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50 Cards in this Set

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Laboratory examination of the blood of a
patient with an acute bacterial infection
would show
A. lymphocytosis.
B. leukocytosis.
C. monocytosis.
D. leukopenia.
E. eosinophilia.
B. leukocytosis.
The microorganisms of dental caries are
1. streptococcus mutans.
2. staphylococcus aureus.
3. lactobacillus acidophilus.
4. B-hemolytic streptococci.
1. streptococcus mutans.
3. lactobacillus acidophilus.
Radiographically, the anterior palatine
foramen may be mistaken for
1. an incisive canal cyst.
2. a median alveolar cyst.
3. a radicular cyst.
4. a naso-alveolar cyst.
5. a globular maxillary cyst.
1. an incisive canal cyst.
3. a radicular cyst.
Which of the following is/are NOT
usually affected by hereditary ectodermal
dysplasia?
A. Salivary glands.
B. Teeth.
C. Sweat glands.
D. Hair.
E. Fingernails.
A. Salivary glands.
Which of the following is NOT associated
with infectious mononucleosis?
A. Pharyngitis.
B. Lymphadenopathy.
C. Petechiae of the palate.
D. Gingival enlargement.
E. Fatigue.
D. Gingival enlargement.
The term used to describe epithelial
changes including nuclear
hyperchromatism, loss of increased
nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio and abnormal
mitoses is
A. acanthosis.
B. hyperkeratosis.
C. dysplasia.
D. parakeratosis.
E. hyperparakeratosis.
C. dysplasia.
Which of the following would you use to
determine the status of the pulp of a tooth
with a porcelain jacket crown?
1. Radiographic appearance.
2. The electric pulp tester.
3. Percussion and palpation.
4. History and subjective symptoms.
5. Thermal stimulus.
1. Radiographic appearance.
3. Percussion and palpation.
4. History and subjective symptoms.
Which one of the following would be of
greatest value in determining the etiology
of an oral ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
A. History of the oral lesion.
A patient with congestive heart failure
may have
1. epistaxis.
2. shortness of breath.
3. exophthalmos.
4. pitting edema of the ankles.
2. shortness of breath.
4. pitting edema of the ankles.
A 12 year old boy has a history of severe
sore throat followed by migratory
arthralgia and swollen joints of the
extremities. This history is suggestive of
A. acute herpetic gingivostomatitis.
B. osteoarthritis.
C. chronic polyarthritis.
D. rheumatic fever.
E. rheumatoid arthritis.
D. rheumatic fever.
A pontic replacing a mandibular first
molar should be designed so that it(s)
1. gingival surface is concave and
adapts closely to the ridge.
2. has open gingival embrasures.
3. conceals the porcelain to metal
junction on its gingival surface.
4. gingival surface is convex in all
directions.
2. has open gingival embrasures.
4. gingival surface is convex in all
directions.
A patient suddenly becomes pale and
sweaty after an injection of 4ml of
lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00,000.
The radial pulse is slow and steady. The
respiration is slow. The blood pressure is
80/60. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. A toxic reaction to lidocaine.
B. A toxic reaction to epinephrine.
C. An allergic reaction to the local
anesthetic.
D. Incipient syncope.
E. An impending adrenal insufficiency.
D. Incipient syncope.
A patient returns with persistent bleeding
5 hours after a tooth has been removed.
Your first step is to
A. inject the area with local anaesthetic.
B. give 10 mg of Vitamin K intramuscularly.
C. have patient bite on gauze saturated
with epinephrine.
D. examine to locate source of bleeding.
E. refer the patient for bleeding and
coagulation tests.
D. examine to locate source of bleeding.
A periapical infection of a mandibular
third molar may spread by direct extension
to the
1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.
4. submental space.
2. submandibular space.
4. submental space.
The most likely complication associated
with the extraction of an isolated maxillary
second molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.
A patient presenting with diplopia,
exophthalmos, nasal bleeding and
swelling, may suffer from a fracture of the
A. neck of the condyle.
B. body of the mandible.
C. zygomatic bone.
D. maxillary tuberosity.
C. zygomatic bone.
Bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
4. platelet count.
1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
A physical sign of impending syncope is
A. pallor.
B. elevation of blood pressure.
C. fast pulse.
D. All of the above
A. pallor.
For an acute bacterial infection, the most
valuable laboratory test(s) is/are the
1. hemoglobin level.
2. white blood cell count.
3. red blood cell count.
4. culture and sensitivity test.
2. white blood cell count.
4. culture and sensitivity test.
A 20-year old male presents with a threeday
history of an acute generalized
gingivitis. He has malaise, fever and
bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. A
blood examination reveals
Hb: 8.9g/100ml
Platelets: 82,000/mm3
Red blood cell count: 3,900,000/mm3
White blood cell count: 870,000/mm3
Normal Values:
Hb: 14-18g/100ml
Platelets: 150,000-400,000/mm3
Red blood cell count: 4-5million/mm3
White blood cell count: 5,000-
10,000/mm3
The most likely diagnosis is
A. thrombocytopenic purpura.
B. acute myelogenous leukemia.
C. infectious mononucleosis.
D. acute necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis.
B. acute myelogenous leukemia.
Ludwig's angina may cause death by
A. heart failure.
B. asphyxia.
C. convulsions.
D. paralysis of muscles of respiration.
E. pyemia.
B. asphyxia.
If an odontogenic infection involves the
pterygomandibular space, the most
obvious clinical sign will be
A. trismus.
B. facial swelling.
C. swelling in the submandibular area.
D. rise in body temperature above 39C
(102ºF).
A. trismus.
It is difficult to obtain satisfactory
anesthesia in the presence of infection near
the injection site because
A. the swelling causes increased
pressure on the nerves.
B. increased blood supply carries the
anesthetic solution away too fast.
C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits
action of the anesthetic agent.
D. alkalinity of the infected tissue
inhibits action of the anesthetic
agent.
C. acidity of the infected tissue inhibits
action of the anesthetic agent.
The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon
dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon
dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon
dioxide.
The most common complication of a
venipuncture is
A. syncope.
B. hematoma.
C. thrombophlebitis.
D. embolus.
B. hematoma.
Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
Tetracyclines
1. have no side effects.
2. may increase susceptibility to
superinfections.
3. are safe to use during pregnancy.
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial
activity.
2. may increase susceptibility to
superinfections
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial
activity.
Which valve is most commonly affected
by rheumatic heart disease?
A. Aortic.
B. Pulmonary.
C. Tricuspid.
D. Mitral.
D. Mitral.
A therapeutic advantage of penicillin V
over penicillin G is
A. greater resistance to penicillinase.
B. broader antibacterial spectrum.
C. greater absorption when given orally.
D. slower renal excretion.
E. None of the above.
C. greater absorption when given orally.
Trismus is most frequently caused by
A. tetanus.
B. muscular dystrophy.
C. infection.
D. mandibular fracture.
C. infection.
Acetaminophen in therapeutic doses
1. retards platelet function.
2. has strong anti-inflammatory
properties.
3. produces CNS stimulation.
4. has antipyretic properties.
4. has antipyretic properties.
Short-acting barbiturates are metabolized
mainly in the
A. liver.
B. kidneys.
C. small intestine.
D. pancreas.
E. spleen.
A. liver.
Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal?
A. Penicillin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Chloramphenicol.
E. Clindamycin.
A. Penicillin.
Which drug is most adversely affected by
ingestion of antacids?
A. Cephalexin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Tetracycline.
D. Sulfisoxazole.
E. Penicillin V.
C. Tetracycline.
All of the following are possible effects of
acetylsalicylic acid except
A. reduction of fever.
B. shortening of bleeding time.
C. suppression of inflammatory
response.
D. bleeding from the gastrointestinal
tract.
B. shortening of bleeding time.
Which of the following does NOT
influence the rate of induction during
inhalation anesthesia?
A. Pulmonary ventilation.
B. Blood supply to the lungs.
C. Hemoglobin content of the blood.
D. Concentration of the anesthetic in the
inspired mixture.
E. Solubility of the anesthetic in blood.
C. Hemoglobin content of the blood.
Systemic or topical cortisone therapy is
used in the treatment of
A. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
B. erythema multiforme.
C. submaxillary cellulitis.
D. ptyalism (excessive saliva).
E. herpes simplex.
B. erythema multiforme.
Which of the following would you
prescribe for an anxious dental patient
with a peptic ulcer?
A. Reserpine.
B. Scopolamine.
C. Silica gel.
D. Diazepam.
E. Calcium carbonate.
D. Diazepam.
Unconsciousness in syncope results from
A. electrolyte imbalance.
B. neurogenic shock.
C. cerebral hyperemia.
D. cerebral hypoxia.
D. cerebral hypoxia.
The most effective drug for relief of
angina pectoris is
A. morphine.
B. digitalis.
C. quinidine.
D. nitroglycerine.
E. pentobarbital sodium
D. nitroglycerine.
The inorganic ion that is implicated in
primary hypertension is
A. sodium.
B. fluoride.
C. potassium.
D. magnesium.
A. sodium.
Displacement of mandibular fractures is
dependent upon
1. direction of fracture line.
2. proprioceptor nerve action.
3. muscle pull.
4. tooth in line of fracture.
5. direction of blow.
1. direction of fracture line.
3. muscle pull.
5. direction of blow.
In a standard dental cartridge (carpule)
containing 1.8ml 2% lidocaine with
epinephrine 1/100,000, the amount of
vasoconstrictor is
A. 18.0 mg.
B. 0.018 mg.
C. 1.8 mg.
D. 0.18 mg.
E. 180.0 mg.
B. 0.018 mg.
Vestibuloplasty is a preprosthetic surgical
procedure used to
A. facilitate reliable impression making.
B. provide adequate posterior inter-arch
space.
C. allow placement of teeth over the
residual ridge.
D. increase the supporting surface area
D. increase the supporting surface area
In a standard inferior alveolar nerve block,
which muscle is penetrated by the needle?
A. Buccinator.
B. Mylohyoid.
C. Superior constrictor.
D. Masseter.
E. Medial (internal) pterygoid.
A. Buccinator
Epinephrine in a local anaesthetic solution
will
1. prevent rapid absorption of the
anaesthetic.
2. assist haemostasis at the site of
injection.
3. prolong the action of the anaesthetic
agent.
4. assist in post-operative healing.
1. prevent rapid absorption of the
anaesthetic.
2. assist haemostasis at the site of
injection.
3. prolong the action of the anaesthetic
agent.
A 57 year old man received 10mg of
diazepam intravenously. He becomes
unresponsive to verbal stimuli, and his
respirations are depressed to 10 per
minute. Appropriate treatment is to
A. administer ephedrine.
B. observe the patient.
C. force the patient to drink coffee.
D. support respiration with oxygen.
D. support respiration with oxygen.
The chief mechanism by which the body
metabolizes short-acting barbiturates is
A. oxidation.
B. reduction.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation.
D. sequestration in the body fats.
C. hydroxylation and oxidation.
Early anoxia is characterized by
1. cyanosis.
2. bradycardia.
3. tachycardia
1. cyanosis.
3. tachycardia
An apprehensive 77-year old patient,
weighing approximately 60kg, requires the
removal of several mandibular teeth under
local anaesthesia. The appropriate
modality to manage the anxiety is
A. 20mg of diazapam, intravenously.
B. 20mg of diazapam, orally.
C. 100mg of secobarbital, orally.
D. nitrous oxide and oxygen.
D. nitrous oxide and oxygen.