2010 Released Qs And Ans20

Front 1

If a patient in her first trimester of
pregnancy requires the immediate
replacement of a large MOD amalgam
restoration with extensive recurrent caries
and thermal sensitivity, the indicated
treatment is to
A. delay treatment until after the baby is
born.
B. restore with reinforced zoe.
C. restore with amalgam.
D. restore with a posterior composite
resin.

Back 1

B. restore with reinforced zoe.

Front 2

The initiation of cemental caries differs
from enamel caries because
A. dental plaque is not involved.
B. the age of onset is younger.
C. it is usually associated with abrasion.
D. it progresses more quickly.

Back 2

D. it progresses more quickly.

Front 3

A direct or indirect pulp cap has the
greatest chance of clinical success when
there is a
A. history of spontaneous pain.
B. prolonged response to cold stimulus.
C. apical lesion.
D. vital pulp.

Back 3

D. vital pulp.

Front 4

A bite wing radiograph of tooth 1.4
reveals caries penetrating two thirds into
the mesial enamel. The correct
management of tooth 1.4 is to
A. place an amalgam restoration.
B. place a porcelain inlay.
C. place a direct composite restoration.
D. apply topical fluoride and monitor.

Back 4

D. apply topical fluoride and monitor

Front 5

The layer of intermingled collagen and
resin located beneath a restoration is called
the
A. smear layer.
B. hybrid layer.
C. Weil layer.
D. decalcification layer.

Back 5

B. hybrid layer.

Front 6

Which of the following structures lies
inferior to the mylohyoid muscle at the
level of the mandibular second molar?
A. Lingual artery.
B. Lingual vein.
C. Lingual nerve.
D. Submandibular duct.

Back 6

B. Lingual vein.

Front 7

In an acute periapical abscess, which of
the following teeth is most likely to spread
infection to the submandibular space?
A. Mandibular second bicuspid.
B. Maxillary third molar.
C. Mandibular first molar.
D. Mandibular third molar.
E. Mandibular lateral incisor.

Back 7

D. Mandibular third molar.

Front 8

Which of the following isare (an)
indication(s) for the removal of impacted
mandibular third molars?
1. Recurrent pericoronitis.
2. Prevention of crowding of
mandibular incisors.
3. Pain.
4. They are impacted.

Back 8

1. Recurrent pericoronitis.
3. Pain.

Front 9

When performing an intraoral incision and
drainage of a dentoalveolar abscess, which
of the following is/are true?
1. The scalpel incision should be made
superficially through mucosa.
2. The incision should be only large
enough to allow placement of a
drain.
3. The underlying tissue dissection is
performed bluntly.
4. The purpose of a drain is to keep the
incision open.

Back 9

E. All of the above.

Front 10

The presurgical assessment of a permanent
maxillary first molar reveals roots which
are trifurcated and widely divergent. The
maxillary antrum encroaches into the area
of trifurcation. Which of the following
should be done during extraction of this
tooth?
1. Reflect a flap.
2. Reduce the palatal bone to the level
of the trifurcation.
3. Reduce the buccal bone to the level
of the trifurcation.
4. Amputate the crown and section the
roots.

Back 10

4. Amputate the crown and section the
roots.

Front 11

Immediately following a left posterior
superior alveolar nerve block injection, the
patient’s face becomes quickly and visibly
swollen on the left side. The immediate
treatment should be to
1. apply a cold compress.
2. administer 0.3mg epinepherine
(sublingually).
3. apply pressure.
4. refer for immediate medical
treatment.

Back 11

1. apply a cold compress.
3. apply pressure.

Front 12

The beaks of extract forceps
1. can lead to tooth fracture, slippage
and injury to adjacent teeth if placed
incorrectly.
2. should be placed at the cervical line
of the tooth.
3. be pushed apically during extraction
movements.
4. should fit the crown of the tooth.

Back 12

E. All of the above.

Front 13

Management of a “dry socket” should
include
1. saline irrigation of socket.
2. vigorous curettage of the socket.
3. placement of a dressing in the socket.
4. a prescription for antibiotics.

Back 13

1. saline irrigation of socket.
3. placement of a dressing in the socket.

Front 14

If a patient loses a permanent maxillary
first molar before the age of 11, the
1. premolar drifts distally.
2. maxillary second molar erupts and
moves mesially.
3. opposing tooth erupts into the space
created.
4. overbite increases.

Back 14

E. All of the above.

Front 15

Which drug(s) control(s) pain and
reduce(s) inflammation?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Acetaminophen.
3. Ibuprofen.
4. Meperidine HCl.

Back 15

1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
3. Ibuprofen

Front 16

Which of the following procedures should
be used to reduce the risk of exposure to
mercury vapour?
1. Staff education.
2. Rubber dam.
3. High velocity suction.
4. Surgical mask.

Back 16

E. All of the above.

Front 17

The principal internal retention for a Class
V amalgam cavity preparation is
established at the
A. occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line
angles.
B. mesio-axial and disto-axial line
angles.
C. mesio-gingival and disto-gingival
line angles.
D. None of the above.

Back 17

A. occluso-axial and gingivo-axial line
angles.

Front 18

The principal microorganism in aggressive
periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is
A. porphyromonas gingivalis.
B. fusobacterium vincenti.
C. actinobacillus
actinomycetemcomitans.
D. prevotella intermedia.

Back 18

C. actinobacillus
actinomycetemcomitans.

Front 19

Which of the following impression
materials has the best dimensional
stability?
A. Polysulfide rubber.
B. Condensation silicone.
C. Polyvinylsiloxane.
D. Irreversible hydrocolloid.

Back 19

C. Polyvinylsiloxane.

Front 20

Which one of the following is NOT a
contraindication to ibuprofen?
A. Concurrent use of alcohol.
B. Asthmatic reaction to acetylsalicylic
acid.
C. An allergy to acetaminophen.
D. A gastric ulcer.

Back 20

C. An allergy to acetaminophen.

Front 21

Local anesthetic toxicity
A. is more likely to occur with the
addition of epinephrine.
B. is more likely to occur in adults.
C. may manifest as a seizure.

Back 21

C. may manifest as a seizure.

Front 22

A vertical cross-section of a smooth
surface carious lesion in enamel appears as
a triangle with the
A. base at the dentino-enamel junction.
B. base facing toward the pulp.
C. apex pointing to the enamel surface
D. apex pointing to the dentino-enamel
junction.

Back 22

D. apex pointing to the dentino-enamel
junction.

Front 23

The major advantage of glass ionomer
cement as a restorative material is that it is
A. highly translucent.
B. a fluoride releasing material.
C. highly esthetic.
D. unaffected by moisture during the
setting reaction.

Back 23

B. a fluoride releasing material.

Front 24

The objective of scaling and root planing
during periodontal therapy is to remove
A. plaque, calculus, contaminated
cementum and junctional epithelium.
B. plaque and calculus exclusively.
C. plaque, calculus and crevicular
epithelium.
D. plaque, calculus and contaminated
cementum.
E. all cementum associated with
periodontitis.

Back 24

D. plaque, calculus and contaminated
cementum.

Front 25

After placement of the rubber dam you
notice that the interdental papilla is
protruding from beneath the rubber dam.
The reason for this is that
A. a rubber dam frame was used.
B. the holes were placed too far apart.
C. a light weight dam was used.
D. the holes were placed too close
together.
E. the teeth were not individually
ligated.

Back 25

D. the holes were placed too close
together.

Front 26

Which of the following mucosae is
normally keratinized?
A. Soft palate.
B. Hard palate.
C. Lateral tongue.
D. Ventral tongue.

Back 26

B. Hard palate.

Front 27

Periapical cemental dysplasia is
A. painful.
B. expansile.
C. associated with vital teeth.
D. premalignant.

Back 27

C. associated with vital teeth.

Front 28

Epinephrine is added to local anesthetic
formulations in order to
1. increase duration of anesthesia.
2. increase depth of anesthesia.
3. reduce likelihood of systemic
toxicity.
4. reduce likelihood of allergic reaction.

Back 28

1. increase duration of anesthesia.
2. increase depth of anesthesia.
3. reduce likelihood of systemic
toxicity.

Front 29

A 45 year old patient has 32 unrestored
teeth. The only defects are deeply stained
grooves in the posterior teeth. Clinical
examination reveals no evidence of caries
in the grooves. The treatment of choice is
A. application of cyanoacrylate pit and
fissure sealants.
B. application of BIS-GMA pit and
fissure sealants.
C. conservative Class I amalgams.
D. prophylactic odontotomy.
E. no treatment.

Back 29

E. no treatment.

Front 30

A laboratory-fabricated composite resin
inlay compared to a direct composite resin
restoration has increased
A. colour stability.
B. surface smoothness.
C. control of polymerization shrinkage.
D. bondability to tooth structure.

Back 30

C. control of polymerization shrinkage.

Front 31

Direct pulp capping of permanent teeth in
children under the age of 12 years is most
likely to be successful for
A. teeth that are symptomatic.
B. necrotic pulps.
C. teeth with open apices.
D. pulp exposures 3-5mm in size.

Back 31

C. teeth with open apices.

Front 32

Oral signs and/or symptoms of vitamin B2
(riboflavin) deficiency may include
1. glossitis.
2. angular cheilitis.
3. pain.
4. bluish purple discolouration of the
oral mucosa.

Back 32

1. glossitis.
2. angular cheilitis.
3. pain.

Front 33

A Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) deficiency
usually arises in patients
1. who are elderly.
2. with acute infection.
3. consuming a high protein or fat diet.
4. taking systemic antibiotics.

Back 33

E. All of the above.

Front 34

Oral signs and/or symptoms of advanced
vitamin C deficiency include
1. pain.
2. angular cheilitis.
3. spontaneous hemorrhage of the
gingiva.
4. xerostomia.

Back 34

1. pain.
3. spontaneous hemorrhage of the
gingiva.

Front 35

A primary molar, in the absence of its
permanent successor,
A. should be treated endodontically to
prevent root resorption.
B. may remain for years with no
significant resorption.
C. will undergo normal root resorption.
D. should be extracted.
E. is more susceptible to dental caries.

Back 35

B. may remain for years with no
significant resorption.

Front 36

Following root canal therapy, the most
desirable form of tissue response at the
apical foramen is
A. cementum deposition.
B. connective tissue capsule formation.
C. epithelium proliferation from the
periodontal ligament.
D. dentin deposition.

Back 36

A. cementum deposition.

Front 37

A patient with congestive heart failure
may have
1. epistaxis.
2. shortness of breath.
3. rhinophyma.
4. pitting edema of the ankles.

Back 37

2. shortness of breath.
4. pitting edema of the ankles.

Front 38

Which of the following is NOT associated
with Cushing’s disease?
A. Buffalo hump.
B. Osteoporosis.
C. Hirsutism.
D. Hypertension.
E. Diabetes insipidus.

Back 38

E. Diabetes insipidus.

Front 39

While the teeth are set in wax, dentures
are tried in to
A. verify the maxillomandibular
records.
B. verify the vertical dimension of
occlusion.
C. evaluate esthetics.

Back 39

D. All of the above.

Front 40

The micro-organisms of dental caries are
1. streptococcus mutans.
2. staphylococcus aureus.
3. lactobacillus acidophilus.
4. B-hemolytic streptococci.

Back 40

1. streptococcus mutans
3. lactobacillus acidophilus.

Front 41

Epinephrine in a local anesthetic solution
will
1. decrease absorption of the anesthetic.
2. assist hemostasis at the site of
injection.
3. prolong the action of the anesthetic
agent.
4. assist in post-operative healing.

Back 41

1. decrease absorption of the anesthetic.
2. assist hemostasis at the site of
injection.
3. prolong the action of the anesthetic
agent.

Front 42

Which of the following may affect the
results of electric pulp testing?
1. Patient anxiety.
2. Pain threshold.
3. Analgesics.
4. Recent trauma.

Back 42

E. All of the above.

Front 43

Which of the following would you NOT
prescribe for a patient receiving Warfarin
(Coumadin®)?
1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin.
4. Codeine.

Back 43

1. Acetylsalicylic acid.
2. Metronidazole.
3. Erythromycin.

Front 44

A fistula found in association with a nonvital
tooth should be
1. cauterized to remove the epithelium.
2. traced to source with a gutta-percha
point on a radiograph.
3. treated with combined surgical and
nonsurgical root canal therapy.
4. treated with nonsurgical root canal
therapy.

Back 44

2. traced to source with a gutta-percha
point on a radiograph.
4. treated with nonsurgical root canal
therapy.

Front 45

The most appropriate treatment of a true
combined endodontic-periodontal lesion is
A. periodontal surgical therapy only.
B. nonsurgical root canal therapy only.
C. periodontal surgical therapy before
non-surgical endodontic treatment.
D. nonsurgical root canal therapy before
periodontal therapy.

Back 45

D. nonsurgical root canal therapy before
periodontal therapy.

Front 46

Which of the following procedures
requires antibiotic prophylaxis for a
patient with a prosthetic heart valve?
A. Inferior alveolar nerve block.
B. Postoperative suture removal.
C. Endodontic instrumentation beyond
apex.
D. Restoration of occlusal caries.
E. Making an alginate impression.

Back 46

B. Postoperative suture removal.

Front 47

Following administration of a posterior
superior alveolar nerve block, a hematoma
occurs. Which of the following statements
is correct?
A. The formation of this hematoma
indicates poor injection technique.
B. This nerve block is not commonly
associated with hematoma formation.
C. Management of this hematoma
includes immediate application of
heat for at least the first 6 hours.
D. The patient may experience trismus
the next day.

Back 47

D. The patient may experience trismus
the next day.

Front 48

Cleidocranial dysplasia can be associated
with
A. fragile bones.
B. multiple supernumerary teeth.
C. odontogenic keratocysts.
D. high incidence of palatal clefts.

Back 48

B. multiple supernumerary teeth.

Front 49

The current recommended regimen of
antibiotic prophylaxis for a patient with a
prosthetic heart valve and an allergy to
penicillin is
A. amoxicillin 3g orally one hour before
procedure; then 1.5g six hours after
initial dose.
B. amoxicillin 2g orally one hour before
procedure only.
C. clindamycin 300mg orally one hour
before procedure; then 150mg six
hours after initial dose.
D. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour
before procedure only.
E. erythromycin stearate, 2g orally two
hours before procedure only.

Back 49

D. clindamycin 600mg orally one hour
before procedure only.

Front 50

A patient presents with a 3 week history of
prolonged tooth pain to hot and cold.
Three days ago the symptoms changed to
moderate pain on biting combined with a
dull, spontaneous ache relieved by cold.
The most likely diagnosis is
A. chronic apical abscess.
B. a cracked tooth.
C. pulpal necrosis.
D. reversible pulpitis.
E. a vertical root fracture.

Back 50

A. chronic apical abscess.