2010 Released Qs And Ans18

Front 1

Which of the following properties of
freshly cut dentin does cavity varnish
eliminate or reduce?
A. Resiliency.
B. Hardness.
C. Regenerative powers.
D. Permeability.

Back 1

D. Permeability.

Front 2

A hinge axis facebow records
A. Bennett angle.
B. centric relation.
C. lateral condylar inclination.
D. horizontal condylar inclination.
E. opening and closing axis of the
mandible.

Back 2

E. opening and closing axis of the
mandible.

Front 3

Compared to unfilled resins, composite
resins have
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. better polishability.

Back 3

1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage

Front 4

There is a differential between girls and
boys with respect to the age at which the
growth velocity reaches its peak. That
difference is
A. boys six months ahead of girls.
B. girls six months ahead of boys.
C. girls one year ahead of boys.
D. girls two years ahead of boys.

Back 4

D. girls two years ahead of boys.

Front 5

Excessive orthodontic force used to move
a tooth may
1. cause hyalinization.
2. cause root resorption.
3. crush the periodontal ligament.
4. impair tooth movement.

Back 5

E. All of the above.

Front 6

Which of the following is/are correct?
A. There is no histological difference
between basal and alveolar bone.
B. There is no difference in the response
of basal and alveolar bone to
pressure.
C. Osteoid is a highly mineralized
bundle bone.
D. All of the above.

Back 6

B. There is no difference in the response
of basal and alveolar bone to
pressure.

Front 7

The optimal time for orthodontic treatment
involving growth manipulation is during
A. late primary dentition.
B. early mixed dentition.
C. late mixed dentition.
D. early permanent dentition.

Back 7

C. late mixed dentition.

Front 8

The predominant type of movement
produced by a finger spring on a
removable appliance is
A. torque.
B. tipping.
C. rotation.
D. translation.

Back 8

B. tipping.

Front 9

Following loss of a permanent mandibular
first molar at age 8, which of the following
changes are likely to occur?
1. Distal drift of second premolar.
2. No movement of second premolar.
3. Mesial drift of second permanent
molar.
4. No movement of second permanent
molar.

Back 9

1. Distal drift of second premolar.
3. Mesial drift of second permanent
molar.

Front 10

The best space maintainer to prevent the
lingual collapse that often occurs
following the early loss of a mandibular
primary canine is a
A. Nance expansion arch.
B. lingual arch.
C. band and loop space maintainer.
D. distal shoe space maintainer.

Back 10

B. lingual arch.

Front 11

Mouth breathing is most commonly
associated with Angle's malocclusion
Class
A. I.
B. II, Division 1.
C. II, Division 2.
D. III.
E. None of the above.

Back 11

B. II, Division 1.

Front 12

Recurring tooth rotations occur most
frequently after orthodontic correction due
to
A. density of the cortical bone.
B. persistence of tongue and finger
habits.
C. free gingival and transseptal fibres.
D. oblique fibres of the periodontal
ligament.

Back 12

C. free gingival and transseptal fibres.

Front 13

Which of the following conditions can
make an older patient short of breath on
mild exertion?
1. Anemia.
2. Cardiac failure.
3. Obesity.
4. Osteoarthritis.

Back 13

1. Anemia.
2. Cardiac failure.
3. Obesity.

Front 14

Which of the following drug groups can
cause xerostomia?
1. Diuretics.
2. Antibiotics.
3. Antidepressants.
4. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
agents.

Back 14

1. Diuretics.
3. Antidepressants.

Front 15

When assessing the difficulty of removal
of an impacted mandibular third molar,
you should consider
1. depth in the alveolus.
2. periodontal ligament space.
3. root width.
4. angulation.
5. size of the pulp chamber.

Back 15

1. depth in the alveolus.
2. periodontal ligament space.
3. root width.
4. angulation.

Front 16

The design of a mucoperiosteal flap
should
1. provide for visual access.
2. provide for instrument access.
3. permit repositioning over a solid
bone base.
4. be semilunar in shape.

Back 16

1. provide for visual access.
2. provide for instrument access.
3. permit repositioning over a solid
bone base.

Front 17

In the surgical removal of an impacted
mandibular third molar, which of the
following would be considered to be the
most difficult?
A. Mesio-angular.
B. Horizontal.
C. Vertical.
D. Disto-angular.

Back 17

D. Disto-angular.

Front 18

Final treatment planning for the combined
surgical-orthodontic correction of a
dentofacial deformity should include
A. predetermined occlusion on dental
models.
B. mock surgery on appropriately
mounted models.
C. cephalometric analysis with
prediction tracing.

Back 18

D. All of the above.

Front 19

Hydroxyapatite
1. can be used to eliminate osseous
undercuts.
2. is derived from coral.
3. is biocompatible.
4. is resistant to fracture.
5. is osteogenic.

Back 19

1. can be used to eliminate osseous
undercuts.
2. is derived from coral.
3. is biocompatible.

Front 20

An alveoplasty is performed to
1. facilitate removal of teeth.
2. correct irregularities of alveolar ridges
following tooth removal.
3. prepare the residual ridge for
dentures.

Back 20

2. correct irregularities of alveolar ridges
following tooth removal.
3. prepare the residual ridge for
dentures.

Front 21

Sutures can be
1. used to hold soft tissues into position.
2. used to stretch soft tissues into
position.
3. used to control bleeding.
4. resorbable or non-resorbable.

Back 21

1. used to hold soft tissues into position.
3. used to control bleeding.
4. resorbable or non-resorbable.

Front 22

A dental laboratory has returned a
removable partial denture framework. The
framework fit the master cast well but
when tried in the mouth, a stable fit could
not be achieved. The possible cause(s) of
the problem is/are
1. distortion in the final impression.
2. insufficient retention.
3. improper pour of the master cast.
4. casting error.

Back 22

1. distortion in the final impression.
3. improper pour of the master cast.

Front 23

Which of the following is/are essential
when using spherical rather than admix
alloy for a routine amalgam restoration
1. a larger diameter condenser.
2. an anatomical wedge.
3. decreased condensing pressure.
4. a dead soft matrix band.

Back 23

1. a larger diameter condenser.
2. an anatomical wedge.
3. decreased condensing pressure.

Front 24

Composite resin is contraindicated as a
posterior restorative material in cases of:
1. Allergy to benzoyl peroxide.
2. Bruxism.
3. Lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface
margin.
4. Inability to maintain a dry operating
field.

Back 24

E. All of the above.

Front 25

Which of the following constituents of a
local anesthetic cartridge is most likely to
be allergenic?
A. Lidocaine.
B. Epinephrine.
C. Metabisulfite.
D. Hydrochloric acid.

Back 25

C. Metabisulfite.

Front 26

Which one of the following describes the
position of the needle tip during
administration of local anesthetic for the
inferior alveolar nerve block?
A. Anterior to the pterygomandibular
raphe.
B. Medial to the medial pterygoid
muscle.
C. Superior to the lateral pterygoid
muscle.
D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular
ligament.

Back 26

D. Lateral to the sphenomandibular
ligament.

Front 27

Which one of the following factors is least
important in determining the appropriate
dose of drug for a patient?
A. Lean body weight.
B. Medical history.
C. Age.
D. Gender.

Back 27

D. Gender.

Front 28

Benzodiazepines have which of the
following effects?
1. Anxiolytic.
2. Sedative.
3. Anti-convulsant.
4. Analgesic.

Back 28

1. Anxiolytic.
2. Sedative.
3. Anti-convulsant.

Front 29

The tooth preparation for a porcelain
veneer must create a/an
A. rough surface for improved bonding.
B. space for an appropriate thickness of
the veneering material.
C. margin well below the gingival crest.
D. definite finish line.

Back 29

B. space for an appropriate thickness of
the veneering material.

Front 30

A 78-year old patient presents with several
carious lesions on the root surfaces of the
maxillary posterior teeth. The restorative
material of choice is
A. microfilled composite resin.
B. hybrid composite resin.
C. silver amalgam.
D. glass ionomer cement.
E. reinforced zinc oxide and eugenol
cement.

Back 30

D. glass ionomer cement.

Front 31

The dimensional stability of polyether
impression material is considered to be
good EXCEPT if the material is
A. dehydrated.
B. allowed to absorb water after setting.
C. used in uneven thickness.
D. distorted by rapid removal of the
impression from the mouth.
E. contaminated with latex.

Back 31

B. allowed to absorb water after setting.

Front 32

Acid etching of dentin with 10-15%
phosphoric acid for 15-20 seconds
1. removes the smear layer.
2. increases dentinal permeability.
3. opens the dentinal tubules.
4. decalcifies the intertubular and
peritubular dentin.

Back 32

E. All of the above.

Front 33

For amalgam restorations, a 90
cavosurface angle accommodates the
1. condensing of amalgam.
2. compressive strength of amalgam.
3. tensile strength of amalgam.
4. compressive strength of enamel.

Back 33

E. All of the above.

Front 34

Tooth reduction for anterior tooth
preparation for porcelain fused to metal
and all ceramic crowns is dictated by the
following imperative(s)
1. length for adequate retentionresistance.
2. porcelain/ceramic thickness for
fracture resistance.
3. clearance for occlusal function.
4. parallelism of axial walls for
facilitating the path of insertion.

Back 34

E. All of the above.

Front 35

Composite resin is
CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior
restorative material in cases of
1. cusp replacement.
2. bruxism.
3. lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface
margin.
4. inability to maintain a dry operating
field.

Back 35

E. All of the above.

Front 36

Which of the following affect(s)
polymerization of visible light cured
composite resins?
1. Intensity of the light source.
2. Thickness of composite resin.
3. Proximity of light source.
4. Shade of composite resin.

Back 36

E. All of the above.

Front 37

In order to achieve a proper interproximal
contact when using a spherical alloy,
which of the following is/are essential?
1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band.
3. An anatomical wedge.
4. Use of mechanical condensation.

Back 37

1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band.
3. An anatomical wedge.

Front 38

Which of the following cements can
chemically bond to enamel?
1. Zinc phosphate cement.
2. Polycarboxylate cement.
3. Ethoxy benzoic acid cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement.

Back 38

2. Polycarboxylate cement.
4. Glass ionomer cement.

Front 39

Which of the following SHOULD NOT be
corrected with a porcelain veneer?
A. Peg lateral incisor.
B. Diastema between 1.1 and 2.1.
C. Cross bite on tooth 1.3.
D. Enamel hypoplasia.

Back 39

C. Cross bite on tooth 1.3.

Front 40

The most likely cause of postoperative
sensitivity with Class II composite resin
restorations is
A. acid etching of dentin.
B. microleakage at the interface.
C. toxicity of the restorative material.
D. overheating during the finishing
process.

Back 40

B. microleakage at the interface.

Front 41

Which of the following would be a
CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a
resin bonded fixed partial denture (acid
etched bridge or “Maryland Bridge”)?
A. Class II malocclusion.
B. An opposing free end saddle
removable partial.
C. Previous orthodontic treatment.
D. Heavily restored abutment.

Back 41

D. Heavily restored abutment.

Front 42

The "smear layer" is an important
consideration in
A. plaque accumulation.
B. caries removal.
C. pulp regeneration.
D. dentin bonding.

Back 42

D. dentin bonding.

Front 43

A silane coupling agent is used to
A. control polymerization shrinkage in
composite resins.
B. enhance the bond between a
porcelain veneer and the resin
cement.
C. enhance use of a heat cured
composite resin inlay.
D. reduce the surface tension when
investing a wax pattern.
E. facilitate the soldering of gold
castings.

Back 43

B. enhance the bond between a
porcelain veneer and the resin
cement.

Front 44

A 22 year old presents with a fracture of
the incisal third of tooth 2.1 exposing a
small amount of dentin. The fracture
occurred one hour previously. There is no
mobility of the tooth but the patient
complains that it is rough and sensitive to
cold. The most appropriate emergency
treatment is to
A. open the pulp chamber, clean the
canal and temporarily close with zinc
oxide and eugenol.
B. smooth the surrounding enamel and
apply glass ionomer cement.
C. smooth the surrounding enamel and
apply a calcium hydroxide cement.
D. place a provisional (temporary)
crown.

Back 44

B. smooth the surrounding enamel and
apply glass ionomer cement.

Front 45

Zinc phosphate cement, when used as a
luting agent for cast restorations, has
which of the following properties?
1. Insolubility.
2. Anticariogenicity.
3. Chemical adhesion.
4. Mechanical retention.

Back 45

4. Mechanical retention.

Front 46

To achieve optimum strength and
esthetics, a porcelain fused to metal
restoration with a porcelain butt joint
margin requires a
1. 0.8 - 1.2mm shoulder.
2. sharp, well defined axiogingival line
angle.
3. 90- 100 cavosurface margin.
4. finish line that is 2mm subgingival.

Back 46

1. 0.8 - 1.2mm shoulder.
2. sharp, well defined axiogingival line
angle.
3. 90- 100 cavosurface margin.

Front 47

As a dentist in Canada, it is ethical to
refuse to treat a patient on the basis of
1. religious beliefs.
2. physical handicap.
3. infectious disease.
4. recognition of lack of skill or
knowledge.

Back 47

4. recognition of lack of skill or
knowledge.

Front 48

According to the principles of ethics that
are generally accepted in Canada, a dentist
may refuse to treat a patient with HIV
infection for a specific procedure for the
following reason(s).
1. Inadequate experience in the specific
procedure.
2. Inadequate knowledge of the specific
procedure.
3. Lack of instruments or equipment for
this procedure.
4. Infection control procedures that are
not designed for infectious patients.

Back 48

1. Inadequate experience in the specific
procedure.
2. Inadequate knowledge of the specific
procedure.
3. Lack of instruments or equipment for
this procedure.

Front 49

A 8-year old child has an 8mm central
diastema. The etiology could include
1. frenum.
2. cyst.
3. mesiodens.
4. normal development.

Back 49

1. frenum.
2. cyst.
3. mesiodens.

Front 50

The most appropriate treatment following
the extraction of a first primary molar in a
4-year old child is
A. regular assessment of arch
development.
B. to perform space analysis.
C. insertion of a space maintainer.
D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar.
E. extraction of the opposing molar.

Back 50

C. insertion of a space maintainer.