2010 Released Qs And Ans24

Front 1

The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must have a
1. coarse diamond finish.
2. space for the veneer material.
3. margin at least 1mm supragingivally.
4. definite gingival finish line.

Back 1

2. space for the veneer material.
4. definite gingival finish line.

Front 2

Which of the following principle fibre
groups of the periodontal ligament is the
most numerous and provides the main
support for the tooth?
A. Horizontal.
B. Transseptal.
C. Oblique.
D. Gingival.

Back 2

C. Oblique

Front 3

The local anesthetic lidocaine is an
A. amide.
B. ester.
C. aldehyde.
D. acid.

Back 3

A. amide.

Front 4

To ensure maximum marginal strength for
an amalgam restoration the cavosurface
angle should
A. approach 45 degrees.
B. approach 90 degrees.
C. be beveled.
D. be chamfered.

Back 4

B. approach 90 degrees.

Front 5

The drug of choice for prophylactic
antibiotic therapy for dental patients with a
past history of rheumatic fever and a
history of penicillin sensitivity is
A. methicillin.
B. clindamycin.
C. streptomycin.
D. tetracycline.

Back 5

B. clindamycin.

Front 6

The function of the reciprocal clasp arm is
to
1. act as an indirect retainer.
2. stabilize the abutment teeth.
3. act as a direct retainer for the distal
base.
4. counteract any force transmitted by
the retentive arm.

Back 6

2. stabilize the abutment teeth.
4. counteract any force transmitted by
the retentive arm.

Front 7

The retention of an indirect, extra-coronal
restoration can be improved by
1. decreasing the taper of the
preparation wall.
2. lengthening the clinical crown.
3. adding grooves.
4. an antirotation key.

Back 7

E. All of the above.

Front 8

All of the following appear as midline
structures on periapical radiographs
EXCEPT
A. nasopalatine/incisive canal.
B. anterior nasal spine.
C. nasal septum.
D. zygomatic process of the maxilla.

Back 8

D. zygomatic process of the maxilla.

Front 9

Your patient is currently on warfarin.
Before a planned extraction of tooth 3.4,
the patient’s coagulation mechanism
should be evaluated using which test?
A. Bleeding time.
B. Partial thromboplastin time.
C. Prothrombin time or INR.
D. Von Willebrand’s Factor.

Back 9

C. Prothrombin time or INR.

Front 10

Movement of a mandibular distal
extension (Class 1) partial denture away
from the denture bearing tissues when the
patient opens is primarily caused by
A. xerostomia.
B. group function occlusion.
C. non-passive retentive arms.
D. overextended borders.

Back 10

D. overextended borders.

Front 11

Radiographic examination reveals early
evidence of internal resorption. The
treatment of choice would be
A. apical surgical intervention.
B. immediate pulp extirpation.
C. immediate pulpotomy.
D. observation and re-evaluation in 3 - 6
months.
E. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy.

Back 11

B. immediate pulp extirpation.

Front 12

Dental implants are
CONTRAINDICATED in patients who
1. are over age 80.
2. have unrepaired cleft palates.
3. are taking anticoagulants.
4. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Back 12

4. have uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Front 13

A 4mm diameter carious pulp exposure
occurs on a permanent first molar of a
7 year old child. The tooth is vital and has
no periapical involvement. The
appropriate initial treatment would be to
perform a/an
A. pulp capping.
B. pulpotomy.
C. pulpectomy.
D. extraction.

Back 13

B. pulpotomy.

Front 14

Appropriate management for the relief of
symptoms of primary herpetic
gingivostomatitis in an
immunocompromised patient may include
1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml.
2. Triamcinolone acetonide in
Orabase®.
3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg.
4. Dexamethasone elixir 0.5mg/ml.

Back 14

1. Diphenhydramine elixir 12.5mg/5ml.
3. Acyclovir capsules 200mg.

Front 15

Which of the following medications
increases a patient’s risk for intraoral
candidiasis?
A. Warfarine (Coumadin®).
B. Cyclosporine.
C. Pentobarbital.
D. Ibuprofen.
E. Pilocarpine.

Back 15

B. Cyclosporine.

Front 16

Localized gingival recession of a
mandibular permanent incisor in an 8 year
old can be caused by
A. vitamin C deficiency.
B. ankyloglossia.
C. localized aggressive (juvenile)
periodontitis.
D. traumatic occlusion.
E. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

Back 16

B. ankyloglossia.

Front 17

A lower molar requiring a crown has an
extensive MOD amalgam restoration. The
crown margin should be placed
A. on the existing amalgam.
B. at the amalgam/tooth junction.
C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.
D. 2mm apical to the amalgam margin.

Back 17

C. 1mm apical to the amalgam margin.

Front 18

The most common cause of long-term post
operative sensitivity following the
placement of posterior composite resin
restorations is
A. hyperocclusion.
B. microleakage.
C. acidic primers.
D. residual caries.

Back 18

B. microleakage.

Front 19

A rubber dam should be used in
A. pulp capping procedures.
B. amalgam placement.
C. composite placement.
D. removing carious dentin from deep
lesions.
E. all of the above.

Back 19

E. all of the above.

Front 20

The local anesthetic lidocaine is an
A. amide.
B. ester.
C. aldehyde.
D. acid

Back 20

A. amide.

Front 21

The electric pulp tester might be of some
value in determining whether
1. the pulp is hyperemic or
hyperplastic.
2. there is a partial necrosis of the pulp.
3. there is a partial or total pulpitis.
4. the pulp is vital or nonvital.

Back 21

4. the pulp is vital or nonvital.

Front 22

In composite resin restorations, glass
ionomer cements can be used as a base
because they are
A. sedative to a hyperemic pulp.
B. neutral in colour.
C. biocompatible.
D. compatible with the expansion of
composite resins.

Back 22

C. biocompatible.

Front 23

For an acid-etched Class III composite
resin, the cavosurface margin of the cavity
can be bevelled to
1. eliminate the need for internal
retention.
2. improve convenience form.
3. aid in finishing.
4. increase the surface area for etching.

Back 23

4. increase the surface area for etching.

Front 24

For a cast gold restoration, a gingival
bevel is used instead of a shoulder because
a bevel
1. protects the enamel.
2. increases retention.
3. improves marginal adaptation.
4. increases the thickness of gold.

Back 24

1. protects the enamel.
3. improves marginal adaptation

Front 25

An altered cast impression technique for
free-end extension mandibular partial
denture cases is done primarily to
1. capture soft tissue in a supporting
form.
2. capture the retromylohyoid area.
3. prevent displacement of the
retromolar pad.
4. allow jaw relation records to be made
simultaneously with impression
making.

Back 25

E. All of the above.

Front 26

In low copper (e.g. Cu = 4% by weight in
the alloy powder) dental amalgam
restorations, the most susceptible phases to
corrosion are
A. copper tin.
B. silver mercury.
C. tin mercury.
D. silver tin.

Back 26

C. tin mercury.

Front 27

The most practical method to significantly
reduce the setting time of stone and plaster
is to use
A. warm mixing water.
B. a calcium sulfate dihydrate
nucleating agent.
C. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent.
D. a longer mixing time.

Back 27

A. warm mixing water.

Front 28

The periodontal probe should be inserted
into the sulcus
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
B. parallel to the root surface.
C. with a firm pushing motion.
D. with a firm lateral motion.

Back 28

A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth.

Front 29

The most likely indication of a poor
periodontal prognosis for a furcation
involved tooth is the presence of
A. wide root separation.
B. narrow root separation.
C. a bifurcation ridge.
D. a cemento-enamel projection.

Back 29

B. narrow root separation.

Front 30

In a post-endodontic restoration, the
function of the post is to insure
A. distribution of forces along the long
axis.
B. resistance of the tooth to fracture.
C. sealing of the root canal.
D. retention of the definitive restoration.

Back 30

D. retention of the definitive restoration.

Front 31

A patient with a pre-existing MOD
amalgam restoration has just had
endodontic therapy completed on tooth 4.6
but cannot afford a laboratory fabricated
final restoration. Interim restorative
management of 4.6 with the best prognosis
is to
A. restore with a MOD amalgam.
B. reduce the occlusal out of occlusion
and restore with a MOD amalgam.
C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps
and restore with a MOD amalgam.
D. restore with a bonded MOD
composite resin.

Back 31

C. cusp cap the buccal and lingual cusps
and restore with a MOD amalgam.

Front 32

Which of the following types of bone
contain the insertions of the periodontal
ligament fibres?
A. Woven.
B. Bundle.
C. Lamellar.
D. Cortical.

Back 32

B. Bundle.

Front 33

During periodontal disease activity, the
loss of clinical attachment
A. precedes alveolar bone loss.
B. follows alveolar bone loss.
C. is concomitant with alveolar bone
loss.

Back 33

A. precedes alveolar bone loss

Front 34

Overhanging margins of restorations at the
gingival margin contribute to gingivitis in
all cases EXCEPT
A. retain dental plaque.
B. retain food debris.
C. cause irritation.
D. create excessive pressure.

Back 34

D. create excessive pressure.

Front 35

Unbagged sterilized instruments
A. can be stored for up to 24 hours if
placed in an airtight container after
sterilization.
B. can be stored for up to 7 days if
placed in sterile bags after
sterilization.
C. can be stored for up to 1 year if
wrapped after sterilization.
D. must not be stored after sterilization.

Back 35

A. can be stored for up to 24 hours if
placed in an airtight container after
sterilization.

Front 36

The single most important measure to
reduce the risk of transmitting organisms
to patients is
A. use of personal protective barriers:
masks, eyewear, outerwear and
gloves.
B. sterilization of instruments and
disinfection of the operatory.
C. handwashing.
D. introduction of single use
instruments and disposables.

Back 36

C. handwashing.

Front 37

The combination (Kelley’s) syndrome
refers to the destructive changes
associated with the long term wear of a
mandibular distal extension removable
partial denture opposing a complete upper
denture. Which of the following clinical
findings is NOT normally characteristic of
this syndrome?
A. Reduction in morphologic face
height.
B. Advanced anterior maxillary ridge
resorption.
C. Down growth of the maxillary
tuberosities.
D. Advanced alveolar bone resorption
under the posterior partial denture
base areas.

Back 37

A. Reduction in morphologic face
height.

Front 38

On a semi-adjustable articulator, the
incisal guide table represents
A. a reference point for the
establishment of occlusal vertical
dimension.
B. the anterior equivalent of condylar
guidance.
C. a mechanical equivalent of the
horizontal and vertical overlap of the
anterior teeth.
D. the mechanical equivalent of the
Curve of Wilson.

Back 38

C. a mechanical equivalent of the
horizontal and vertical overlap of the
anterior teeth.

Front 39

A carious lesion on tooth 1.6 appears close
to the pulp on the bitewing radiograph. A
diagnosis of irreversible pulpitis can be
made based on
A. proximity of the radiolucency to the
pulp.
B. a lower electric pulp test reading
compared to the control.
C. the symptoms reported by the
patient.

Back 39

C. the symptoms reported by the
patient.

Front 40

The characteristics of "group~function"
occlusion are:
A. The teeth on the non-working side
make contact in lateral excursion.
B. The teeth on the working side make
contact in lateral excursion.
C. Only the canine and lateral incisors
make contact in lateral excursion.
D. The posterior teeth on both sides
make contact in lateral excursion.

Back 40

B. The teeth on the working side make
contact in lateral excursion.

Front 41

The line drawn through the occlusal rests
of two principal abutments is
A. survey line.
B. terminal line.
C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line.
D. line of greatest torque.

Back 41

C. axis of rotation/fulcrum line.

Front 42

During routine examination, it is noted
that a premolar is erupting ectopically
3.5mm to lingual while the primary
predecessor is still firmly in place. The
most appropriate management is to
A. allow the primary tooth to exfoliate
naturally.
B. luxate the primary tooth to facilitate
its exfoliation.
C. remove the primary tooth and allow
the permanent successor to erupt.
D. extract the ectopically erupting
premolar.

Back 42

C. remove the primary tooth and allow
the permanent successor to erupt.

Front 43

Each of the following can cause maxillary
midline diastema EXCEPT
A. a mesiodens.
B. congenitally missing lateral incisors.
C. a tongue thrust habit.
D. a thumb-sucking habit.
E. absence of primate spaces.

Back 43

E. absence of primate spaces.

Front 44

When prescribing antibiotics for an
orofacial infection in a healthy elderly
patient, the usual adult dose and duration
of the prescription should be written using
the following guidelines. The dose is
A. decreased by one half, duration
unchanged.
B. decreased by one third, duration
unchanged.
C. unchanged, duration unchanged.
D. increased by one third, duration
unchanged.
E. unchanged, duration extended by one
half.

Back 44

E. unchanged, duration extended by one
half.

Front 45

A pontic should
A. exert no pressure on the ridge.
B. be contoured by scraping the master
cast.
C. have a large surface area in contact
with the ridge.
D. contact nonkeratinized tissue.

Back 45

A. exert no pressure on the ridge.

Front 46

Glass ionomer cement is superior to zinc
phosphate cement because it has
A. lower solubility in oral fluids.
B. fluoride release.
C. higher compressive strength.
D. lower film thickness.

Back 46

B. fluoride release.

Front 47

Which line angle is NOT present in a
Class V amalgam cavity preparation?
A. Mesioaxial.
B. Axiopulpal.
C. Gingivoaxial.
D. Distoaxial.
E. Occlusoaxial.

Back 47

B. Axiopulpal

Front 48

A drug inhibiting ATP release at a site of
injury could be a potential analgesic
because ATP
A. inhibits nociceptors.
B. activates nociceptors.
C. causes vasoconstriction.
D. prevents vasoconstriction.

Back 48

B. activates nociceptors

Front 49

The primary stimulus for growth of the
mandible is
1. genetic.
2. epigenetic.
3. functional.
4. environmental.

Back 49

1. genetic.
3. functional.

Front 50

Saliva is most effective in minimizing an
acid challenge by its
A. lubrication function.
B. antimicrobial effect.
C. buffering action.
D. fluoride concentration.

Back 50

C. buffering action.