2010 Released Qs And Ans40

Front 1

The characteristics of "group~function"
occlusion are:
A. The teeth on the non-working side
make contact in lateral excursion.
B. The teeth on the working side make
contact in lateral excursion.
C. Only the canine and lateral incisors
make contact in lateral excursion.
D. The posterior teeth on both sides
make contact in lateral excursion.

Back 1

B. The teeth on the working side make
contact in lateral excursion.

Front 2

The line drawn through the occlusal rests
of two principal abutments is
A. survey line.
B. terminal line.
C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line.
D. line of greatest torque.

Back 2

C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line.

Front 3

When a simple tipping force is applied to
the crown of a single-rooted tooth, the
centre of rotation is located
A. at the apex.
B. at the cervical line.
C. within the apical half of the root.
D. within the cervical one third of the
root.

Back 3

C. within the apical half of the root.

Front 4

The leeway space in an 8 year old child
A. will provide space for eruption of the
permanent incisors.
B. is greater in the maxillary arch than
in the mandibular arch.
C. occurs with premature loss of
primary molars.
D. is approximately 3.5mm in the
mandibular arch.
E. allows accommodation of premolars
that are larger than the primary
molars.

Back 4

D. is approximately 3.5mm in the
mandibular arch.

Front 5

During routine examination, it is noted
that a premolar is erupting ectopically
3.5mm to lingual while the primary
predecessor is still firmly in place. The
most appropriate management is to
A. allow the primary tooth to exfoliate
naturally.
B. luxate the primary tooth to facilitate
its exfoliation.
C. remove the primary tooth and allow
the permanent successor to erupt.
D. extract the ectopically erupting
premolar.

Back 5

C. remove the primary tooth and allow
the permanent successor to erupt.

Front 6

Each of the following can cause maxillary
midline diastema EXCEPT
A. a mesiodens.
B. congenitally missing lateral incisors.
C. a tongue thrust habit.
D. a thumb-sucking habit.
E. absence of primate spaces.

Back 6

E. absence of primate spaces.

Front 7

Glass ionomer cement is superior to zinc
phosphate cement because it has
A. lower solubility in oral fluids.
B. fluoride release.
C. higher compressive strength.
D. lower film thickness.

Back 7

B. fluoride release.

Front 8

During the act of swallowing, the auditory
(pharyngotympanic) tube is
A. opened by the tensor tympani
muscle.
B. closed by the tensor tympani muscle.
C. opened by the tensor veli palatine
muscle.
D. closed by the levator veli palatine
muscle.
E. closed by the superior constrictor
muscle.

Back 8

C. opened by the tensor veli palatine
muscle.

Front 9

Immediately following an inferior alveolar
nerve block, the patient exhibits facial
paralysis. The needle has penetrated
through which ligament?
A. Sphenomandibular.
B. Stylomandibular.
C. Stylohyoid.
D. Pterygomandibular

Back 9

A. Sphenomandibular.

Front 10

The dentino-enamel junction is the most
sensitive portion of a tooth because
A. free nerve endings terminate on
odontoblasts at this region.
B. odontoblastic processes branch
considerably at this region.
C. ameloblasts make synaptic
connections with odontoblasts at this
junction.
D. odontoblastic tubules help convey
hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells.

Back 10

D. odontoblastic tubules help convey
hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells.

Front 11

In a normally developing occlusion,
spaces between deciduous or permanent
incisors are called
A. physiological spaces.
B. primate spaces.
C. leeway spaces.
D. freeway spaces.

Back 11

A. physiological spaces.

Front 12

The primary stimulus for growth of the
mandible is
1. genetic.
2. epigenetic.
3. functional.
4. environmental.

Back 12

1. genetic.
3. functional.

Front 13

Saliva is most effective in minimizing an
acid challenge by its
A. lubrication function.
B. antimicrobial effect.
C. buffering action.
D. fluoride concentration.

Back 13

C. buffering action.

Front 14

The central action of caffeine is
principally on the
A. cerebral cortex.
B. corpus callosum.
C. hypothalamus.
D. spinal cord.
E. medulla.

Back 14

A. cerebral cortex.

Front 15

The principal growth sites of the maxilla
in a downward and forward direction
include the
1. frontomaxillary suture.
2. zygomaticomaxillary suture.
3. pterygopalatine suture.
4. median palatine suture.

Back 15

1. frontomaxillary suture.
2. zygomaticomaxillary suture.
3. pterygopalatine suture.

Front 16

A vertical cross-section of a smooth
surface carious lesion in enamel appears as
a triangle with the
A. base at the dentino-enamel junction.
B. base facing toward the pulp.
C. apex pointing to the enamel surface
D. apex pointing to the dentino-enamel
junction.

Back 16

D. apex pointing to the dentino-enamel
junction.

Front 17

The clinical width of attached gingiva is
determined by measuring the distance
from the
A. free gingival margin to the
mucogingival line plus the
periodontal pocket depth.
B. free gingival margin to the depth of
the periodontal pocket.
C. free gingival margin to the
mucogingival line minus the
periodontal pocket depth.
D. free gingival margin to the
mucogingival line.

Back 17

C. free gingival margin to the
mucogingival line minus the
periodontal pocket depth.

Front 18

A line angle NOT present on a Class I
cavity preparation on tooth 1.6 is
A. mesiopulpal.
B. buccopulpal.
C. linguopulpal.
D. axiopulpal.
E. None of the above.

Back 18

D. axiopulpal.

Front 19

Major connectors of a cast maxillary
partial denture are beaded at the periphery
in order to
A. improve tissue contact.
B. aid in retention of the denture.
C. produce a stronger framework.
D. form a finish line between metal and
acrylic.
E. retain the acrylic to the metal of the
framework.

Back 19

A. improve tissue contact.

Front 20

Adjustment of the occlusal plane of
natural teeth opposed by a complete or
partial denture should be completed
A. after the teeth have been set on the
trial denture.
B. immediately after making the final
casts.
C. upon delivery of the denture.
D. after the diagnosis and treatment plan
has been established.

Back 20

D. after the diagnosis and treatment plan
has been established.

Front 21

Which of the following bacterial groups is
anaerobic?
A. Clostridia.
B. Diplococci.
C. Mycobacteria.
D. Staphylococci.

Back 21

A. Clostridia.

Front 22

A patient has a history of shortness of
breath and ankle edema. You would
suspect
A. asthma.
B. emphysema.
C. rhinophyma.
D. cardiac insufficiency.

Back 22

D. cardiac insufficiency.

Front 23

A primary molar, in the absence of its
permanent successor,
A. should be treated endodontically to
prevent root resorption.
B. may remain for years with no
significant resorption.
C. will undergo normal root resorption.
D. should be extracted.
E. is more susceptible to dental caries.

Back 23

B. may remain for years with no
significant resorption.

Front 24

Which thermal property is most important
in selecting a restorative material to
protect the pulp from excessive
temperature changes?
A. conductivity.
B. diffusivity.
C. expansion coefficient.
D. modulus.

Back 24

A. conductivity.

Front 25

The yield strength of an orthodontic wire
is
A. the same as the proportional limit.
B. decreased by work hardening.
C. the same as the stress at fracture.
D. higher than the proportional limit.

Back 25

D. higher than the proportional limit.

Front 26

Hardening of Type IV cast gold dental
alloys by heat treatment increases
A. ductility.
B. yield strength.
C. coring.
D. elastic modulus.
E. malleability.

Back 26

B. yield strength.

Front 27

The predominant organism(s) associated
with chronic (adult) periodontitis is/are
1. Prevotella intermedia.
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
3. Porphyromonas gingivalis.
4. Helicobacter pilori.

Back 27

1. Prevotella intermedia.
3. Porphyromonas gingivalis

Front 28

The higher modulus of elasticity of a
chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared
to a Type IV gold alloy, means that
chromium-cobalt-nickel partial denture
clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp
arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.

Back 28

D. a shallower undercut.

Front 29

If the lining cement is left on the gingival
cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam
restoration,
A. cement dissolution will lead to
leakage.
B. the preparation will lack retention
form.
C. the preparation will lack resistance
form to bulk fracture.
D. the preparation will lack appropriate
outline form.

Back 29

A. cement dissolution will lead to
leakage.

Front 30

The rate of orthodontic tooth movement is
greater in adolescents compared with
adults due to
A. higher metabolic rate in adults.
B. differences in tissue bone reaction.
C. closure of root apices.
D. completion of growth

Back 30

B. differences in tissue bone reaction.

Front 31

Exfoliative cytology is of value in the
diagnosis of
A. lichen planus.
B. aphthous ulceration.
C. herpes simplex.
D. benign mucous membrane
pemphigoid.
E. erythema multiforme.

Back 31

C. herpes simplex.

Front 32

Heavy cigarette smoking significantly
increases the incidence of
A. aphthous stomatitis.
B. geographic tongue.
C. lichen planus.
D. atrophic glossitis.
E. mucosal pigmentation.

Back 32

E. mucosal pigmentation.

Front 33

Which of the following statements is/are
true regarding diazepam?
1. Its long duration of action is partly
due to active metabolites.
2. It does not produce anti-anxiety
effects after intramuscular
administration.
3. Intravenous administration is more
reliable than oral.
4. Its sedative effect can be reversed by
naloxone.

Back 33

1. Its long duration of action is partly
due to active metabolites.
3. Intravenous administration is more
reliable than oral.

Front 34

The washing of hands must be performed
before putting on and after removing
gloves because it
1. reduces the number of skin bacteria
which multiply and cause irritation.
2. completely eliminates skin bacteria.
3. minimizes the transient bacteria
which could contaminate hands
through small pinholes.
4. allows gloves to slide on easier when
the hands are moist.

Back 34

1. reduces the number of skin bacteria
which multiply and cause irritation.
3. minimizes the transient bacteria
which could contaminate hands
through small pinholes.

Front 35

The presence of anterior diastemas and
distally inclined maxillary incisors in a
9 year old child will most likely
A. be associated with a Class II division
II malocclusion.
B. involve the presence of mesiodens.
C. self correct.
D. require orthodontic treatment.
E. be associated with hypodontia.

Back 35

C. self correct.

Front 36

The occlusal parameter that is most useful
to differentiate between an overbite of
dental or skeletal origin is the
A. mandibular curve of Spee.
B. mandibular curve of Wilson.
C. molar sagittal relationship.
D. mandibular anterior lack of space.
E. maxillary curve of Wilson

Back 36

A. mandibular curve of Spee.

Front 37

Which parameter is a
CONTRAINDICATION for serial
extraction?
A. Crowding of 7mm or more per
quadrant.
B. Class I molar relationship.
C. Skeletal deepbite.
D. Class I skeletal relationship.
E. Coordinated dental arches.

Back 37

C. Skeletal deepbite.

Front 38

A clinical diagnostic indication of palatal
impaction of maxillary permanent canines
does NOT include
A. proclined and laterally flared
permanent lateral incisors.
B. delayed exfoliation of primary
canines.
C. midline central diastema.
D. lack of canine buccal bulges in a 10
year old patient.

Back 38

C. midline central diastema.

Front 39

A patient, when in full intercuspation,
shows a right side posterior crossbite and a
lower midline that is deviated to the right.
At initial contact there are bilateral
posterior crossbites and coincident
midlines. The most likely cause of this
finding is
A. severe temporomandibular
dysfunction.
B. two ideal occlusions.
C. true unilateral crossbite.
D. occlusal interference and functional
shift.

Back 39

D. occlusal interference and functional
shift.

Front 40

A healthy 66 year old patient who had a
myocardial infarct eight years previously
requires an extraction. Treatment should
include
A. admitting the patient to hospital for
extraction with local anesthesia.
B. admitting the patient to hospital for
extraction with general anesthesia.
C. extracting the tooth in the office
using preoperative sedation and local
anesthesia without a vasoconstrictor.
D. extracting the tooth in the office
using local anesthesia with a
vasoconstrictor.

Back 40

D. extracting the tooth in the office
using local anesthesia with a
vasoconstrictor.