient returns with apical periodontitis.
The most common cause is
A. overinstrumentation.
B. lateral perforation.
C. incorrect medication.
D. pulp tissue left in the root canal.
E. infection.

Back 42

A. overinstrumentation.

Front 43

Which of the following is the most
probable postoperative complication of
intracoronal bleaching a tooth that has not
been adequately obturated?
A. Fracture.
B. Discolouration.
C. Retrograde pulpitis.
D. Acute apical periodontitis.
E. External cervical root resorption.

Back 43

D. Acute apical periodontitis.

Front 44

The joining together of two teeth in the
root portion through cemental union is
known as
A. gemination.
B. fusion.
C. twinning.
D. concrescense.

Back 44

D. concrescense.

Front 45

After a thermal stimulus has been removed
from a tooth persistent pain suggests
A. a normal pulp.
B. pulp necrosis.
C. reversible pulpitis.
D. irreversible pulpitis.
E. exposed cervical dentin.

Back 45

D. irreversible pulpitis.

Front 46

In endodontics, which of the following
perforations has the poorest prognosis?
A. Furcation area of a molar.
B. Apical to the epithelial attachment.
C. Coronal to the epithelial attachment.
D. Near the apex.

Back 46

A. Furcation area of a molar.

Front 47

Gutta-percha may be softened or dissolved
within the root canal by using
A. alcohol.
B. ethyl chloride.
C. eugenol.
D. xylene.

Back 47

D. xylene.

Front 48

A patient complains of the discolouration
of an upper central incisor.
Radiographically, the pulp chamber and
the root canal space are obliterated and the
periodontal ligament space appears
normal. The most appropriate treatment
would be to
A. perform root canal treatment and non
vital bleaching.
B. perform root canal treatment and
fabricate a post retained porcelain
fused to metal crown.
C. perform root canal treatment and
fabricate a porcelain veneer.
D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal
crown.
E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

Back 48

E. fabricate a porcelain veneer.

Front 49

Radiographs of the mandibular incisor
teeth of a 45 year old healthy black female
patient reveal periapical radiolucencies.
The teeth are vital and asymptomatic. You
would
A. perform a biopsy of the radiolucent
lesion.
B. perform endodontic therapy on the
four incisors.
C. place a drain in the affected area.
D. observe periodically.

Back 49

D. observe periodically.

Front 50

The masseter muscle originates from the
A. angle of the mandible.
B. coronoid process.
C. pterygoid fossa.
D. zygomatic arch.

Back 50

D. zygomatic arch.