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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
A smooth, elevated, red patch devoid of
filiform papillae, located in the midline of the dorsum of the tongue immediately anterior to the circumvallate papillae is indicative of A. benign migratory glossitis. B. median rhomboid glossitis. C. a granular cell tumor. D. iron deficiency anemia. E. a fibroma. |
B. median rhomboid glossitis.
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When probing a healthy gingival sulcus
with a 20g force, the tip of the periodontal probe is most likely located A. coronal to the junctional epithelium. B. at the level of the junctional epithelium. C. at the level of the supra crestal fibers. D. apical to the junctional epithelium. |
B. at the level of the junctional
epithelium. |
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A 20 year old female patient is suspected
of having bulimia. Which of the following signs will help confirm the diagnosis? 1. Enamel erosion of maxillary anterior teeth. 2. Enlargement of the thyroid gland. 3. Calluses on the dorsum of the fingers. 4. Bulky clothing to disguise weight loss. |
E. All of the above.
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Upon stimulation of salivary flow, which
gland is the main source of salivary volume? A. Submandibular. B. Submaxillary. C. Sublingual. D. Parotid. |
D. Parotid.
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Which systemic disease does NOT
especially predispose to periodontitis? 1. Cyclic neutropenia. 2. Trisomy 21 (Down’s Syndrome). 3. Diabetes mellitus. 4. Aquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
4. Aquired immunodeficiency
syndrome. |
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Crowding of the lower incisors following
orthodontic alignment 1. can be prevented by removal of the third molars. 2. can be prevented by wearing retainers until mandibular growth is complete. 3. can be prevented by a post-alignment circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy. 4. cannot be predicted from characteristics of the original malocclusion. |
4. cannot be predicted from
characteristics of the original malocclusion. |
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A 25 year old female in her first trimester
of pregnancy presents with an acute dental infection. Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED for this patient? A. Prescription of a radiograph. B. Prescription of penicillin V. C. Extraction using 2% xylocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine. D. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain management. |
D. Acetylsalicylic acid for pain
management. |
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With two rescuers performing
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an adult patient, how many external chest compressions are given per minute? A. 40 B. 60 C. 80 D. 100 |
D. 100
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Which of the following factors
influence(s) the development of root caries? 1. A diet high in refined carbohydrates. 2. Periodontal disease. 3. The anatomy of the cemento-enamel junction. 4. Xerostomia. |
E. All of the above.
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The average annual dose of ionizing
radiation that a patient receives from dental radiographs is A. greater than the average amount received from natural sources. B. about the same as the average amount received from medical sources. C. about the same as the average amount received from cosmic radiation. D. low when compared to the average total amount of radiation received.. |
D. low when compared to the average
total amount of radiation received.. |
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Which procedure(s) require(s) antibiotic
prophylaxis in a patient susceptible to bacterial endocarditis? 1. Impressions for partial dentures. 2. Suture removal. 3. Mandibular block anesthetic injection. 4. Periodontal surgery. |
4. Periodontal surgery.
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Which of the following make the elderly
difficult to treat? 1. The presence of multiple diseases. 2. Prolonged recovery times. 3. Various psychological factors. 4. Under-reporting of symptoms. |
E. All of the above.
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A patient presents with hypodontia,
conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is A. achondroplasia. B. malignant hyperthermia. C. ectodermal dysplasia. D. cystic fibrosis. |
C. ectodermal dysplasia.
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In a 4-year old the most appropriate
treatment for a chronically infected, nonrestorable first primary molar is to A. extract it and place a space maintainer. B. observe it until it exfoliates. C. extract it. D. observe it until it becomes symptomatic. |
A. extract it and place a space
maintainer. |
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Which of the following is a possible cause
for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time. |
A. Cold developer
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Which of the following is necessary for
collagen formation? A. Vitamin A. B. Vitamin C. C. Vitamin D. D. Vitamin E. E. Vitamin K. |
B. Vitamin C.
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Overlapping contacts on a bitewing
radiograph result from 1. malalignment of teeth. 2. incorrect vertical angulation of the xray beam. 3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the x-ray beam. 4. patient movement during the exposure. |
1. malalignment of teeth.
3. incorrect horizontal angulation of the x-ray beam. |
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The washing of hands must be performed
before putting on and after removing gloves because it 1. reduces the number of skin bacteria which multiply and cause irritation. 2. completely eliminates skin bacteria. 3. minimizes the transient bacteria which could contaminate hands through small pinholes. 4. allows gloves to slide on easier when the hands are moist. |
1. reduces the number of skin bacteria
which multiply and cause irritation. 3. minimizes the transient bacteria which could contaminate hands through small pinholes. |
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A recommended method for disinfecting
alginate impressions is to immerse the impression for 10 minutes in A. a complex phenolic. B. 2% glutaraldehyde. C. 10% ethyl alcohol. D. a 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite. |
D. a 1:10 dilution of sodium
hypochlorite. |
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Gingival enlargement may result from the
administration of 1. nifedipine. 2. cyclosporine. 3. phenytoin sodium. 4. prednisolone. |
1. nifedipine.
2. cyclosporine. 3. phenytoin sodium. |
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Pontic design for a porcelain fused to
metal bridge should 1. provide for a rigid restoration. 2. allow for complete coverage of the metal by the porcelain. 3. place the porcelain metal joint away from the soft tissues. 4. control thermal conductivity. |
1. provide for a rigid restoration.
3. place the porcelain metal joint away from the soft tissues. |
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When designing a removable partial
denture, changing the tilt of the cast on the surveyor alters the 1. path of insertion of the planned removable partial denture. 2. the position of the survey line on the cast. 3. the undercut and non-undercut areas. 4. the direction of forces applied to the partial denture. |
1. path of insertion of the planned
removable partial denture. 2. the position of the survey line on the cast. 3. the undercut and non-undercut areas |
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The best way to protect the abutments of a
Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by A. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth. B. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions. C. placing distal rests on distal abutments. D. using cast clasps on distal abutments. E. regular relining of the distal extensions. |
E. regular relining of the distal
extensions. |
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Which of the following can increase the
chances of successful osseointegration of a dental implant? 1. An atraumatic surgical approach. 2. The availability of dense cancellous bone. 3. A good initial stability of the implant. 4. Immediate loading of the implant. |
1. An atraumatic surgical approach.
2. The availability of dense cancellous bone. 3. A good initial stability of the implant. |
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The custom tray used in making a final
complete denture impression must A. extend to the bottom of the vestibule. B. create adequate space for the impression material. C. have a horizontal handle. D. be stored in water until ready for use. |
B. create adequate space for the
impression material. |
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Healthy attached gingiva
A. has no basal cell layer. B. is closely bound to underlying periosteum. C. contains elastic fibers. D. has no rete pegs. |
B. is closely bound to underlying
periosteum. |
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Difficulty in seating a stainless steel crown
following the preparation of a primary molar is most likely a result of A. inadequate lingual reduction. B. “ledging” at the gingival area of the preparation. C. supraeruption of the opposing molar. D. impingement of gingival tissue under the crown margin. |
B. “ledging” at the gingival area of the
preparation |
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The angle SNA can be used to evaluate the
A. maxillary protrusion. B. overbite. C. upper incisor inclination. D. facial height. E. mandibular angle. |
A. maxillary protrusion.
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Cephalosporin antibiotics
1. may be cross-allergenic with penicillin. 2. have a narrower spectrum than penicillin. 3. have a mechanism of action similar to that of penicillin. 4. may cause cholestatic hepatitis. |
1. may be cross-allergenic with
penicillin. 3. have a mechanism of action similar to that of penicillin. |
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A survey of the master cast shows that the
3.5 and 3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than preparing the teeth again. Where should the male part of the attachment ideally be located? A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer. B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic. C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer. D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic. |
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.
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What is the earliest age that the diagnosis
of a congenitally missing mandibular second bicuspid can be confirmed? A. 2 years. B. 4 years. C. 6 years. D. 8 years. |
B. 4 years.
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A Bolton relationship has determined a
maxillary “12” excess of 3.5mm maxillary “6” excess of 3.0mm What effect(s) could this Bolton relationship have on a Class I malocclusion? 1. Deeper overbite. 2. Maxillary crowding. 3. Reduced overjet. 4. Increased overjet. |
2. Maxillary crowding.
4. Increased overjet. |
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Which patient would NOT be predisposed
to liver toxicity following a dose of 1,000mg of acetaminophen? A. An adult with liver cirrhosis. B. A chronic alcoholic. C. A diabetic. D. A 15kg, 4 year old child. |
C. A diabetic.
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A preparation for a porcelain fused to
metal crown with a porcelain butt joint margin should have a 1. 90o cavosurface margin. 2. subgingival finish line. 3. 1.2mm shoulder. 4. 90o axiogingival angle. |
1. 90o cavosurface margin.
3. 1.2mm shoulder. |
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In the insulin-dependant diabetic patient,
hypoglycemia is characterized by 1. mental confusion. 2. tachycardia. 3. sweating. 4. nausea. |
E. All of the above.
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A patient with pain, fever and unilateral
parotid swelling following a general anesthetic most likely has A. Mumps. B. sialolithiasis. C. acute bacterial sialadenitis. D. Sjögren’s syndrome. E. sarcoidosis. |
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
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Soft tissue pockets CANNOT be reduced
by A. occlusal adjustment. B. scaling and root planing (debridement). C. open flap curettage. D. guided tissue regeneration. |
A. occlusal adjustment.
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White lesions of the oral mucosa can
result from 1. thickened epithelium. 2. increased keratin. 3. chemical burn. 4. mycotic infection. |
E. All of the above.
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Differential diagnosis for short term pain
and swelling of the gingiva associated with an endodontically treated tooth should include 1. periodontal abscess. 2. periapical abscess. 3. vertical root fracture. 4. internal root resorption. |
1. periodontal abscess.
2. periapical abscess. 3. vertical root fracture. |
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Epinephrine is used in the management of
an acute anaphylactic reaction (Type I allergic reaction) because it 1. decreases heart rate. 2. relaxes bronchial muscles. 3. decreases systolic blood pressure. 4. produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds. |
2. relaxes bronchial muscles.
4. produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds. |
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After pulpotomy of a permanent central
incisor in an 8 year old child, the most important clinical criterion/criteria of success is/are 1. completion of root formation. 2. internal resorption. 3. dentin bridge formation. 4. formation of pulp stones. |
1. completion of root formation.
3. dentin bridge formation. |
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Proper collimation of the useful beam for
the film size and target-film distance will reduce 1. image definition. 2. secondary radiation. 3. radiographic contrast. 4. radiation received by patient. |
2. secondary radiation.
4. radiation received by patient. |
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In x-ray equipment, kilovoltage controls
1. contrast. 2. speed of electrons. 3. penetrating power of radiation. 4. amount of radiation produced. |
1. contrast.
2. speed of electrons. 3. penetrating power of radiation. |
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The amount of radiation to a patient can be
reduced by 1. using a high speed film. 2. using an aluminum filter. 3. increasing target-film distance. 4. using low kVp. |
1. using a high speed film.
2. using an aluminum filter. 3. increasing target-film distance. |
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Temporomandibular joint disc
morphology is best seen by using A. arthrography. B. computed tomography. C. magnetic resonance imaging. D. corrected tomography. |
C. magnetic resonance imaging
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In composite resin restorations, glass
ionomer cements can be used as a base because they are A. sedative to a hyperemic pulp. B. neutral in colour. C. biocompatible. D. compatible with the expansion of composite resins. |
C. biocompatible.
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For an acid-etched Class III composite
resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity can be bevelled to A. eliminate the need for internal retention. B. improve convenience form. C. aid in finishing. D. increase the surface area for etching. |
D. increase the surface area for etching.
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Condensing osteitis in the periapical
region is indicative of a/an A. acute inflammation of the pulp. B. pulpal abscess. C. chronic inflammation of the pulp. D. early apical abscess formation. E. None of the above. |
C. chronic inflammation of the pulp.
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Root planing is used in the treatment of
pockets which are 1. edematous. 2. fibrotic. 3. below the mucogingival junction. 4. infrabony |
1. edematous.
2. fibrotic. 4. infrabony |
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A patient complains of the discolouration
of an upper central incisor. Radiographically, the pulp chamber and the root canal space are obliterated and the periodontal ligament space appears normal. The most appropriate treatment would be to A. perform root canal treatment and non vital bleaching. B. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a post retained porcelain fused to metal crown. C. perform root canal treatment and fabricate a porcelain veneer. D. fabricate a porcelain fused to metal crown. E. fabricate a porcelain veneer |
E. fabricate a porcelain veneer
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