2010 Released Qs And Ans4

Front 1

Fractures of the maxilla can best be
diagnosed by
1. lateral jaw radiographs.
2. clinical examination.
3. evidence of periorbital edema.
4. anteroposterior radiograph of the
skull.

Back 1

1. lateral jaw radiographs.
2. clinical examination.
3. evidence of periorbital edema.

Front 2

A loss of sensation in the lower lip may be
produced by
1. Bell's palsy.
2. metastatic malignancy to the body of
the mandible.
3. trigeminal neuralgia.
4. fracture in the mandibular first molar
region.

Back 2

2. metastatic malignancy to the body of
the mandible.
4. fracture in the mandibular first molar
region.

Front 3

Which of the following nerves should be
anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary
lateral incisor?
1. Nasociliary.
2. Nasopalatine.
3. Sphenopalatine.
4. Anterior superior alveolar.

Back 3

2. Nasopalatine.
4. Anterior superior alveolar.

Front 4

Extraction of a tooth is
CONTRAINDICATED in the dental
office for a patient who
1. had a myocardial infarct two months
ago.
2. is hypothyroid.
3. has a Factor VIII deficiency.
4. is 4 months pregnant.

Back 4

1. had a myocardial infarct two months
ago.
3. has a Factor VIII deficiency

Front 5

Which of the following should be
considered when assessing the difficulty
of removal of an impacted mandibular
third molar?
1. angulation.
2. root width.
3. depth in the alveolus.
4. periodontal ligament space.

Back 5

E. All of the above.

Front 6

Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia,
increased mitosis, intact basal cell layer
and chronic inflammatory cells are
histologic features that may be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.

Back 6

B. carcinoma in situ.

Front 7

Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow
1. radiotherapy.
2. dentoalveolar abscess.
3. fracture.
4. Vincent’s angina

Back 7

E. All of the above.

Front 8

Which of the following is/are associated
with an unerupted tooth?
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. Periapical cemental dysplasia.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic
tumor.
4. Cementoblastoma.

Back 8

1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic
tumor.

Front 9

A small, well-circumscribed, periapical
radiolucency on a mandibular incisor
which is clinically asymptomatic and
responds normally to vitality tests is most
likely
A. a periapical granuloma.
B. sclerosing osteitis.
C. a radicular cyst.
D. periapical cemental dysplasia.

Back 9

D. periapical cemental dysplasia.

Front 10

Histological sections of a lesion removed
from the apex of a carious tooth show
immature fibrous tissue and chronic
inflammatory cells. The most likely
diagnosis is a/an
A. acute periapical abscess.
B. odontogenic fibroma.
C. radicular cyst.
D. periapical granuloma.
E. central fibroma.

Back 10

D. periapical granuloma.

Front 11

Radiographs of Garre's osteomyelitis show
A. radiopaque islands of bone that
represent formation of sequestra.
B. a worm-eaten pattern of bone
destruction.
C. thickening of the cortex.
D. A. and B.
E. All of the above.

Back 11

C. thickening of the cortex

Front 12

Increasing the kilovoltage setting in the
dental x-ray machine results in
A. more gamma radiation.
B. greater collimation.
C. more penetration.
D. greater secondary radiation at the
level of the skin.

Back 12

C. more penetration.

Front 13

An excisional biopsy of a nodule 5mm in
diameter on the lateral border of the
tongue was diagnosed as a fibroma. This
patient should have
A. hemisection of the tongue.
B. radiotherapy to site of biopsy.
C. no additional therapy.
D. re-excision with wider margins.
E. radium implantation around biopsy
site.

Back 13

C. no additional therapy.

Front 14

During the extraction of an isolated
maxillary second molar, the bony floor of
the sinus is removed with the tooth. Your
immediate treatment would be to
A. place a large strip of iodoform gauze,
filling the tooth socket.
B. irrigate the sinus repeatedly and
place a dressing in the tooth socket.
C. approximate the soft tissue as
accurately as possible without
irrigating.
D. prescribe an antibiotic and recall
after 24hrs.

Back 14

C. approximate the soft tissue as
accurately as possible without
irrigating.

Front 15

The greatest single factor in reducing
radiation exposure in dentistry is
A. higher kVp.
B. proper filtration.
C. high speed film.
D. collimation of the X-ray beam.

Back 15

D. collimation of the X-ray beam.

Front 16

Oral lesions may be an early manifestation
of
1. leukemia.
2. pernicious anemia.
3. infectious mononucleosis.
4. obstructive jaundice.

Back 16

1. leukemia.
2. pernicious anemia.
3. infectious mononucleosis.

Front 17

Hypercementosis (cemental hyperplasia)
A. is most often confined to the apical
half of the root.
B. most frequently affects molars.
C. affects non vital teeth in the majority
of cases.
D. (A) and (C)
E. (B) and (C)

Back 17

A. is most often confined to the apical
half of the root.

Front 18

The electric pulp tester might be of some
value in determining whether
1. the pulp is hyperemic or
hyperplastic.
2. there is a partial necrosis of the pulp.
3. there is a partial or total pulpitis.
4. the pulp is vital or nonvital.

Back 18

4. the pulp is vital or nonvital.

Front 19

Oral lesions failing to heal may be related
to
1. tuberculosis.
2. syphilis.
3. neoplasia.
4. diabetes.

Back 19

E. All of the above.

Front 20

A decrease of which of the following is
indicative of hypoparathyroidism?
A. Serum phosphorus.
B. Serum calcium.
C. Thyroid activity.
D. Serum alkaline phosphatase.

Back 20

B. Serum calcium.

Front 21

An odour of acetone on the breath may
indicate
1. bronchiectasis.
2. rhinitis.
3. salicylate poisoning.
4. diabetes mellitus.

Back 21

E. All of the above.

Front 22

Erythroblastosis fetalis may be a cause of
A. supernumerary incisors.
B. pigmented teeth.
C. peg lateral incisors.
D. Fordyce's granules.
E. blue sclerae.

Back 22

B. pigmented teeth

Front 23

An anemia in which the red blood cells are
smaller and less intense in color than
normal is called a
A. microcytic hypochromic anemia.
B. microcytic hyperchromic anemia.
C. macrocytic hypochromic anemia.
D. macrocytic hyperchromic anemia.
E. None of the above.

Back 23

A. microcytic hypochromic anemia.

Front 24

The term applied to a low white blood cell
count is
A. leukocytosis.
B. leukopenia.
C. thrombocythemia.
D. thrombocytopenia.

Back 24

B. leukopenia.

Front 25

A patient who uses nitroglycerine has
A. rheumatic heart disease.
B. asthma.
C. coronary artery disease.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.

Back 25

C. coronary artery disease.

Front 26

When a patient experiences continuous
pain in the maxillary premolar and molar
areas and there is no evidence of dental
infection, the most likely diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.

Back 26

B. acute maxillary sinusitis.

Front 27

Upper face infections can communicate
with the cavernous sinus through
A. the angular vein to the superior
ophthalmic vein.
B. the pterygoid plexus to the inferior
ophthalmic vein.
C. A. and B.
D. None of the above.

Back 27

C. A. and B.

Front 28

Contact stomatitis may be caused by
A. dentifrice.
B. lipstick.
C. acrylic.
D. antibiotics.
E. All of the above.

Back 28

E. All of the above.

Front 29

Acellular cementum on a root is
A. the result of chronic inflammation.
B. a defective cementoid substance.
C. caused by premature degeneration of
Hertwig's root sheath.
D. a normal anatomical structure.

Back 29

D. a normal anatomical structure.

Front 30

Which one of the following teeth is most
frequently impacted?
A. Maxillary cuspid.
B. Mandibular second molar.
C. Mandibular cuspid.
D. Maxillary first premolar.

Back 30

A. Maxillary cuspid.

Front 31

A large encapsulated tumor is removed
from the hard palate. It is filled with fluid.
The best method of determining the nature
of this lesion is to
A. examine the fluid under a
microscope.
B. culture the fluid and examine for
bacterial growth.
C. submit the tissue for histological
examination
D. submit the tissue for exfoliative
cytological study.
E. aspirate the fluid for electrophoresis
study.

Back 31

C. submit the tissue for histological
examination

Front 32

The benign neoplasm that originates from
squamous epithelium is called a/an
A. adenoma.
B. choriocarcinoma.
C. chondroma.
D. lipoma.
E. papilloma.

Back 32

E. papilloma.

Front 33

The apical region of a non-vital tooth with
a deep carious lesion may radiographically
show
1. widening of the periodontal space.
2. loss of lamina dura.
3. a circumscribed radiolucency.
4. calcification of the periodontal
membrane.

Back 33

1. widening of the periodontal space.
2. loss of lamina dura.
3. a circumscribed radiolucency

Front 34

In infectious mononucleosis you are most
likely to find
1. a positive Paul Bunnel test.
2. lymphadenopathy.
3. palatine petechiae.
4. leukopenia.

Back 34

1. a positive Paul Bunnel test.
2. lymphadenopathy.
3. palatine petechiae.

Front 35

Acute maxillary sinusitis is associated
with
1. pain in the posterior maxillary teeth.
2. nasal discharge.
3. tenderness of posterior maxillary teeth
to percussion.
4. increase of pain when bending over.

Back 35

E. All of the above.

Front 36

The radiographic change most suggestive
of multiple myeloma is
A. no bone alteration.
B. punched out radiolucent lesions.
C. multiple radiopaque lesions.
D. diffuse ground glass appearance.
E. generalized hypercementosis.

Back 36

B. punched out radiolucent lesions.

Front 37

The discontinuity of the lamina dura on a
radiograph may be a consequence of
1. pulpitis.
2. metastatic carcinoma.
3. parathyroid hyperplasia.
4. eburnated bone.

Back 37

1. pulpitis.
2. metastatic carcinoma.
3. parathyroid hyperplasia.

Front 38

Proper collimation of the useful beam for
the film size and target-film distance will
reduce
1. intensity of central beam.
2. secondary radiation.
3. radiographic contrast.
4. image definition.
5. radiation received by patient.

Back 38

2. secondary radiation.
5. radiation received by patient.

Front 39

A lead diaphragm in X-ray units serves to
A. produce a more homogeneous X-ray
beam.
B. prevent secondary radiation.
C. collimate the useful beam of rays.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Back 39

D. All of the above.

Front 40

The quantity of radiation output in a dental
X-ray apparatus is a function of
1. time.
2. kVp.
3. ma.
4. filtration.

Back 40

1. time.
3. ma.