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63 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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(001) If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the "Core Tasks" column, the * sign identifies what at the 3, 5, or 7 level?
a. Position certification item b. Wartime task c. Critical task d.Core task |
d. Core task
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(002) A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5-level upgrade training waiver for 5-level upgrade training when a trainee will pass how many months in upgrade training?
a. 12 b. 18 c. 21 d. 24 |
c. 21
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(002) Which document would not be included in a case file for a training waiver?
a. Trainee's request letter b. Trainer's/supervisor's letter c. Copy of the individual's STS d. Group 1C0X2 functional letter |
a. Trainee's request letter
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(003) Who is required to give host avaiation resource management training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM?
a. HARM NCOIC b. Group 1C0X2 (FM) c. CHARM d. SARM NCOIC |
c. CHARM
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(003) The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program at a base come from AFI-11
a. 401 - Avaition Management b. 402 - Aviation & Parachutist Svc, Aeronautical Ratings & Badges c. 410 - Personnel Parachute Operations d. 421 - Aviation Resource Management |
d. 421 Aviation Resource Management
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(004) What consideration for identifying a Master Task List would include looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797?
a. Special training b. Recurring training c. Mission requirments d. Mandatory AFMAN 36-2108 requirements |
a. Special training
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(004) Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders?
a. Squadron aviation resource management b. Tenant aviation resource management c. Host avaiation resource management d. Current operations/scheduling |
c. Host aviation resource management
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(004) Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew members?
a. Squadron aviation resource management b. Tenant aviation resource management c. Host avaiation resource management d. Standardization and evaluation office |
d. Standarization and evaluation office
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(005) Critical information is defined as key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly
a. manning, activities, equipment b. plans, activities, capabilities & limitations c. intentions, capabilities, activities & limitations d. potential, capabilities, intentions & limitations |
c. intentions, capabilities, activities & limitations
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(005) What OPSEC factor involves an estimate of an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability?
a. Analysis of threats b. Assessment of risks. c. Analysis of vulnerabilities. d. Identification of critical information. |
b. Assessment of risks.
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(006) Three broad catergories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are
a. telephone, physical environment & STU-III b. physical environment, equipment listing & telephone c. radio communication, telephone & spatial environment d. telephone, radio communication & physical environment |
d. telephone, radio communication & physical environment
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(006) What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities?
a. 10-201 b. 10-701 c. 11-401 d. 11-402 |
b. 10-701
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(007) Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically?
a. LAN b. EPL c. CAR d. AFEPL |
c. CAR
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(008) What chapter in DoD 7000.14-R has information on incentive pay for parachutists?
a. 21 b. 22 c. 23 d. 24 |
d. 24
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(009) What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft assignment changed from an F-15E to an F-15C?
a. Continuation b. Requalification c. Mission qualification d. Conversion/difference |
d. Conversion/difference
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(009) What phase of training would be required for a newly assigned navigator to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft?
a. Refresher b. Continuation c. Initial qualification d. Mission qualification |
d. Mission qualification
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(010) What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible?
a. Aircrew availability b. Mission requirements c. Allocated flying hours d. Equipment & aircraft availability |
a. Aircrew availability
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(011) What avaiation resource management system window is used to limit update capability to the Incentive Pay window in ARMS?
a. User Administration b. Organization c. Password d. Security |
d. Security
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(012) What ARM group concentrates on issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operations, continued maintenance, & modification of ARMS?
a. AAG b. AWG c. FAB d. ASG |
b. AWG
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(013) What aviation resource managment group prioritizes which AF IMT 3215s will be implemented to enhance the ARMS database?
a. AAG b. AWG c. FAB d. ASG |
d. ASG
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(014) When the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories is the information listed?
a. Aircraft & person b. Aircraft & flight c. Flight & resource d. Personnel & resource |
a. Aircraft & person
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(014) If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, the
a. information must be reentered b. interface must be done manually c. data will not overwrite the data in ARMS d. MILPDS will overwrite ARMS & cause errors in the data. |
c. data will not overwrite the data in ARMS
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(015) To group various task IDs in a logical manner for easy management, the ARMS database uses a training.
a. management b. assignment c. program d. profile |
d. profile
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(016) What ARMS window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile?
a. Profile assignment b. Training program c. Training profile d. Training task |
a. Profile assignment
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(017) The source document required for changing the aircrew certification code is an AF IMT
a. 4324 b. 4323 c. 4322 d. 4321 |
a. 4324
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(017) What ARMS window is used to update the aircraft for a copilot who upgraded to a pilot?
a. Flyer b. Training Program c. Profile Assignment d. Aircraft Assignment |
d. Aircraft Assignment
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(018) What ARMS report do you use to review every profile assigned to the aircrew memebers in a flying squadron?
a. Training profile master list b. Individual training summary c. Training profile assignment list d. Unit training currency summary |
c. Training profile assignment list
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(019) Guidance on how to complete an AFTO Form 781 is in AFI 11-
a. 401 b. 402 c. 410 d. 421 |
a. 401
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(020) If a flight time error is discovered on the flying history report during a records review, guidance on the required source documents to change flight time in the ARMS is in AFI 11-
a. 401 b. 402 c. 410 d. 421 |
a. 401
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(021) If an Oracle Discoverer browser needed to be designed to retrieve data on aircrew ratings, what business area would you search in to retrieve the data?
a. Database information b. Training information c. Resource information d. Flying hour information |
c. Resource information
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(021) What type of display do you use to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns?
a. Table b. Crosstab c. Page detail table d. Page detail crosstab |
b. Crosstab
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(022) What congressional act increased the OFDA requirements at the 12 & 18-year gates?
a. ACIA of 1974 b. ACIA of 1989 c. FY 96 NDAA d. FY 99 NDAA |
b. ACIA of 1989
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(023) What code identifies a rated officer manpower position?
a. API b. TSC c. ASC d. FAC |
a. API
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ELIMINATED
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*
eliminated |
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(025) What ASC would be assigned to a non-rated officer who has been places on flying status?
a. 9C b. 9D c. 9E d. 9J |
b. 9D
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(026) FEB recommendations are sent through command channels to the member's major command for
a. review, evaluation, recommendation b. aeronautical order publishing c. recommendation d. final action |
d. final action
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(027) An aeronautical rating board
a. makes a recommendation whether to award a USAF rating. b. makes the final decision whether to award an AF aerounautial rating c. is required for medical officers who hold a comparable flight surgeon rating d. determines if the applicant meets the required criteria and notifies the HARM office to publish the appropriate aeronautical order. |
a. makes a recommendation whether to award a USAF rating.
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(027) An aeronautical rating board waiver
a. is approved by the MAJCOM/A3 b. is forwarded to HQ USAF/XOOT for final approval c. must be forwarded for final approval 60 days prior to publishing an aeronautical order. d. is only approved for officers who have been on active flying status within 6 years of the request. |
a. is approved by the MAJCOM/A3
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(028) What ASC would be assigned to an operational support member who has been placed on flying status?
a. 9C b. 9D c. 9E d. 9J |
a. 9C
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(029) What type of incentive pay, if any, is authorized to non-interference flyers that provde high altitude airdrop mission support?
a. CEFIP B. ACIP c. HDIP d. None authorized |
c. HDIP
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(029) For information regarding non-interference flyers, refer to AFI 11-
a. 202 b. 401 c. 402 d. 412 |
b. 401
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(030) What jump status would be assigned to an individual required to perform full-time jump duties?
a. Temporary b. Permissive c. Active d. Initial |
c. Active
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(031) When do you publish an AO for a parachutist attending initial HALO school?
a. Prior to attending initial HALO school b. Upon return from initial HALO school c. Class start date of initial HALO school d. Upon graduation of initial HALO school |
a. Prior to attending initial HALO school
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(032) What API codes must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office monitor for double billeting of flight surgeon and staff postions?
a. 5, 3, 4, B & D b. 5, 3, 4, C & E c. 5, 6, 8, B & D d. 5, 6, 8, C & E |
c. 5, 6, 8, B & D
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(033) Which part of the Aviation Management Suspense List would you review to check the accuracy of the AF IMT 1042 suspense file?
a. 0 b. 2 c. 3 d. 8 |
b. 2
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(034) If there was a minor typographical error on an AO, what type of AO would be published to fix the incorrect information?
a. New b. Revised c. Amendment d. Revocation |
c. Amendment
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(035) An aircrew member whose birth month is October will PCS to another active flying position on 10 August. When would the member be scheduled for an annual flight physical?
a. Prior to departure b. Within 10 workdays after PCS date. c. Within three months after arriving at the new base d. They do not need to be scheduled because they will receive an inital clearance exam upon arrival at their new base. |
a. Prior to departure
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(035) A CEA was placed on DNIF status effective 15 December 2001. If still grounded, what is the effective dat of medical disqualification?
a. 15 April 2002 b. 16 April 2002 c. 15 December 2002 d. 16 December 2002 |
d. 16 December 2002
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(036) Physiological training is required for
a. only rated members assigned active aircraft b. only pilots who fly high-G onset rate aircraft c. any personnel authorized to fly in AF aircraft d. all personnel who are or will be placed on flying status |
d. all personnel who are or will be placed on flying status
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(036) HAP initial training is provided to
a. any aircrew member who has a "J" duty prefix b. personnel applying to be placed on active jump status c. qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea level d. aircrew members in an authorized "J" duty prefix position who are applying to be placed on active jump status |
c. qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea level
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(037) Guidance on centrifuge training is in AFI 11-
a. 401 b. 402 c. 403 d. 404 |
c. qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea level
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(038) An officer arrived for undergraduate flying training on 19 Sep 05 & started training on 22 Sep 05 (class start date). If the individual graduated on 12 Jul 06 & PCS'd on 13 Jul 06, when would the years of rated service start counting for advance ratings and badges?
a. 19 Sep 05 b. 22 Sep 05 c. 12 Jul 06 c. 13 Jul 06 |
c. 12 Jul 06
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(039) For a CEA, the effective date for the aeronautical order awarding the basic badge is the date
a. of the first flight b. of the application letter c. the member met all applicable criteria d. the member's commander signed application letter |
c. the member met all applicable criteria
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(040) The first character of the ASC identifies
a. flying status code b. qualification code c. entitlement status code d. DNIF status code |
c. entitlement status code
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(040) The second character of the ASC identifies the
a. flying status code b. qualification code c. entitlement status code d. DNIF status code |
a. flying status code
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(041) Guidance on required host aviation resource management (HARM) actions on disqualification of a rated officer for medical fitness is in AFI 11-
a. 401 b. 402 c. 410 d. 421 |
b. 402
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(042) A parachutist eligible for HDIP performed a parachute jump on 15 Mar & received HDIP for a 3-calendar month period. Which pay rule would apply to the member?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
a. 1
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(043) If an ARC aircrew member flies 2.0 inactive duty (IDA) for the month of Jan and is also on AD status from 1-9 Jan (1.2 AD hour requirement), how would the flight hours be applied?
a. 2.0 must be applied to the AD hour requirement b. 2.0 must be applied to the IAD hour requirement c. 1.2 must be applied to the AD/0.8 must be applied to the IAD hour requirements d. 0.8 must be applied to the AD/1.2 must be applied to the IAD hour requirements |
b. 2.0 must be applied to the IAD hour requirement
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(044) What mandates the HARM office audit the entitlement verfication report (EVR) on a quarterly basis?
a. AFI 11-401 b. AFI 11-421 c. DoD 7000.14 R Chapter 22 c. DFAS DE Manual 7073-2 |
b. AFI 11-421
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(045) If a pilot is missing 72.4 hours of student time in the T-37B, what ARMS window would be used to update the missing time?
a. Flight b. Aircraft c. Aircraft hours d. Career total hours |
d. Career total hours
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(045) If a DD 149 was approved to update 200.5 hours of missing instructor pilot flight time, what ARMS window would be used to make the update?
a. Flight b. Aircraft c. Aircraft hours d. Career total hours |
c. Aircraft hours
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(046) The ARMS reports you would find in a JRF that has arrived at a gaining HARM office are the IDS, ITS,
a. FHR, instrument flight rules (IFR) or individual flight record (IFR) b. JHR, & IFR c. JHR, & IJR d. FHR, & IJR |
c. JHR, & IJR
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(046) How many months is the losing HARM required to maintain PCS products for an aircrew member?
a. 12 b. 15 c. 20 d. 24 |
d. 24
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