2010 Released Qs And Ans39

Front 1

A 9 year old boy sustains a fracture of the
crown of his central incisor with minimal
pulp exposure. The accident occurred one
hour prior. A periapical radiograph
reveals that the root of the tooth is intact
but the apex is open. The most
appropriate treatment is to
A. pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and
restore.
B. perform a pulpotomy and seal
temporarily.
C. perform a pulpectomy and seal
temporarily.
D. perform a pulpectomy and fill
immediately with gutta-percha and
restore.

Back 1

A. pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and
restore.

Front 2

Alteration of the intestinal flora by some
chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with
reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid
thus preventing the recirculation of the
drug through the enterohepatic circulation.
Which of the following can interfere with
this mechanism?
1. Codeine.
2. Penicillin V.
3. Acetaminophen
4. Tetracycline.

Back 2

2. Penicillin V.
4. Tetracycline.

Front 3

Which of the following cells are
characteristic of chronic inflammation of
the dental pulp?
1. Plasma cells.
2. Macrophages.
3. Lymphocytes.
4. Neutrophils.

Back 3

1. Plasma cells.
2. Macrophages.
3. Lymphocytes.

Front 4

After initiating preventive management for
a 16 year old patient with multiple
extensive carious lesions, which of the
following restorative treatments is most
appropriate?
A. Place amalgam restorations over the
next few months.
B. Excavate caries and place temporary
restorations within the next few
weeks.
C. Delay any treatment until the hygiene
improves.
D. Restore all teeth with composite resin
over the next few months.

Back 4

B. Excavate caries and place temporary
restorations within the next few
weeks.

Front 5

Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
1. is a local anesthetic agent.
2. has topical anesthetic properties.
3. is an antiarrhythmic agent.
4. has anticonvulsant properties.

Back 5

E. All of the above.

Front 6

Most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin
occur
1. when the drug is administered
parenterally.
2. within minutes after drug
administration.
3. in patients who have already
experienced an allergic reaction to
the drug.
4. in patients with a negative skin test to
penicillin allergy.

Back 6

1. when the drug is administered
parenterally.
2. within minutes after drug
administration.
3. in patients who have already
experienced an allergic reaction to
the drug.

Front 7

The extraction of a maxillary deciduous
central incisor at the age of 6 years will
cause
A. loss of intercanine space.
B. increased intercanine space.
C. no change in intercanine space.
D. decreased overjet.

Back 7

C. no change in intercanine space.

Front 8

Amalgam
1. spherical alloys shrink slightly when
setting.
2. lathe cut alloys expand slightly when
setting.
3. admix alloys are dimensionally stable
when setting.
4. high copper content alloys have
improved resistance to tarnish and
corrosion.

Back 8

4. high copper content alloys have
improved resistance to tarnish and
corrosion.

Front 9

Amalgam is condensed in order to
1. adapt the amalgam to the cavity
walls, floor and margins.
2. develop a uniform compact mass
with minimum voids.
3. reduce excess mercury content.
4. overbuild the restoration to allow
‘carve back’ to eliminate the
mercury-rich outer layer.

Back 9

1. adapt the amalgam to the cavity
walls, floor and margins.
2. develop a uniform compact mass
with minimum voids.
3. reduce excess mercury content.

Front 10

The primary retention of a Class II gold
inlay is achieved by
1. adding an occlusal dovetail.
2. increasing the parallelism of walls.
3. lengthening the axial walls.
4. placing a gingival bevel.

Back 10

1. adding an occlusal dovetail.
2. increasing the parallelism of walls.
3. lengthening the axial walls.

Front 11

The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must have a
1. rough surface.
2. space for the veneer material.
3. definite finish line.
4. margin at least 1mm supragingivally

Back 11

1. rough surface.
2. space for the veneer material.
3. definite finish line.

Front 12

When exposing radiographic film, the
amount of radiation received by the patient
is best reduced by
A. collimation.
B. decreased object-film distance.
C. low kVp correlated with high
milliamperage.
D. decreased target-object distance

Back 12

A. collimation.

Front 13

Cleft lip and palate usually result from
A. failure of proper union of the median
and lateral nasal processes.
B. failure of the union of the median
nasal process with the lateral nasal
and maxillary processes.
C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia.
D. failure of development of both the
lateral nasal and maxillary processes.

Back 13

B. failure of the union of the median
nasal process with the lateral nasal
and maxillary processes.

Front 14

Enamel pearls form when
A. ameloblasts migrate apically down
the root.
B. cells of the epithelial root sheath do
not migrate away from the dentin.
C. cells of the dental follicle fail to
develop.
D. epithelial rests transform into
ameloblast vesicles.

Back 14

B. cells of the epithelial root sheath do
not migrate away from the dentin.

Front 15

The desirable relationship between the
coefficients of thermal expansion of an
alloy (ε metal ) and a ceramic (εceramic) used
for a metallo-ceramic restoration is
A. ε metal significantly higher than
εceramic.
B. ε metal significantly lower than εceramic.
C. ε metal equal to εceramic.
D. ε metal slightly higher than εceramic.
E. ε metal slightly lower than εceramic.

Back 15

D. ε metal slightly higher than εceramic.

Front 16

To ensure a clinically acceptable setting
time, polyalkenoic cements contain
A. salicylic acid.
B. phosphoric acid.
C. maleic acid.
D. tartaric acid.
E. itaconic acid.

Back 16

D. tartaric acid.

Front 17

The muscle primarily responsible for
moving the mandible to a lateral position
is the
A. masseter.
B. lateral (external) pterygoid.
C. medial (internal) pterygoid.
D. buccinator.
E. temporalis.

Back 17

B. lateral (external) pterygoid.

Front 18

A 75 year old male patient whose wife
died 10 months ago presents for his recall
appointment. Looking wasted and
fatigued, he confirms he has lost about
6kg in the last 8 months but is otherwise in
good health. The most appropriate
management for this patient is to
A. recommend that he drink 3 cans of a
nutritional supplement each day.
B. refer him to a qualified
dietician/nutritionist and follow up
after his appointment.
C. refer him back to his physician
requesting a more thorough
assessment.
D. provide him with a copy of Canada’s
Food Guide to Healthy Eating.

Back 18

C. refer him back to his physician
requesting a more thorough
assessment.

Front 19

Which statement(s) is/are true about
diazepam?
1. It improves performance rating of
fine motor skills.
2. It is more toxic when taken with
ethyl alcohol.
3. It is available without prescription in
Canada.
4. It produces a typical dependence
syndrome.

Back 19

2. It is more toxic when taken with
ethyl alcohol.
4. It produces a typical dependence
syndrome.

Front 20

The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must have a
1. coarse diamond finish.
2. space for the veneer material.
3. margin at least 1mm supragingivally.
4. definite gingival finish line.

Back 20

2. space for the veneer material.
4. definite gingival finish line.

Front 21

The most appropriate treatment for a
permanent central incisor with a necrotic
pulp and a wide open apex is
A. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide.
B. apexification with calcium
hydroxide.
C. apexification with zinc oxide.
D. root canal therapy using guttapercha.
E. root canal therapy followed by a
retrograde filling.

Back 21

B. apexification with calcium
hydroxide.

Front 22

Which syndrome has multiple cysts of the
jaws?
A. Gardner’s.
B. Gorlin-Goltz.
C. Peutz-Jeghers.
D. Sjögren’s.

Back 22

B. Gorlin-Goltz.

Front 23

Increasing the kVp results in
A. increased long scale image contrast.
B. increased short scale image contrast.
C. decreased long scale image contrast.
D. decreased short scale image contrast.

Back 23

A. increased long scale image contrast.

Front 24

The most appropriate radiograph for
examining an interproximal vertical bony
defect of the alveolar process is the
A. bitewing.
B. periapical.
C. occlusal.
D. panoramic.

Back 24

A. bitewing.

Front 25

Which of the following radiographic
techniques is NOT useful for assessing
temporomandibular joint space?
A. Panoramic.
B. Arthrography.
C. Corrected transcranial.
D. Corrected tomography.

Back 25

A. Panoramic.

Front 26

All of the following appear as midline
structures on periapical radiographs
EXCEPT
A. nasopalatine/incisive canal.
B. anterior nasal spine.
C. nasal septum.
D. zygomatic process of the maxilla.

Back 26

D. zygomatic process of the maxilla.

Front 27

The genial tubercles are best visualized on
which type of radiograph?
A. Occlusal.
B. Periapical.
C. Bitewing.
D. Panoramic.

Back 27

A. Occlusal.

Front 28

Which anatomical structures form the
inverted Y (Y line) in maxillary periapical
radiographs?
A. Nasopalatine/incisive canal and floor
of the nasal fossa.
B. Anterior nasal spine and
nasopalatine/incisive canal.
C. Floor of the nasal fossa and
maxillary sinus border.
D. Zygomatic process of the maxilla and
maxillary sinus border.

Back 28

B. Anterior nasal spine and
nasopalatine/incisive canal.

Front 29

The pterygomaxillary fissure is formed by
the maxilla and which other bone?
A. Temporal.
B. Sphenoid.
C. Frontal.
D. Occipital.

Back 29

B. Sphenoid.

Front 30

A small, well-circumscribed, periapical
radiolucency on a mandibular incisor
which is clinically asymptomatic and
responds normally to vitality tests is most
likely
A. a periapical granuloma.
B. sclerosing osteitis.
C. a radicular cyst.
D. periapical cemental dysplasia.

Back 30

D. periapical cemental dysplasia.

Front 31

Appropriate management for the relief of
symptoms of primary herpetic
gingivostomatitis in an
immunocompromised patient may include
1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml.
2. Triamcinolone acetonide in
Orabase®.
3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg.
4. Dexamethasone elixir 0.5mg/ml.

Back 31

1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml.
3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg.

Front 32

Localized gingival recession of a
mandibular permanent incisor in an 8 year
old can be caused by
A. vitamin C deficiency.
B. ankyloglossia.
C. localized aggressive (juvenile)
periodontitis.
D. traumatic occlusion.
E. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

Back 32

C. localized aggressive (juvenile)
periodontitis.

Front 33

A lower molar requiring a crown has an
extensive MOD amalgam restoration. The
crown margin should be placed
A. on the existing amalgam.
B. at the amalgam/tooth junction.
C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.
D. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin

Back 33

C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.

Front 34

For an acid-etched Class III composite
resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity
can be bevelled to
1. eliminate the need for internal
retention.
2. improve convenience form.
3. aid in finishing.
4. increase the surface area for etching.

Back 34

4. increase the surface area for etching.

Front 35

For a cast gold restoration, a gingival
bevel is used instead of a shoulder because
a bevel
1. protects the enamel.
2. increases retention.
3. improves marginal adaptation.
4. increases the thickness of gold.

Back 35

1. protects the enamel.
3. improves marginal adaptation.

Front 36

When smokers are compared to
nonsmokers, the development of
inflammation in response to plaque
accumulation is
A. increased.
B. reduced.
C. the same.

Back 36

B. reduced.

Front 37

A crown margin can be extended
subgingivally when required
1. for esthetics.
2. to increase retention.
3. to reach sound tooth structure.
4. for caries prevention.

Back 37

1. for esthetics.
2. to increase retention.
3. to reach sound tooth structure.

Front 38

A laboratory remount of processed
dentures is done in order to correct
occlusal disharmony produced by errors
primarily in the
A. mounting of the casts in the
articulater.
B. registration of jaw relation records.
C. processing of acrylic.
D. registration of condylar guidance.

Back 38

C. processing of acrylic.

Front 39

The coefficient of thermal expansion of
the metal relative to the porcelain for
constructing a ceramometal (porcelain
bonded to metal) crown should be
A. slightly less.
B. the same.
C. slightly more.
D. significantly less.

Back 39

C. slightly more.

Front 40

The most practical method to significantly
reduce the setting time of stone and plaster
is to use
A. warm mixing water.
B. a calcium sulfate dihydrate
nucleating agent.
C. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent.
D. a longer mixing time.

Back 40

B. a calcium sulfate dihydrate
nucleating agent.

Front 41

Aggressive periodontitis has all of the
following features EXCEPT
A. rapid attachment loss.
B. suspected periodontal microbial
pathogens.
C. radiographic evidence of bone loss.
D. ulcerations of the gingiva.

Back 41

D. ulcerations of the gingiva.

Front 42

The periodontal probe should be inserted
into the sulcus
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
B. parallel to the root surface.
C. with a firm pushing motion.
D. with a firm lateral motion.

Back 42

A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.

Front 43

Which periodontal pathogen can use the
hormone estrogen as a growth factor?
A. Porphyromonas gingivalis.
B. Actinobacillus
actinomycetemcomitans.
C. Prevotella intermedia.
D. Bacteroides forsythus.

Back 43

C. Prevotella intermedia.

Front 44

A patient with a pre-existing MOD
amalgam restoration has just had
endodontic therapy completed on tooth 4.6
but cannot afford a laboratory fabricated
final restoration. Interim restorative
management of 4.6 with the best prognosis
is to
A. restore with a MOD amalgam.
B. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion
and restore with a MOD amalgam.
C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps
and restore with a MOD amalgam.
D. restore with a bonded MOD
composite resin.

Back 44

B. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion
and restore with a MOD amalgam.

Front 45

Which of the following is NOT a sign of
occlusal trauma?
A. Fremitus.
B. Gingival recession.
C. Widened periodontal ligament.
D. Tooth migration.

Back 45

B. Gingival recession.

Front 46

What is the essential etiologic factor for
generalized aggressive periodontitis?
A. Altered lymphocyte activity.
B. Generalized subgingival calculus.
C. Impaired polymorphonuclear
phagocytosis.
D. Bacterial plaque.

Back 46

C. Impaired polymorphonuclear
phagocytosis.

Front 47

The combination (Kelley’s) syndrome
refers to the destructive changes
associated with the long term wear of a
mandibular distal extension removable
partial denture opposing a complete upper
denture. Which of the following clinical
findings is NOT normally characteristic of
this syndrome?
A. Reduction in morphologic face
height.
B. Advanced anterior maxillary ridge
resorption.
C. Down growth of the maxillary
tuberosities.
D. Advanced alveolar bone resorption
under the posterior partial denture
base areas.

Back 47

A. Reduction in morphologic face
height.

Front 48

On a semi-adjustable articulator, the
incisal guide table represents
A. a reference point for the
establishment of occlusal vertical
dimension.
B. the anterior equivalent of condylar
guidance.
C. a mechanical equivalent of the
horizontal and vertical overlap of the
anterior teeth.
D. the mechanical equivalent of the
Curve of Wilson.

Back 48

C. a mechanical equivalent of the
horizontal and vertical overlap of the
anterior teeth.

Front 49

A 10-15 second application of 37%
phosphoric acid on prepared dentin will
result in all of the following EXCEPT
A. elimination of the smear layer.
B. increased diameter of the dentinal
tubules.
C. demineralization of the superficial
dentin.
D. elimination of the collagen fibres.

Back 49

D. elimination of the collagen fibres.

Front 50

The full palatal strap major connector is
indicated where
A. there is a high, narrow palatal vault.
B. a well-defined, undercut palatal torus
is present.
C. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped
arch.
D. palatal tissue is soft and
compressible.

Back 50

C. very few teeth remain in a flat or Ushaped
arch.