2010 Released Qs And Ans35

Front 1

In partial denture design, the major
connector should
A. rigidly connect the bilateral
components.
B. act as a stress-breaker.
C. not interfere with lateral forces.
D. dissipate vertical forces.

Back 1

A. rigidly connect the bilateral
components.

Front 2

In complete denture construction, a
custom tray should be selected so that the
impression will ascertain that
A. the flanges are not overextended.
B. the distal extension is adequate.
C. there is relief for muscle attachments.
D. the tray has adequate space for the
impression material.
E. All of the above.

Back 2

E. All of the above.

Front 3

A patient with complete dentures
complains of clicking. The most common
causes are
A. reduced vertical dimension and
improperly balanced occlusion.
B. excessive vertical dimension and
poor retention.
C. use of too large a posterior tooth and
too little horizontal overlap.
D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge
and excessive anterior vertical
overlap.

Back 3

B. excessive vertical dimension and
poor retention

Front 4

In patients wearing complete dentures, the
most frequent cause of tooth contact
(clicking) during speaking is
A. nervous tension.
B. incorrect centric relation position.
C. excessive occlusal vertical
dimension.
D. lack of vertical overlap.
E. unbalanced occlusion.

Back 4

C. excessive occlusal vertical
dimension.

Front 5

The best means of extending the working
time of an irreversible hydrocolloid
impression material is to
A. extend spatulation time.
B. add additional water.
C. use cold water.
D. add a small amount of borax.
E. add potassium sulfate.

Back 5

C. use cold water.

Front 6

Longer trituration of alloy and mercury
will result in an amalgam restoration
which will have
A. greater expansion during setting.
B. reduced strength.
C. increased flow.
D. None of the above.

Back 6

C. increased flow.

Front 7

Which permanent teeth will normally be
present in an 8-year old child?
A. Maxillary and mandibular central
and lateral incisors.
B. Mandibular central and lateral
incisors and first molars.
C. All central and lateral incisors and
first molars.
D. All central and lateral incisors, first
molars and first premolars.

Back 7

C. All central and lateral incisors and
first molars.

Front 8

Which of the following anesthetic agents
are hydrolized by plasma cholinesterase?
1. Prilocaine (citanest).
2. Lidocaine (xylocaine).
3. Mepivicaine (carbocaine).
4. Procaine.

Back 8

4. Procaine.

Front 9

A patient develops an acute anaphylactic
reaction in your office. One drug that you
would use is epinephrine because it
A. relaxes bronchial muscles.
B. stimulates heart muscle and increases
heart rate.
C. increases systolic blood pressure.
D. produces vasoconstriction in many
vascular beds.
E. All of the above.

Back 9

E. All of the above.

Front 10

In an infection caused by non-penicillinase
producing staphylococcus, the drug of
choice is
A. penicillin V.
B. cephalexin.
C. tetracycline.
D. vancomycin.

Back 10

A. penicillin V.

Front 11

Intravenous administration of epinephrine
results in
1. increased systolic pressure.
2. increased heart rate.
3. palpitations.
4. respiratory depression.

Back 11

1. increased systolic pressure.
2. increased heart rate.
3. palpitations.

Front 12

Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended
for patients with which of the following?
1. Mitral valve prolapse with
regurgitation.
2. Cardiac pacemaker.
3. Prosthetic heart valves.
4. All heart murmurs.

Back 12

1. Mitral valve prolapse with
regurgitation.
3. Prosthetic heart valves.

Front 13

Water irrigation devices have been shown
to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth.
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.

Back 13

B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth.

Front 14

When cementing an inlay, the best
procedure to ensure accurate seating is a
A. continuous firm pressure on the inlay
until the cement is set.
B. thick mix of cement.
C. rapid and heavy application of
pressure until the inlay is seated.
D. very thin mix of cement.

Back 14

A. continuous firm pressure on the inlay
until the cement is set.

Front 15

A 9-year old boy sustains a fracture of the
crown of his central incisor with minimal
pulp exposure. He is brought to your
office within one hour of the injury. A
periapical radiograph reveals that the root
of the tooth is complete but the apex is
open. You would
A. pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and
restore.
B. perform a pulpotomy and seal
temporarily.
C. perform a pulpectomy and seal
temporarily.
D. perform a pulpectomy and fill
immediately with gutta-percha and
restore.

Back 15

A. pulp cap with calcium hydroxide and
restore.

Front 16

The most common cause of malocclusion
with a Class I molar relationship is
A. a thumbsucking habit.
B. crossbite in the posterior segments.
C. tooth size and jaw size discrepancy.
D. improper eruption of permanent first
molars.

Back 16

C. tooth size and jaw size discrepancy.

Front 17

Cephalometrics is used in orthodontics to
A. treat malocclusions.
B. study growth changes.
C. aid in diagnosis and case analysis.
D. B. and C.
E. All of the above.

Back 17

E. All of the above.

Front 18

Cephalometrics is useful in assessing
which of the following relationships?
A. Tooth-to-tooth.
B. Bone-to-bone.
C. Tooth-to-bone.
D. All of the above.

Back 18

D. All of the above.

Front 19

In cephalometric analysis of children with
malocclusion, the angle ANB is frequently
used. In patients with severe Class~II
malocclusion, this angle is
A. greater than the normal.
B. less than the normal.
C. normal.
D. unrelated.

Back 19

A. greater than the normal.

Front 20

A skeletal cross-bite, as contrasted with
functional cross-bite, usually demonstrates
A. marked wear facets.
B. interference free closure to centric
occlusion.
C. deviated closure to centric occlusion.
D. None of the above.

Back 20

B. interference free closure to centric
occlusion.

Front 21

Which of the following congenital
problems most often results in a
malocclusion?
A. cleft palate.
B. ectodermal dysplasia.
C. Pierre Robin syndrome.
D. cleidocranial dysostosis.

Back 21

A. cleft palate.

Front 22

Which of the following malocclusions is
most commonly associated with mouth
breathing?
A. Class I.
B. Class II, Division 1.
C. Class II, Division 2.
D. Class III.

Back 22

B. Class II, Division 1.

Front 23

Which of the following conditions should
NOT commonly be treated during the
mixed dentition stage?
A. Anterior cross-bite.
B. Posterior cross-bite.
C. Maxillary incisor rotation.
D. Class II molar relationship.

Back 23

C. Maxillary incisor rotation.

Front 24

Angle used the term "subdivision" to refer
to a malocclusion in which the abnormal
molar relationship was
A. bilateral.
B. unilateral.
C. only mildly abnormal.
D. severely abnormal.
E. coupled with labioversion of the
maxillary incisors.

Back 24

B. unilateral.

Front 25

Excessive forces used to move teeth will
cause
1. a tooth to move faster.
2. a tooth to move slower.
3. root elongation.
4. bone to be added uniformly on all
surfaces.
5. damage to the periodontal tissues.

Back 25

2. a tooth to move slower.
5. damage to the periodontal tissues.

Front 26

In correcting an anterior cross-bite, the
appliance to be used is determined by the
A. amount of overbite.
B. age of the patient.
C. cooperation of the patient.
D. All of the above.

Back 26

D. All of the above.

Front 27

Serial extraction may result in
A. development of a closed bite.
B. mandibular incisors tipping lingually.
C. persistent spacing at extraction sites.
D. canines tipping distally and second
premolars tipping mesially.
E. All of the above.

Back 27

E. All of the above.

Front 28

Following orthodontic rotation of teeth,
which of the periodontal ligament fibres
are most commonly associated with
relapse?
A. Oblique.
B. Diagonal.
C. Horizontal.
D. Supracrestal.

Back 28

D. Supracrestal.

Front 29

Which of the following is the LEAST
likely primary site for the development of
oral squamous cell carcinoma in the
elderly?
A. Dorsum of the tongue.
B. Floor of the mouth.
C. Lateral border of the tongue.
D. Tonsillar fossa.

Back 29

A. Dorsum of the tongue.

Front 30

In the management of a patient with an
acute odontogenic infection, the treatment
should include:
1. elimination of the cause.
2. drainage.
3. supportive therapy.
4. tetanus immunization.

Back 30

1. elimination of the cause.
2. drainage.
3. supportive therapy.

Front 31

A surgical flap not repositioned over a
bony base will result in
1. slower healing.
2. foreign body inflammatory reaction.
3. wound dehiscence.
4. necrosis of bone.

Back 31

1. slower healing.
3. wound dehiscence.

Front 32

Which impacted mandibular third molar is
easiest to remove?
A. Mesio-angular.
B. Horizontal.
C. Disto-angular.
D. Inverted.

Back 32

A. Mesio-angular.

Front 33

When using forceps for extraction of a
maxillary first molar, which of the
following statements is/are true?
1. Palatal bone is thinner than buccal
bone.
2. Buccal bone is easier to expand.
3. Forcep movement should be
principally in the palatal direction.
4. Forcep movement should be
principally in the buccal direction.

Back 33

2. Buccal bone is easier to expand.
4. Forcep movement should be
principally in the buccal direction.

Front 34

Which of the following basic forcep
movements is NOT used for extracting
teeth?
A. Apical.
B. Rotational.
C. Mesial.
D. Lingual (palatal).

Back 34

C. Mesial.

Front 35

With respect to forceps extraction of teeth,
which of the following applies (apply)?
1. Beaks should be placed on the root of
the tooth.
2. Beaks should be applied parallel to
the long axis of the tooth.
3. Beaks should be moved apically
during extraction.
4. Poor placement can lead to tooth
fracture, slippage and injury to
adjacent teeth.

Back 35

E. All of the above.

Front 36

Benign neoplasms
1. grow slowly.
2. are generally painless.
3. can be managed conservatively.
4. can metastasize.

Back 36

1. grow slowly.
2. are generally painless.
3. can be managed conservatively.

Front 37

A removable orthodontic appliance,
producing a light force on the labial of a
proclined maxillary central incisor will
cause
A. lingual movement of the crown and
lingual movement of the root apex.
B. intrusion of the central incisor and
lingual movement of the crown.
C. lingual movement of the crown and
labial movement of the root apex.
D. intrusion of the central incisor.

Back 37

C. lingual movement of the crown and
labial movement of the root apex.

Front 38

In acutely inflamed gingival tissue, there is
an increase in the
A. number of mast cells.
B. number of plasma cells.
C. level of histamine.
D. A. and B.
E. A. and C.

Back 38

E. A. and C.

Front 39

Excessively dark radiographs will result
from
1. underdevelopment.
2. overexposure.
3. backward placement of the film.
4. excessive milliamperage.

Back 39

2. overexposure.
4. excessive milliamperage.

Front 40

In clinical dentistry, stiffness of wire is a
function of
A. length of the wire segment.
B. diameter of the wire segment.
C. alloy composition

Back 40

D. All of the above.

Front 41

The choice and number of abutments for a
fixed partial denture is influenced by the
1. length of the span of the fixed partial
denture.
2. crown-root ratio of the abutments.
3. amount of periodontal support of the
abutments.
4. position of the abutments in the arch.

Back 41

E. All of the above.

Front 42

The accuracy of alginate impression
materials will be improved if
A. the space between the tray and the
teeth is 1-2mm.
B. the space between the tray and the
teeth allows 4-5mm of alginate.
C. the impression is removed slowly
from the undercuts around the teeth.
D. the impression is soaked in water for
1 hour.

Back 42

B. the space between the tray and the
teeth allows 4-5mm of alginate.

Front 43

Which of the following pharmacokinetic
change(s) occur(s) with aging?
1. Absorption is altered by a decrease in
the gastric pH.
2. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced
liver mass.
3. Distribution is altered by a decrease in
total body fat.
4. Excretion is reduced because of
lessened renal blood flow.

Back 43

2. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced
liver mass.
4. Excretion is reduced because of
lessened renal blood flow.

Front 44

Which of the following should NOT be
prescribed for a patient receiving warfarin
(Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Oxycodone.
3. Ketorolac.
4. Codeine.

Back 44

1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
3. Ketorolac.

Front 45

When a radiographic examination is
warranted for a 10-year old child, the most
effective way to decrease radiation
exposure is to
A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron.
B. apply a radiation protection badge.
C. use high speed film.
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp.
E. take a panoramic film only.

Back 45

A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron.

Front 46

When using the periodontal probe to
measure pocket depth, the measurement is
taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the
cementoenamel junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the
free gingiva.
D. base of the pocket to the
mucogingival junction.

Back 46

C. base of the pocket to the crest of the
free gingiva.

Front 47

If the lining cement is left on the gingival
cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam
restoration,
A. cement dissolution will lead to
leakage.
B. the preparation will lack retention
form.
C. the preparation will lack resistance
form to bulk fracture.
D. the preparation will lack appropriate
outline form.

Back 47

A. cement dissolution will lead to
leakage.

Front 48

A hinge axis facebow records
A. Bennett angle.
B. centric relation.
C. lateral condylar inclination.
D. horizontal condylar inclination.
E. opening and closing axis of the
mandible.

Back 48

E. opening and closing axis of the
mandible

Front 49

For teeth prepared as abutments for fixed
bridges, unsatisfactory temporary crown
restorations may result in
A. tooth sensitivity.
B. gingival recession.
C. tooth migration.
D. occlusal prematurities.
E. All of the above.

Back 49

E. All of the above.

Front 50

Compared to unfilled resins, composite
resins have
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. better polishability.

Back 50

1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.