Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
560 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What layer of the epidermis is found just superficial to the stratum basalis?
|
Stratum spinosum
2010-366 |
|
What is the name of the most superficial layer of the epidermis?
|
Stratum corneum
2010-366 |
|
What layer is found directly below the epidermis?
|
Dermis
2010-366 |
|
How many layers are found in the epidermis?
|
Five
2010-366 |
|
What is the name of the deepest layer of the epidermis?
|
Stratum basalis
2010-366 |
|
What layer of the epidermis is found between the stratum spinosum and the stratum lucidum?
|
Stratum granulosum
2010-366 |
|
Name the layers of the epidermis from the surface to the base.
|
Stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, and stratum basalis (remember: Californians Like Girls in String Bikinis)
2010-366 |
|
What layer of the epidermis is found just deep to the stratum corneum?
|
Stratum lucidum
2010-366 |
|
Which epithelial cell junctions allow adjacent cells to communicate for electric and metabolic functions?
|
Gap junctions
2010-366 |
|
What is another name for zona adherens?
|
Intermediate junction
2010-366 |
|
In the zona adherens, _____ molecules attach to _____ molecules in the cell to form a perimeter just below the zona occludens.
|
Cadherins; actin
2010-366 |
|
The zona occludens is composed of what two substances?
|
Occludins and claudins
2010-366 |
|
Which protein anchors macula adherens within the epithelial cell?
|
Keratin
2010-366 |
|
A hemidesmosome is formed from ______ in the cell binding to ______ in the basement membrane to keep cells connected to the underlying extracellular matrix.
|
Integrin; lamin
2010-366 |
|
Which epithelial cell junction surrounds the perimeter just below the zona occludens?
|
Zona adherens
2010-366 |
|
Which epithelial cell junctions are small, discrete sites of attachment?
|
Macula adherens
2010-366 |
|
Gap junctions are formed from ______ that have a central channel that allow adjacent cells to communicate for electric and metabolic functions.
|
Connexons
2010-366 |
|
The zona adherens contains which kind of filaments?
|
Actin filaments
2010-366 |
|
What is another name for the zona occludens?
|
Tight junctions
2010-366 |
|
Which epithelial cell junction connects cells with the underlying extracellular matrix?
|
Hemidesmosome
2010-366 |
|
Cadherins depend on what ion for their function?
|
Calcium
2010-366 |
|
What is another name for the macula adherens?
|
Desmosome
2010-366 |
|
Which epithelial cell junction prevents diffusion across the paracellular space?
|
Zona occludens
2010-366 |
|
What ligament attaches the lateral condyle of the femur to the lateral aspect of the tibia and fibula?
|
Lateral collateral ligament
2010-366 |
|
Name the cartilage that cushions the area between the medial condyle of the femur and the medial aspect of the tibia.
|
Medial meniscus
2010-366 |
|
The positive anterior drawer sign is an indication of the tearing of which knee ligament?
|
Anterior cruciate ligament
2010-366 |
|
Name the cartilage that cushions the area between the lateral condyle of the femur and the lateral aspect of the tibia.
|
Lateral meniscus
2010-366 |
|
The medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligaments are commonly injured when a person plays which sport?
|
Football
2010-366 |
|
What ligament attaches the lateral condyle of the femur to the anterior aspect of the tibia?
|
Anterior cruciate ligament
2010-366 |
|
What ligament attaches the medial condyle of the femur to the medial aspect of the tibia?
|
Medial collateral ligament
2010-366 |
|
The terms anterior and posterior with regard to the cruciate ligaments refer to the sites of ______ attachment.
|
Tibial
2010-366 |
|
Abnormal passive abduction of the knee indicates that what ligament is torn?
|
Medial collateral ligament
2010-366 |
|
What ligament attaches the medial condyle of the femur to the posterior aspect of the tibia?
|
Posterior cruciate ligament
2010-366 |
|
Pudendal nerve blocks are used to relieve pain in what clinical situation?
|
Childbirth
2010-367 |
|
What is located at McBurney's point?
|
Pain due to appendicitis localizes to McBurney's point
2010-367 |
|
Where is the needle inserted during a lumbar puncture?
|
Between vertebrae at the level of the iliac crest
2010-367 |
|
Sensation from which nerve can be blocked by injection of local anesthetic near the ischial spine?
|
Pudendal nerve
2010-367 |
|
Describe the location of McBurney's point.
|
Two thirds of the way from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine
2010-367 |
|
Which muscle of the rotator cuff is found on the anterior aspect of the humerus?
|
Subscapularis
2010-367 |
|
Which rotator cuff muscle adducts and laterally rotates the arm?
|
Teres minor
2010-367 |
|
Which rotator cuff muscle helps the deltoid abduct the arm?
|
Supraspinatus
2010-367 |
|
Which rotator cuff muscle laterally rotates the arm?
|
Infraspinatus
2010-367 |
|
Which rotator cuff muscle medially rotates and adducts the arm?
|
Subscapularis
2010-367 |
|
Which muscle of the rotator cuff is found on the superior aspect of the humerus?
|
Supraspinatus
2010-367 |
|
Name the muscles that make up the rotator cuff.
|
Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis (remember: SItS; small t is for teres minor)
2010-367 |
|
Which muscles insert on the posterior aspect of the humerus?
|
Infraspinatus and teres minor
2010-367 |
|
The interossei and adductor polliois muscles are innervated by what nerve?
|
Branches of the deep ulnar nerve
2010-* |
|
The recurrent branch of the medial nerve can be damaged by a superficial laceration to what surface?
|
The palm of the hand
2010-368 |
|
The dermatome of the thumb is innervated by what nerve(s)?
|
Radial and median nerves
2010-* |
|
C4 innervates what dermatome?
|
Shoulder
2010-* |
|
Describe the dermatomal distribution of the ulnar nerve on the hand.
|
Medial palmar and dorsal surfaces of the hand
2010-* |
|
Sublaxation of the radius causes trauma to which nerve?
|
Deep branch of the radial nerve
2010-368 |
|
The thenar muscles are innervated by what branch of the median nerve?
|
The recurrent branch of the median nerve
2010-* |
|
Midshaft fracture of the humerus damages what nerve?
|
Radial nerve
2010-368 |
|
Improper use of crutches can compress what nerve?
|
Radial nerve
2010-368 |
|
Trauma to the heel of the hand can cause damage to which nerve?
|
Ulnar nerve
2010-368 |
|
The dermatome of the lateral aspect of the upper arm is innervated by what nerve root?
|
C5
2010-* |
|
Fracture of what specific part of the humerus can cause ulnar nerve trauma?
|
Medial epicondyle
2010-368 |
|
A Pancoast's tumor can compress what trunk of the brachial plexus?
|
Lower trunk
2010-368 |
|
The C7 nerve root innervates which dermatome?
|
The middle finger
2010-* |
|
How many tendons run through the carpal tunnel?
|
Nine
2010-* |
|
The dermatome of the pinky is innervated by which nerve root?
|
C8
2010-* |
|
The anterior interosseous nerve is at risk for compression where?
|
The deep forearm
2010-368 |
|
Name the nerve compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome.
|
Median nerve
2010-368 |
|
A dislocated lunate will affect which nerve?
|
Median nerve
2010-368 |
|
What nerve root is commonly compressed by a cervical disk lesion?
|
C7
2010-368 |
|
Fracture of the surgical neck or dislocation of the humerus can traumatize which nerve?
|
Axillary nerve
2010-368 |
|
Tendons from which two muscles anchor on the pisiform bone?
|
Abductor digiti minimi and flexor carpi ulnaris
2010-* |
|
The flexor retinaculum is anchored between what three bones?
|
Trapezium, hook of hamate, and scaphoid
2010-* |
|
Supracondylar fracture of humerus can compress what nerve causing what syndrome?
|
Median nerve; pronator teres syndrome
2010-368 |
|
Which dermatome covers the thumb?
|
C6
2010-* |
|
The dermatome of the axilla is innervated by what nerve root?
|
T2
2010-* |
|
The dermatome of the medial aspect of the forearm is innervated by what nerve root?
|
T1
2010-* |
|
The palmar surface of the first three digits is innervated by what branch of the median nerve?
|
Cutaneous branches of the median nerve
2010-* |
|
Fracture of hook of hamate can disrupt which nerve?
|
Ulnar nerve
2010-368 |
|
Compression of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus can lead to nerve injury known as what?
|
Klumpke's palsy
2010-368 |
|
A patient is unable to move his thumb. Physical exam reveals a "Pope's blessing" sign. If the cause is nerve damage, what is the principal nerve that is involved?
|
Ulnar nerve
2010-369 |
|
A "waiter's tip" results from lesions at what two nerve roots?
|
C5 and C6
2010-369 |
|
A patient presents with "Saturday night palsy," which consists of a wrist drop. What nerve was most likely injured?
|
Radial nerve
2010-369 |
|
A lesion at what cord of the brachial plexus would cause damage to the axillary and radial nerves?
|
Posterior cord
2010-369 |
|
A solitary lesion of what nerve within the brachial plexus might make it difficult to flex the elbow?
|
Musculocutaneous nerve
2010-369 |
|
Injury to the posterior cord of the brachial plexus would produce what sign on physical exam?
|
Wrist drop
2010-369 |
|
What muscle protects the brachial plexus during a clavicle fracture?
|
Subclavius muscle
2010-369 |
|
A patient presents with a "waiter's tip" deformity after being thrown from a motorcycle. What cervical roots have been injured?
|
C5 and C6
2010-369 |
|
Deltoid paralysis is caused by injury to what nerve?
|
Axillary nerve
2010-369 |
|
Name the order in which the brachial plexus divides.
|
The order is Roots, Trunks, Divisions, Cords, and Branches (remember: Randy Travis Drinks Cold Beer)
2010-369 |
|
A lesion of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus would cause what notable sign on physical exam?
|
A total claw hand (Klumpke's palsy)
2010-369 |
|
A patient presents with a winged scapula. What nerve has been injured?
|
Long thoracic nerve
2010-369 |
|
A patient with a fractured surgical neck of the humerus could demonstrate what sensory and motor deficits?
|
Inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder, lack of sensation over the deltoid muscle
2010-370 |
|
What is the cause of "Saturday night palsy"?
|
Extended compression of the axilla by the back of a chair or crutches resulting in radial nerve injury
2010-370 |
|
A patient has carpal tunnel syndrome involving swelling of the wrist that affects the flexors of the hand. What sensory deficit is expected?
|
Decreased sensation in the palmar aspect of the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and half of the ring finger
2010-370 |
|
A patient has a fracture at the medial condyle of the humerus that affects the flexors of the hand. What sensory deficit is expected on physical exam?
|
Decreased sensation in palmar and dorsal sides of fifth digit and half of fourth digit
2010-370 |
|
A patient presents with a loss of sensation over the lateral palm, the thumb, and the radial two and one half fingers. What fracture may have caused the deficit?
|
Supracondylar fracture of the humerus
2010-370 |
|
A patient has a supracondylar fracture of the humerus that affects the flexors of the hand. What sensory deficit is expected?
|
Decreased sensation in the palmar aspect of the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and half of the ring finger
2010-370 |
|
A patient suffers a midshaft humerus fracture damaging the extensor compartment. He has a wrist drop. What sensory deficit is expected?
|
Deficit over the posterior arm and dorsal hand
2010-370 |
|
A patient presents with "Pope's blessing/hand of benediction." What physical injury causes this finding?
|
Fracture of the hook of hamate, likely from falling onto an outstretched hand, affecting the ulnar nerve
2010-370 |
|
A patient presents with a flattened deltoid. Name the two injuries that could result in this finding.
|
Fractured surgical neck of the humerus and dislocation of the humeral head resulting in axillary nerve injury
2010-370 |
|
A patient has a fracture at the medial condyle of the humerus that affects the flexors of the hand. What motor deficits are expected on physical exam?
|
Cannot abduct thumb or abduct or adduct fingers; claw hand
2010-370 |
|
A patient presents with decreased sensation over the lateral forearm and an inability to flex the arm at the elbow. What nerve is damaged?
|
Musculocutaneous nerve
2010-370 |
|
A patient has carpal tunnel syndrome involving swelling of the wrist that affects the flexors of the hand. What motor deficit is expected on physical exam of the hand? Of the thumb?
|
Cannot flex fingers; cannot abduct/oppose thumb
2010-370 |
|
A patient presents with inability to extend his wrist, fingers (at the metacarpophalangeal joint), and thumb. What nerve is damaged?
|
Radial nerve
2010-370 |
|
Name the two muscle groups affected in a patient with ulnar claw hand.
|
Interossei and lumbricals
2010-370 |
|
Injury to the radial nerve may result in what sign on physical exam?
|
Wrist drop
2010-370 |
|
Name six causes of mononeuropathy.
|
Compression, trauma, diabetes, vasculitis, radiation, and inflammation
2010-370 |
|
A patient presents with his left arm hanging to the side, medially rotated, with pronation of the forearm. What type of palsy does he have?
|
Erb-Duchenne palsy
2010-371 |
|
The loss of innervation in what muscle causes pronation of the forearm in Erb palsy?
|
Biceps
2010-371 |
|
Erb-Duchenne palsy is caused by the traction/tear of what two nerve roots?
|
C5 and C6
2010-371 |
|
Thoracic outlet syndrome results from compression of the _____ artery and the _____ trunk of the brachial plexus by a cervical rib.
|
Subclavian; inferior
2010-371 |
|
Name the four components of thoracic outlet syndrome.
|
1. Atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences; 2. Atrophy of the interosseous muscles; 3. Sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearm and hand; 4. Disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head toward the opposite side
2010-371 |
|
How does a proximal median nerve lesion affect the thumb?
|
It causes an inability to abduct thumb, know as "ape hand"
2010-* |
|
A proximal median nerve lesion causes loss of what muscle function?
|
It causes loss of opponens polliois muscle function
2010-* |
|
Median claw is caused by a lesion of the distal median nerve. Specify the exact location of the lesion.
|
The lesion is located after the branch containing C5-C7 brances off to feed forearm flexors
2010-* |
|
Name the function of the lumbrical muscles of the hand.
|
The lumbricals flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend both the distal interphalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints
2010-* |
|
What digits are affected in a distal ulnar nerve lesion?
|
Fourth and fifth digits
2010-* |
|
Ulnar claw or "Pope's blessing" is caused by a lesion of what nerve?
|
A distal lesion of the ulnar nerve
2010-* |
|
Klumpke's total claw hand is caused by a lesion of what trunk of the brachial plexus affecting what nerve roots?
|
Lower trunk and nerve roots C8, T1
2010-* |
|
What nerve of the upper extremity is known as the "great extensor nerve"?
|
Radial nerve
2010-372 |
|
Name the muscles innervated by the radial nerve.
|
Brachioradialis, Extensors of the wrist and fingers, Supinator, and Triceps (remember: radial nerve innervates the BEST)
2010-372 |
|
After supination, is the palm or dorsum of the hand facing up?
|
Palm (remember: to supinate is to move as if carrying a bowl of soup)
2010-372 |
|
What muscle group in the hand flexes the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joint?
|
Lumbrical muscles
2010-372 |
|
What three muscles compose the hypothenar eminence?
|
The opponens digiti minimi, the abductor digiti minimi, and the flexor digiti minimi (remember: Oppose, Abduct, and Flex (OAF))
2010-372 |
|
What three muscles compose the thenar eminence?
|
The opponens pollicis, the abductor pollicis, and the flexor pollicis brevis, remember: Oppose, Abduct, and Flex (OAF)
2010-372 |
|
What muscle group in the hand abducts the fingers?
|
Dorsal interosseous muscles (remember: DAB = Dorsals ABduct)
2010-372 |
|
What muscle group in the hand adducts the fingers?
|
Palmar interosseous muscles (remember: PAD = Palmars ADduct)
2010-372 |
|
Name two specific injuries caused by repetitive elbow trauma.
|
Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow), medial epicondylitis (golf elbow)
2010-372 |
|
A patient has a posterior hip dislocation. She cannot jump, climb stairs, or rise from a seated position. What nerve has been damaged?
|
Inferior gluteal nerve
2010-372 |
|
If a patient has foot drop, his ______ nerve is damaged; but if a patient cannot stand on his tiptoes, then the _____ nerve is damaged.
|
Common peroneal; tibial
2010-372 |
|
A patient has a pelvic fracture. He can no longer flex his thigh or extend his leg. He has a sensory deficit along the anterior thigh and medial leg. What nerve has been damaged?
|
Femoral nerve
2010-372 |
|
A patient has had trauma to his knee and damaged his tibial nerve. What motor deficits would be expected on physical exam?
|
Cannot invert foot, cannot plantar flex foot, and cannot flex toes (remember: TIP = Tibial Inverts and Plantarflexes; if injured, can't stand on TIPtoes)
2010-372 |
|
A patient experiences trauma to his lateral leg and can no longer evert or dorsiflex his foot, nor can he extend his toes. What nerve has been injured?
|
Common peroneal nerve, causing foot drop
2010-372 |
|
Loss of foot eversion is due to damage of the _____ nerve, while loss of foot inversion is due to damage of the _____ nerve.
|
Common peroneal; tibial
2010-372 |
|
A patient has an anterior hip dislocation and can no longer adduct the thigh. She has a sensory deficit along the medial thigh. What nerve has been damaged?
|
Obturator nerve
2010-372 |
|
What two nerves may be damaged if a patient sustains a posterior hip dislocation?
|
Inferior gluteal nerve and superior gluteal nerve
2010-372 |
|
A patient has had trauma to his knee and can no longer invert or plantar flex his foot, nor can he flex his toes. He has decreased sensation in the sole of his foot. What nerve has been damaged?
|
Tibial nerve
2010-372 |
|
A patient has a posterior hip dislocation and cannot abduct his thigh (positive Trendelenburg sign). What nerve has been damaged?
|
Superior gluteal nerve
2010-372 |
|
Loss of dorsiflexion of the foot is due to damage of the _____ nerve, while loss of plantar flexion of the foot is due to damage of the _____ nerve.
|
Common peroneal; tibial
2010-372 |
|
A patient has a posterior hip dislocation. He has a positive Trendelenburg sign. What motor deficit is present?
|
Inability to abduct thigh
2010-372 |
|
A patient has a fibula neck fracture and can no longer evert or dorsiflex his foot, nor can he extend his toes. What nerve has been injured, and what sign is evident on physical exam?
|
The common peroneal nerve; foot drop (remember: PED = Peroneal Everts and Dorsiflexes; if injured, foot dropPED)
2010-372 |
|
During skeletal muscle signal conduction, postsynaptic ligand binding leads to the depolarization of which membrane?
|
The motor end plate of the muscle cell
2010-373 |
|
Name the specific receptors on the skeletal muscle cell membrane that are voltage sensitive.
|
Dihydropyridine
2010-373 |
|
During skeletal muscle signal conduction, the action potential travels down into invaginations in the membrane that are called what?
|
T-tubules
2010-373 |
|
During skeletal muscle contraction, which bands of the sarcomere shorten in length?
|
H-band and I-band
2010-373 |
|
In the sarcomere, does the I- band correspond to the area that is only actin or only myosin?
|
Only actin
2010-373 |
|
_____ receptors release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
|
Ryanodine
2010-373 |
|
In the sarcomere, is the M line the site of actin or myosin attachment?
|
Myosin
2010-373 |
|
In the sarcomere, does the H-band correspond to the area that is only actin or only myosin?
|
Only myosin
2010-373 |
|
During skeletal muscle contraction, released calcium binds to troponin C, thereby causing a conformational change to move tropomyosin out of what area of the actin filament?
|
The myosin-binding groove
2010-373 |
|
In the sarcomere, does the A-band correspond to the length of actin or myosin?
|
Myosin
2010-373 |
|
In the sarcomere, is the Z line the site of actin or myosin attachment?
|
Actin
2010-373 |
|
During the conduction of an action potential to muscle, the action potential causes the opening of which voltage-gated channels in the nerve terminal?
|
Voltage-gated calcium channels, causing release of neurotransmitter
2010-373 |
|
A sarcomere is defined as the area between one ______ to the next ______.
|
Z line; Z line
2010-373 |
|
What term describes the process by which calcium entering a muscle cell through voltage-gated calcium channels on the cell membrane is able to increase the intracellular calcium content of the muscle cell by releasing more calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
|
Calcium-induced calcium release
2010-373 |
|
During skeletal muscle contraction, what band of the sarcomere remains the same length?
|
A-band (remember: A band is Always the same length; HIZ shrinkage)
2010-373 |
|
In type I muscle fibers, there is a(n) _____ (increase;decrease) in oxidative phosphorylation.
|
Increase
2010-374 |
|
Type II muscle fibers are _____ (fast/slow) twitch.
|
Fast
2010-374 |
|
Type I muscle fibers are _____ (fast/slow) twitch.
|
Slow
2010-374 |
|
True or False? Type I muscle fibers create a sustained contraction.
|
True (remember: "one slow red ox")
2010-374 |
|
In type II muscle fibers, there is a(n) _____ (increase; decrease) in anaerobic glycolysis.
|
Increase
2010-374 |
|
Weight training results in hypertrophy of what type of muscle fibers?
|
Fast-twitch muscle fibers
2010-374 |
|
Type II muscle fibers are white secondary to what?
|
Decreased mitochondria and myoglobin concentration
2010-374 |
|
Type I muscle fibers are red secondary to what?
|
Increased mitochondria and myoglobin concentration
2010-374 |
|
In skeletal muscle contraction, calcium binds to what substance, thereby causing a conformational change?
|
Troponin C
2010-374 |
|
The absence of ATP binding to the myosin head in skeletal muscle may cause what finding?
|
Rigor mortis
2010-374 |
|
What process causes cocking of the myosin head?
|
Hydrolysis of ATP
2010-374 |
|
The binding of ATP allows for what process in actin/myosin cross-bridging?
|
Release
2010-374 |
|
In skeletal muscle contraction, ATP binds to what molecule?
|
Myosin head
2010-374 |
|
In the process of smooth muscle cell contraction, calcium binds to what?
|
Calmodulin
2010-374 |
|
After a smooth muscle membrane is depolarized, voltage-gated _____ _____ will open.
|
Calcium channels
2010-374 |
|
In smooth muscle contraction, dephosphorylation of the myosin-actin complex is carried out by what enzyme?
|
Myosin light-chain phosphatase
2010-374 |
|
With the binding of calcium to calmodulin in smooth muscle contraction, the activation of _____ _____-_____ kinase takes place.
|
Myosin light-chain
2010-374 |
|
Dephosphorylation of the myosin-actin complex leads to what response by smooth muscle?
|
Relaxation
2010-374 |
|
Myosin light-chain kinase is an enzyme that adds a _____ group to the _____-_____ complex during _____ muscle contraction.
|
Phosphate, actin-myosin; smooth
2010-374 |
|
Osteoblasts are derived from _____ stem cells in the periosteum.
|
Mesenchymal
2010-375 |
|
In bone formation, _____ (endochondral/membranous) ossification is responsible for longitudinal bone growth, while _____ (endochondral/membranous) ossification is responsible for flat bone growth.
|
Endochondral; membranous
2010-375 |
|
_____ (Endochondral/Membranous) ossification involves the production a cartilaginous model that is remodeled into lamellar bone, while _____ (endochondral/membranous) ossification involves the direct production of woven bone that is remodeled into lamellar bone.
|
Endochondral; membranous
2010-375 |
|
In endochondral ossification, what two type of cells replace the cartilaginous model with woven and later lamellar bone?
|
Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
2010-375 |
|
The skull, facial bones, and axial skeleton are examples of bones formed as a result of what type of ossification pattern?
|
Membranous ossification
2010-375 |
|
Individuals with achondroplasia have _____ (normal/decreased) life span and fertility.
|
Normal
2010-375 |
|
In achondroplasia, the limbs are shorter than normal, but the _____ and _____ are normal.
|
Head; trunk
2010-375 |
|
In achondroplasia, the short limbs are a result of the failure of what type of bone growth?
|
Longitudinal bone growth (this type of bone growth accounts for the growth of the long bones in the limbs)
2010-375 |
|
In achondroplasia, _____ (endochondral/membranous) bone growth is not affected.
|
Membranous (this type of bone growth accounts for the formation of the skull, the facial bones, and the axial skeleton)
2010-375 |
|
True or False? Achondroplasia is associated with advanced paternal age.
|
True
2010-375 |
|
Achondroplasia is an autosomal _____ (dominant/recessive) genetic trait.
|
Dominant
2010-375 |
|
Achondroplasia represents a failure of cartilage maturation resulting from a mutation in what receptor?
|
Fibroblast growth factor receptor
2010-375 |
|
A reduction in bone mass despite normal bone mineralization is a description of what disease?
|
Osteoporosis
2010-375 |
|
Name four treatments for osteoporosis.
|
Estrogen, calcitonin, bisphosphonates, and pulsatile parathyroid hormone
2010-375 |
|
Which upper extremity fracture is commonly seen in patients with osteoporosis?
|
Colles' fracture of the distal radius
2010-375 |
|
What is type I osteoporosis?
|
Increased bone resorption as a result of decreased estrogen levels
2010-375 |
|
What is type II osteoporosis?
|
Senile osteoporosis; affects men and women older than 70 years of age
2010-375 |
|
A known osteoporotic patient presents with acute back pain, loss of height and kyphosis. From what is she suffering?
|
Vertebral crush fractures
2010-375 |
|
Which therapy for osteoporosis is considered controversial due to risk of serious side effects?
|
Estrogen replacement therapy
2010-375 |
|
Name two methods of osteoporosis prophylaxis.
|
Exercise and calcium supplementation before age 30 years
2010-375 |
|
In patients with osteopetrosis, is the serum phosphate level high, normal, or low?
|
Normal
2010-375 |
|
In patients with osteopetrosis, is the serum calcium level high, normal, or low?
|
Normal
2010-375 |
|
A failure of normal bone resorption that leads to thickened, dense bones is a description of which disorder?
|
Osteopetrosis
2010-375 |
|
What neurologic lesions may result from osteopetrosis?
|
Cranial nerve palsies due to narrowed foramina in the skull
2010-375 |
|
Osteopetrosis is a bone defect caused by the abnormal function of which cell type?
|
Osteoclasts
2010-375 |
|
In patients with osteopetrosis, is the alkaline phosphatase level high, normal, or low?
|
Normal
2010-375 |
|
A genetic deficiency in carbonic anhydrase II leads to what disease?
|
Osteopetrosis
2010-375 |
|
Name three complications of osteopetrosis due to decreased space for bone marrow.
|
Anemia, thrombocytopenia, and infection
2010-375 |
|
What is the classic x-ray finding in osteopetrosis?
|
"Erlenmeyer flask" bones that flare out
2010-375 |
|
Vitamin D deficiency in adults leads to decreased levels of what important element of bone formation?
|
Calcium
2010-375 |
|
A decreased level of calcium leads to increased levels of what hormone?
|
Parathyroid hormone
2010-375 |
|
In osteomalacia/rickets, phosphate levels are _____ (increased/decreased).
|
Decreased (due to secondary hyperparathyroidism induced by low calcium levels)
2010-375 |
|
Vitamin D deficiency in childhood causes what disorder?
|
Rickets
2010-375 |
|
What is the disorder in which the defective mineralization of osteoid leads to soft bones?
|
Osteomalacia/rickets
2010-375 |
|
In patients with osteitis fibrosa cystica, is the serum calcium level high, low, or normal?
|
High
2010-376 |
|
In patients with osteitis fibrosa cystica, is the serum phosphorus level high, low, or normal?
|
Low
2010-376 |
|
What condition causes osteitis fibrosa cystica?
|
Hyperparathyroidism
2010-376 |
|
In osteitis fibrosa cystica, what are brown tumors?
|
Cystic spaces lined by osteoclasts that are filled with fibrous stroma or blood
2010-376 |
|
In Paget's disease, is there abnormal activity of osteoblasts, osteoclasts, or both?
|
There is abnormal activity of both osteoblasts and osteoclasts
2010-376 |
|
In patients with Paget's disease, is the serum alkaline phosphatase level high, low, or normal?
|
High
2010-376 |
|
Patients with Paget's disease are at increased risk of what type of cancer?
|
Osteogenic sarcoma
2010-376 |
|
In patients with Paget's disease, is the parathyroid hormone level high, low, or normal?
|
Normal
2010-376 |
|
Which disease of the bone is described as abnormal architecture of the bone which is the result of increased osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity?
|
Paget's disease
2010-376 |
|
In patients with Paget's disease, is the serum phosphorus level high, low, or normal?
|
Normal
2010-376 |
|
An individual experiencing hearing loss and increased hat size may suffer from what disorder?
|
Paget's disease (hearing loss is a result of auditory foramen narrowing)
2010-376 |
|
Patients with Paget's disease are at increased risk of what type of fractures?
|
"Chalk stick" fractures of long bones
2010-376 |
|
Patients with Paget's disease are at increased risk of what type of cardiac disease?
|
High-output congestive heart failure (due to increased atrioventricular shunting)
2010-376 |
|
In patients with Paget's disease, is the serum calcium level high, low, or normal?
|
Normal
2010-376 |
|
True or False? Osteopetrosis is characterized by elevated calcium.
|
False; lab values are normal
2010-376 |
|
In osteitis fibrosa cystica, serum calcium levels are _____ (increased/decreased); phosphate levels are _____ (increased/decreased); ALP levels are ____ (increased/decreased) and PTH levels are _____ (increased/decreased).
|
Increased; decreased; increased; increased
2010-376 |
|
In osteomalacia/rickets, serum calcium levels are _____ (increased/decreased), phosphate levels are _____ (increased/decreased) and PTH levels are _____ (increased/decreased).
|
Decreased; decreased; increased
2010-376 |
|
Describe the effect osteopetrosis has on bones.
|
Bones are thickened and dense
2010-376 |
|
What lab value is elevated in Paget's disease?
|
Alkaline phosphatase
2010-376 |
|
What are the dermatologic findings in McCune Albright syndrome?
|
Café-au-lait spots and "coast of Maine" spots
2010-376 |
|
In polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, bone is replaced by what three substances?
|
Fibroblasts, collagen, and irregular bony trabeculae
2010-376 |
|
What is the endocrine abnormality found in patients with McCune-Albright syndrome?
|
Precocious puberty
2010-376 |
|
Which syndrome is a form of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia characterized by unilateral bone involvement, unilateral "coast of Maine" spots, and precocious puberty?
|
McCune-Albright syndrome
2010-376 |
|
Describe the histology of osteoid osteomas.
|
An osteoid osteoma is composed of interlacing trabeculae of woven bone surrounded by osteoblasts
2010-377 |
|
Where are chondrosarcomas usually located?
|
In the pelvis, spine, scapula, humerus, tibia, and femur
2010-377 |
|
What is another name for giant cell tumor?
|
Osteoclastoma (not to be confused with osteoblastoma)
2010-377 |
|
Giant cell tumors have a peak incidence in patients in what age range?
|
20 to 40 years of age
2010-377 |
|
Chondrosarcomas are most common among men who are between what ages?
|
30 to 60 years of age
2010-377 |
|
What is the name of a malignant cartilaginous tumor?
|
Chondrosarcoma
2010-377 |
|
Where are the four most common sites of Ewing's sarcoma?
|
The diaphysis of the long bones, the pelvis, the scapula, and the ribs
2010-377 |
|
Which primary bone tumor has a characteristic "double bubble" or "soap bubble" appearance on x-ray?
|
Giant cell tumor
2010-377 |
|
Histologically, what benign bone tumor can be described as mature bone with a cartilaginous cap?
|
Osteochondroma (exostosis)
2010-377 |
|
What is a benign cartilaginous neoplasm that is found in the intramedullary bone?
|
Enchondroma
2010-377 |
|
_____ _____ is a benign bone tumor most common in men <25 years old and most commonly found in the proximal tibia and femur.
|
Osteoid osteoma
2010-377 |
|
Where are osteosarcomas most commonly found?
|
In the metaphysis of the long bones, especially around the knee
2010-377 |
|
What is the most common primary benign bone tumor?
|
Osteochondroma
2010-377 |
|
How does a chondrosarcoma look on gross exam?
|
As an expansile glistening mass within the medullary cavity
2010-377 |
|
Which malignant primary bone tumor is described as having anaplastic small blue cells?
|
Ewing's sarcoma
2010-377 |
|
What is the second most common primary malignant bone tumor after multiple myeloma?
|
Osteosarcoma
2010-377 |
|
At what age do men usually develop osteochondromas?
|
When they are < 25 years of age
2010-377 |
|
Ewing's sarcoma is very aggressive with early _____, but it is responsive to chemotherapy.
|
Metastases
2010-377 |
|
Which bone tumor is described as a locally aggressive benign tumor that is often seen in the distal femur or the proximal tibia?
|
Giant cell tumor
2010-377 |
|
What is another name for osteochondroma?
|
Exostosis
2010-377 |
|
Osteochondromas rarely transform into which type of malignancy?
|
Chondrosarcoma
2010-377 |
|
What is Codman's triangle?
|
X-ray findings of elevation of the periosteum, which is classic for osteosarcoma
2010-377 |
|
From where do osteochondromas most commonly originate?
|
Metaphysis of long bones
2010-377 |
|
What four factors predispose to osteosarcoma?
|
Paget's disease of bone, bone infarcts, radiation, and familial retinoblastomas
2010-377 |
|
What is the histopathologic appearance of giant cell tumors?
|
Spindle-shaped cells and multinucleated giant cells
2010-377 |
|
A chondrosarcoma may be of primary origin or may occur as a result of what?
|
An osteochondroma with malignant transformation
2010-377 |
|
The incidence of osteosarcoma peaks in males in what age range?
|
10 to 20 years of age
2010-377 |
|
What genetic change is associated with Ewing's sarcoma?
|
11;22 Translocation
2010-377 |
|
Which benign bone tumor is associated with Gardner's syndrome?
|
Osteoma
2010-377 |
|
What is the classic radiographic appearance of bone in Ewing's sarcoma?
|
It has an "onion-skin" appearance
2010-377 |
|
How do osteoblastomas differ from osteoid osteomas?
|
Although the two have the same morphology, osteoid osteomas are < 2 cm and found in the proximal tibia and femur, whereas osteoblastomas are larger and found in the vertebral column
2010-377 |
|
Where are enchondromas generally found?
|
Distal extremities
2010-377 |
|
Patients of what sex and age are predisposed to Ewing's sarcoma?
|
Males younger than 15 years of age
2010-377 |
|
Which type of tumor causes the formation of Codman's triangle?
|
Osteosarcoma
2010-378 |
|
Benign _____ and malignant _____ are found in the metaphysis of bone.
|
Osteochondromas; osteosarcomas
2010-378 |
|
Benign _____ _____ and malignant _____ _____ are found in the diaphysis of bone.
|
Osteoid osteomas; Ewing's sarcoma
2010-378 |
|
Benign _____ and malignant _____ are found in the intramedullary part of bone.
|
Enchondromas; chondrosarcomas
2010-378 |
|
Osteoclastomas (giant cell tumors) are found in the _____ (epiphysis/metaphysis/diaphysis/intramedullary) part of long bones.
|
Epiphysis
2010-378 |
|
"Soap bubble" tumors are also known as?
|
Giant cell tumor
2010-378 |
|
What are Heberden's nodes?
|
Calcific spurs of the articular cartilage at the distal interphalangeal joint characteristic of osteoarthritis
2010-378 |
|
Pain in weight-bearing joints after use that improves with rest is a classic presentation of which type of arthritis?
|
Osteoarthritis
2010-378 |
|
Name three risk factors for the development of osteoarthritis.
|
Age, obesity, and joint deformity
2010-378 |
|
In osteoarthritis of the knees, cartilage loss begins where, leading to what finding?
|
Medial aspect of the knee, leading to a "bowlegged" appearance
2010-378 |
|
What pathologic changes of bone are found in osteoarthritis?
|
Histologically, subchondral cysts, sclerosis, thickened capsule, and slight synovial hypertrophy are found in osteoarthritis
2010-378 |
|
Systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise are _____ (present/absent) in osteoarthritis.
|
Absent; osteoarthritis is not associated with systemic symptoms
2010-378 |
|
In osteoarthritis, the wear and tear of joints leads to the destruction of what?
|
Articular cartilage
2010-378 |
|
What are Bouchard's nodes?
|
Calcific spurs of the articular cartilage at the proximal interphalangeal joint
2010-378 |
|
What joint finding is pathognomonic in rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Pannus formation in the joints
2010-379 |
|
Rheumatoid arthritis has a strong association with which human leukocyte antigen complex?
|
Human leukocyte antigen DR4
2010-379 |
|
Is rheumatoid arthritis more prevalent in males or females?
|
Females
2010-379 |
|
Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by what symptoms other than arthritis?
|
Morning stiffness improving with use, symmetric joint involvement, and systemic symptoms (fever, fatigue, pleuritis, pericarditis)
2010-379 |
|
What dermatologic finding is seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Subcutaneous nodules
2010-379 |
|
_____ cysts are associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
|
Baker's cysts, which are located behind the knee
2010-379 |
|
Is the joint involvement in rheumatoid arthritis unilateral or symmetric?
|
Symmetric
2010-379 |
|
What are the histologic findings in rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Bone and cartilage erosion, increased synovial fluid, and pannus formation
2010-379 |
|
Which type of joint is affected by rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Synovial joints
2010-379 |
|
In the hand, which two joints are most affected in rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints
2010-379 |
|
What kind of problem is rheumatoid arthritis: mechanical or autoimmune?
|
Autoimmune
2010-379 |
|
Name the finger joint spared in rheumatoid arthritis.
|
Distal interphalangeal joints
2010-379 |
|
What serologic test is less sensitive but more specific for rheumatoid arthritis than rheumatoid factor?
|
Anticyclic citrullinated peptide
2010-379 |
|
Do the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis improve or worsen with use?
|
Morning stiffness is associated with rheumatoid arthritis and improves with use
2010-379 |
|
What physical exam finding is characterized by flexed distal interphalangeal joints and overextended proximal interphalangeal joints?
|
Swan-neck deformity
2010-379 |
|
_____ deviation of the fingers is associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
|
Ulnar
2010-379 |
|
Eighty percent of patients with rheumatoid arthritis have what serologic finding?
|
Rheumatoid factor (anti-immunoglobulin G antibodies)
2010-379 |
|
What physical exam finding is characterized by overextended distal interphalangeal joints and flexed proximal interphalangeal joints?
|
Boutonniere deformity
2010-379 |
|
Rheumatoid factor is an antibody against what type of molecule?
|
Immunoglobulin G
2010-379 |
|
Sjögren's syndrome is characterized by which triad of signs and symptoms?
|
Xerophthalmia (dry eyes and conjunctivitis), xerostomia (dry mouth and dysphagia), and arthritis
2010-379 |
|
A 55-year-old woman complains of a myriad of symptoms including dry eyes, dry mouth, nasal and vaginal dryness, chronic bronchitis, and reflux esophagitis. She denies any arthritic symptoms. What diagnosis can explain this constellation of symptoms?
|
Sicca syndrome
2010-379 |
|
Individuals with Sjögren's syndrome have an increased risk of what type of cancer?
|
B-cell lymphoma
2010-379 |
|
Which serologic findings are characteristic of Sjögren's syndrome?
|
Antiribonucleoprotein antibodies; also known as anti-Ro and anti-La or SS-A and SS-B
2010-379 |
|
Sjögren's syndrome typically affects which demographic?
|
Females 40 to 60 years of age
2010-379 |
|
Individuals with Sjögren's syndrome are at increased risk for which dental condition?
|
Caries, due to decreased production of saliva
2010-379 |
|
What is the name of the painful metatarsophalangeal joint found in the big toe of a patient with gout?
|
Podagra
2010-380 |
|
Is gout more common in men or women?
|
Men
2010-380 |
|
Gout occurs from the precipitation of _____ _____ crystals into the joints as a result of hyperuricemia.
|
Monosodium urate
2010-380 |
|
Are joints affected by gout in a symmetric or asymmetric pattern?
|
Asymmetric
2010-380 |
|
Which inborn errors of metabolism can predispose to gout?
|
Lesch Nyhan and Von Gierke's disease
2010-380 |
|
Thiazide diuretics inhibit the excretion of _____ _____, leading to increased risk of gout.
|
Uric acid
2010-380 |
|
What are two common triggers of acute gout?
|
Consumption of alcohol (alcohol metabolites compete with uric acid for excretion sites in kidney, causing reduced uric acid secretion and buildup in blood) or a large meal
2010-380 |
|
In patients with gout, tophi often form on which areas of the body?
|
External ear, olecranon bursa, Achilles tendon
2010-380 |
|
The crystals in gout are _____ (positively/negatively) birefringent and _____ (needle/rhomboid)-shaped.
|
Negatively; needle
2010-380 |
|
Name four treatments for gout.
|
Allopurinol, probenecid, colchicine, and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs
2010-380 |
|
In pseudogout, are the crystals positively or negatively birefringent?
|
Weakly positively birefringent
2010-380 |
|
Pseudogout tends to affect predominantly the _____ (large/small) joints.
|
Pseudogout affects large joints (classically the knee)
2010-380 |
|
Are men or women more affected by pseudogout?
|
Both are equally affected
2010-380 |
|
While in gout crystals are yellow when _____ (perpendicular/parallel) to the light of the microscope, in pseudogout crystals are yellow when _____ (perpendicular/parallel) to the light of the microscope.
|
Parallel; perpendicular
2010-380 |
|
Pseudogout is caused by the deposition of _____ _____ crystals within the joint space.
|
Calcium pyrophosphate
2010-380 |
|
Pseudogout tends to affect people who are more than ____ years old.
|
50
2010-380 |
|
Name two diseases that can cause chronic infectious arthritis.
|
Tuberculosis and Lyme disease
2010-380 |
|
Name three organisms that commonly cause septic arthritis.
|
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
2010-380 |
|
Which organism is a common cause of septic arthritis leading to red and painful joints presenting in a monoarticular, migratory, asymmetric pattern?
|
Neisseria gonorrhoeae (remember: STD = Synovitis (eg, knee), Tenosynovitis (eg, hand), and Dermatitis (eg, pustules)
2010-380 |
|
Seronegative spondyloarthropathies are a form of autoimmune arthritis that occurs without a positive _____ _____ in the blood.
|
Rheumatoid factor
2010-381 |
|
True or False? Most individuals with psoriasis are affected with psoriatic arthritis as well.
|
False; fewer than one third of patients with psoriasis are affected by psoriatic arthritis
2010-381 |
|
What is the classic triad of clinical signs and symptoms in Reiter's syndrome?
|
Urethritis, ophthalmologic findings (conjunctivitis and anterior uveitis), and arthritis (remember: "Can't see, can't pee, can't climb a tree")
2010-381 |
|
What are two triggers for Reiter's syndrome?
|
Gastrointestinal infection and chlamydial infection
2010-381 |
|
Do seronegative spondyloarthropathies affect more men or more women?
|
Men
2010-381 |
|
Psoriatic arthritis commonly presents in a(n) _____ (symmetric/asymmetric) pattern.
|
Asymmetric and patchy involvement
2010-381 |
|
In seronegative spondyloarthropathies, there is a strong association with which human leukocyte antigen?
|
Human leukocyte antigen B27
2010-381 |
|
What is the classic triad of clinical signs and symptoms in ankylosing spondylitis?
|
Ankylosis (stiff spine), uveitis, and aortic regurgitation
2010-381 |
|
The physical exam finding of dactylitis ("sausage fingers") and radiologic finding of "pencil-in-cup" deformity are associated with which type of arthritis?
|
Psoriatic arthritis
2010-381 |
|
Patients with systemic lupus erythematosus may be falsely diagnosed with which disease based on serologic testing?
|
False-positive rapid plasma reagin or venereal disease research laboratory tests for syphilis occur as a result of the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies
2010-381 |
|
Which antibody is specific for lupus and predicts a poor prognosis?
|
Anti-double-stranded DNA
2010-381 |
|
Which antibody is specific for lupus but is not prognostic?
|
Anti-Smith antibodies
2010-381 |
|
True or False? Raynaud's phenomenon is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus.
|
True
2010-381 |
|
Which form of endocarditis is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus?
|
Nonbacterial verrucous endocarditis
2010-381 |
|
Systemic lupus erythematosus is most common and severe in which ethnic group: whites, African-Americans, or Asians?
|
African-Americans
2010-381 |
|
In false-positive rapid plasma reagin or venereal disease research laboratory syphilis tests, the antiphospholipid antibody cross-reacts with what substance?
|
Cardiolipin
2010-381 |
|
What are the eleven findings used to make a clinical diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus?
|
For the characteristics of systemic lupus erythematosus, remember I'M DAMN SHARP: Immunoglobulins (anti-double-stranded DNA, anti-Smith, antiphospholipid), Malar rash, Discoid rash, Antinuclear antibody, Mucositis (oropharyngeal ulcers), Neurologic disorders, Serositis (pleuritis, pericarditis), Hematologic disorders, Arthritis, Renal disorders, Photosensitivity
2010-381 |
|
A woman has a rash on her cheeks that involves the bridge of the nose but spares the area below the nasolabial sulcus. What is the name of this rash, and what disease is it most commonly associated with?
|
Malar rash; systemic lupus erythematosus
2010-381 |
|
Which demographic is most commonly affected by lupus?
|
Females 14 to 45 years of age
2010-381 |
|
What abnormal finding could a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus have on chest x-ray?
|
Hilar adenopathy
2010-381 |
|
What are two common causes of death in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus?
|
Renal failure and infection
2010-381 |
|
Which antibody is sensitive for lupus but is not specific?
|
Antinuclear antibodies
2010-381 |
|
In patients with drug-induced lupus, which antibodies are detected?
|
Antihistone antibodies
2010-381 |
|
What is the histopathologic appearance of renal disease in systemic lupus erythematosus?
|
Wire loop lesions, due to immune complex deposition in the glomeruli
2010-381 |
|
Which serologic findings (antibodies) can be positive in patients with lupus?
|
Antinuclear antibodies, anti-double-stranded DNA, anti-Smith antibodies, and antihistone antibodies
2010-381 |
|
Serositis in systemic lupus erythematosus refers to inflammation of which membranes?
|
Pleuritis and pericarditis
2010-381 |
|
In which diseases can a positive antinuclear antibody result be found on serologic testing?
|
Systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjögren's syndrome (and sicca), and scleroderma
2010-381 |
|
What type of lymphadenopathy is associated with sarcoidosis?
|
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
2010-382 |
|
What is the underlying pathology in sarcoidosis?
|
Widespread noncaseating granulomas
2010-382 |
|
What two histopathologic findings are seen in the epithelial granulomas of sarcoidosis?
|
Schaumann bodies and asteroid bodies
2010-382 |
|
What type of lung disease is associated with sarcoidosis: obstructive or restrictive?
|
Restrictive
2010-382 |
|
What is a common finding on the chest x-ray of a patient with sarcoid?
|
Bell's palsy
2010-382 |
|
What type of skin pathology is associated with sarcoidosis?
|
Erythema nodosum
2010-382 |
|
Inflammation of which structures of the head is seen in sarcoidosis?
|
Ocular and parotid gland inflammation
2010-382 |
|
What enzyme levels are elevated in the serum in patients with sarcoidosis?
|
Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme levels
2010-382 |
|
What type of arthritis is associated with sarcoidosis?
|
Rheumatoid arthritis (remember: GRAIN (Gammaglobulinemia, Rheumatoid arthritis, ACE increase, Interstitial fibrosis, Noncaseating granulomas)
2010-382 |
|
What is the treatment for sarcoidosis?
|
Steroids
2010-382 |
|
What specific population is most affected by sarcoidosis?
|
African-American females
2010-382 |
|
Hypercalcemia associated with sarcoidosis occurs because of the increased conversion of what substance into its active form in epithelioid macrophages?
|
Vitamin D
2010-382 |
|
What is the diagnostic procedure for dermatomyositis and polymyositis?
|
Muscle biopsy
2010-382 |
|
Which part of the immune system causes damage in polymyositis?
|
CD8+ T-cell-induced injury to myofibers
2010-382 |
|
Polymyositis most often involves what body part?
|
Shoulders
2010-382 |
|
Dermatomyositis is similar to polymyositis but also involves what skin symptom?
|
Rash (heliotrope, malar and "shawl and face")
2010-382 |
|
Polymyositis involves progressive _____ (proximal/distal) muscle weakness.
|
Proximal
2010-382 |
|
Gottron's papules are symptoms of what disease?
|
Dermatomyositis
2010-382 |
|
Which lab results are abnormal in polymyositis/dermatomyositis?
|
Elevated creatine kinase, elevated aldolase, positive antinuclear antibody, and anti-Jo-1
2010-382 |
|
What is the treatment for polymyositis and dermatomyositis?
|
Steroids are used to treat both disorders
2010-382 |
|
While myasthenia gravis involves autoantibodies against the _____ (presynaptic/postsynaptic) acetylcholine receptors, Lambert-Eaton syndrome involves autoantibodies against the _____ (presynaptic/postsynaptic) calcium channels.
|
Postsynaptic; presynaptic
2010-382 |
|
Lambert-Eaton syndrome leads to _____ (proximal/distal) muscle weakness.
|
Proximal
2010-382 |
|
Name two ophthalmic manifestations of myasthenia gravis.
|
Ptosis and diplopia
2010-382 |
|
True or False? Both myasthenia gravis and Lambert-Eaton syndrome improve with acetylcholinesterase inhibitor use.
|
False; although myasthenia gravis symptoms reverse with the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, there is no reversal in Lambert-Eaton syndrome with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors alone such as edrophonium
2010-382 |
|
Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies to which receptor?
|
Acetylcholine receptors
2010-382 |
|
While the symptoms of myasthenia gravis _____ (improve/worsen) with muscle use, symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome _____ (improve/worsen) with muscle use.
|
Worsen; improve
2010-382 |
|
In contrast to myasthenia gravis, Lambert-Eaton syndrome spares what muscle group?
|
Extraocular muscles
2010-382 |
|
Myasthenia gravis is associated with which type of tumor?
|
Thymoma
2010-382 |
|
Which malignancy is most closely associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome?
|
Small-cell lung cancer
2010-382 |
|
Individuals with myasthenia gravis complain of generalized weakness that is worse in the _____ (morning/evening).
|
In myasthenia gravis, weakness tends to be worse toward the end of the day
2010-382 |
|
Lambert-Eaton syndrome is caused by autoantibodies to which types of ionic channels, leading to a decrease in acetylcholine release?
|
Calcium channels
2010-382 |
|
Patients with mixed connective tissue disease are positive for _____ autoantibodies.
|
U1 ribonucleoprotein
2010-382 |
|
What is the treatment for mixed connective tissue disease?
|
Steroids
2010-382 |
|
What five characteristics are associated with mixed connective tissues diseases?
|
Raynaud's phenomenon, Fatigue, Arthralgias, Myalgias, and Esophageal hypomotility (remember: Raynaud's FAME)
2010-382 |
|
Does scleroderma affect more men or women?
|
Women
2010-383 |
|
What condition involves excessive fibrosis and collagen deposition throughout the body but most commonly under the skin?
|
Scleroderma
2010-383 |
|
What are the two types of scleroderma?
|
Diffuse scleroderma and CREST syndrome
2010-383 |
|
Describe the progression of diffuse scleroderma.
|
Widespread skin involvement, rapid progression, and early visceral involvement
2010-383 |
|
A patient presents for examination. Although middle-aged, she has no wrinkles (denies plastic surgery) and her skin is puffy and taut. She also complains of difficulty swallowing. From what disease is she suffering?
|
Scleroderma
2010-383 |
|
Skin involvement in CREST syndrome is often confined to which two areas of the body?
|
Fingers and face
2010-383 |
|
Diffuse scleroderma is associated with which antibody?
|
Anti-Scl-70 antibody (anti-DNA topoisomerase I antibody)
2010-383 |
|
Which has a more benign course: diffuse scleroderma or CREST syndrome?
|
CREST syndrome
2010-383 |
|
Although scleroderma most commonly affects the skin, what four other organ systems can it affect?
|
Cardiovascular, pulmonary, gastrointestinal, and renal
2010-383 |
|
What does CREST stand for?
|
Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia
2010-383 |
|
Which antibody is associated with CREST syndrome?
|
Anticentromere antibody (remember: C for CREST)
2010-383 |
|
Rhabdomyosarcomas often arise from skeletal muscle from what two locations in the body?
|
Head and neck
2010-383 |
|
Rhabdomyoma of the heart is associated with which genetic disease?
|
Tuberous sclerosis
2010-383 |
|
Rhabdomyoma is a benign tumor derived from what kind of muscle?
|
Striated (skeletal or cardiac) muscle
2010-383 |
|
What is the most common malignant soft tissue tumor of childhood?
|
Rhabdomyosarcoma
2010-383 |
|
While lipomas are _____ (benign/malignant) in nature, liposarcomas are _____ (benign/malignant).
|
Benign; malignant
2010-383 |
|
What is a lipoma?
|
A soft, well-encapsulated tumor derived from fat
2010-383 |
|
True or False? Lipoma recurrences are common even after excision.
|
False; simple excision of lipomas is usually curative
2010-383 |
|
An increased thickness of the stratum corneum is known as _____.
|
Hyperkeratosis
2010-383 |
|
_____ (Macules/Patches) are flat discolorations of the skin <1 cm in size, while _____ (macules/patches) represent a similar lesion except they are > 1 cm in size.
|
Macules; patches
2010-383 |
|
Hives are an example of what type of dermatologic lesion?
|
Wheal
2010-383 |
|
Tinea versicolor is an example of what type of dermatologic lesion?
|
Macule
2010-383 |
|
Chickenpox is an example of what type of dermatologic lesion?
|
Vesicle
2010-383 |
|
Pemphigus vulgaris causes which pathologic change of the epidermis?
|
Acantholysis
2010-383 |
|
Psoriasis causes what gross and microscopic dermatologic lesions?
|
Plaques, parakeratosis and hyperkeratosis
2010-383 |
|
Dried exudate from a vesicle, bulla, or pustule is called a _____.
|
Crust
2010-383 |
|
_____ (Papules/Plaques) are elevated skin lesions < 1 cm in size, while _____ (papules/plaques) represent a similar lesion but are > 1 cm in size.
|
Papules; plaques
2010-383 |
|
Which phenomenon describes hyperkeratosis with retention of nuclei in stratum corneum, as seen in psoriasis?
|
Parakeratosis
2010-383 |
|
Acne vulgaris is an example of what type of dermatologic lesion?
|
Papule
2010-383 |
|
What is the medical term for a blister containing pus?
|
Pustule
2010-383 |
|
What irregular, raised lesion results from scar tissue hypertrophy following trauma to skin, especially in African-Americans?
|
Keloid
2010-383 |
|
While acantholysis is the _____ (hyperplasia/separation) of epidermal cells, acanthosis represents epidermal _____ (hyperplasia/separation).
|
Separation; hyperplasia
2010-383 |
|
Which dermatologic term describes a transient vesicle?
|
Wheal
2010-383 |
|
_____ (Bullae/Vesicles) are small fluid-containing blisters, while _____ (bullae/vesicles) are large fluid-containing blisters.
|
Vesicles; bullae
2010-383 |
|
A parents calls the pediatrician because her newborn has a fever and rash. Every time she picks the baby up, it seems like her skin peels off. From what is the baby suffering?
|
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
2010-384 |
|
Hairy leukoplakia is associated with which underlying medical condition?
|
HIV infection
2010-384 |
|
Allergic contact dermatitis is a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction that follows exposure to an allergen.
|
IV
2010-384 |
|
What developmental failure can result in albinism?
|
Failure of neural crest cell migration during development
2010-384 |
|
Acanthosis with parakeratotic scaling that is particularly found on knees and elbows is called what?
|
Psoriasis
2010-384 |
|
A patient presents with large bullae. On exam, there is epidermal separation on stroking of the lesion. What is this sign called and from what disorder is this patient suffering?
|
Positive Nikolsky's sign; the patient has pemphigus vulgaris
2010-384 |
|
Which autoimmune blistering skin disorder affects the skin but not the oral mucosa?
|
Bullous pemphigoid
2010-384 |
|
A freckle, a lesion that results from increased melanin pigment, is also known as _____.
|
Ephelis
2010-384 |
|
In albinism, melanocyte number is _____ (increased/decreased/unchanged), while in vitiligo melanocyte number is _____ (increased/decreased/unchanged).
|
Unchanged (ie normal); decreased
2010-384 |
|
Hives, also known as _____, are pruritic wheals that form secondary to degranulation of what type of cell?
|
Urticaria; mast cells
2010-384 |
|
Which virus causes hairy leukoplakia?
|
Epstein-Barr virus
2010-384 |
|
True or False? A positive Nikolsky's sign is common in both pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid.
|
False; patients with bullous pemphigoid have a negative Nikolsky's sign
2010-384 |
|
A patient presents with bullae sparing the oral mucosa. From what disease is she suffering?
|
Bullous pemphigoid
2010-384 |
|
Which infectious superficial skin infection is commonly characterized by "honey-colored" crusting?
|
Impetigo
2010-384 |
|
Cellulitis, an acute painful spreading infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues, is most commonly caused by which two organisms?
|
Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
2010-384 |
|
An increased stratum spinosum and a decreased stratum granulosum is seen with which skin disorder?
|
Psoriasis
2010-384 |
|
A woman develops plaques and papules with silvery scaling on her elbows and knees. Pinpoint bleeding occurs when a scale is removed. What is the name of the sign describing the latter phenomenon? What is the most likely diagnosis?
|
Auspitz sign; psoriasis
2010-384 |
|
Which bacteria cause necrotizing fasciitis?
|
Anaerobic bacteria and Streptococcus pyogenes
2010-384 |
|
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is caused by a bacterial product called an _____ that destroys the keratinocyte attachments in the stratum _____ only.
|
Exotoxin; granulosum
2010-384 |
|
True or False? Hairy leukoplakia is described as white painless plaques on the tongue that can be easily scraped off.
|
False; hairy leukoplakia is characterized by white plaques on the tongue that cannot be scraped off
2010-384 |
|
In albinism, decreased melanin production is due to what?
|
Decreased activity of tyrosinase
2010-384 |
|
Which blistering autoimmune skin disorder is most severe?
|
Pemphigus vulgaris
2010-384 |
|
Name the deep tissue infection caused by "flesh-eating" bacteria that results in crepitus due to bacterial production of carbon dioxide and methane.
|
Necrotizing fasciitis
2010-384 |
|
Atopic dermatitis is often associated with which two other atopic diseases?
|
Asthma and allergic rhinitis
2010-384 |
|
Condyloma acuminatum, or genital warts, are caused by what virus?
|
Human papillomavirus
2010-384 |
|
In the case of atopic dermatitis (eczema), pruritic eruption takes place on which surfaces of the body?
|
Flexor surfaces
2010-384 |
|
What is the difference in the appearance of bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris on immunofluorescence?
|
Bullous pemphigoid demonstrates linear immunofluorescence whereas pemphigus vulgaris reveals antibodies around cells of the epidermis in a reticular or netlike pattern
2010-384 |
|
Which skin disorder is described as flat, pigmented, squamous epithelial proliferation with keratin-filled cysts?
|
Seborrheic keratosis
2010-384 |
|
How does vitiligo appear clinically?
|
As irregular areas of complete skin depigmentation
2010-384 |
|
While in bullous pemphigoid immunoglobulin G antibody is directed against the _____, in pemphigus vulgaris immunoglobulin G antibody is directed against the _____.
|
Hemidesmosomes (epidermal basement membrane); desmosomes
2010-384 |
|
Warts found on the hands are referred to as _____ _____, while warts found on the genitals are called _____ _____.
|
Verruca vulgaris; condyloma acuminatum
2010-384 |
|
Another name for warts, _____ are soft, tan-colored, cauliflower-like lesions of the skin.
|
Verrucae
2010-384 |
|
What is the Sign of Leser-Trélat?
|
The sudden appearance of multiple seborrheic keratoses indicating underlying malignancy
2010-384 |
|
Name three histopathologic findings in verrucae.
|
Epidermal hyperplasia, hyperkeratosis, and koilocytosis
2010-384 |
|
Melasma, or skin hyperpigmentation, is associated with what two situations?
|
Pregnancy and oral contraceptive use
2010-384 |
|
Patients with bullous pemphigoid have what cell type within blisters?
|
Eosinophils
2010-384 |
|
Name two organisms that commonly cause impetigo.
|
Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
2010-384 |
|
What is the lay term for a nevocellular nevus, a benign lesion?
|
Mole
2010-384 |
|
Which skin disorder presents with multiple types of lesions, including macules, papules, vesicles, and target lesions?
|
Erythema multiforme
2010-385 |
|
At what age does strawberry hemangioma typically regress?
|
5 to 8 years of age
2010-385 |
|
Which skin disorder involves pruritic, purple, and polygonal papules?
|
Lichen planus
2010-385 |
|
Which syndrome is characterized by high fever, bulla formation, necrosis, ulceration of the skin, and a high mortality rate?
|
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
2010-385 |
|
List four causes of erythema multiforme.
|
Infection (Mycoplasma pneumoniae, HSV), drugs, cancers, and autoimmune disease
2010-385 |
|
Dermatitis herpetiformis is associated with pruritic papules and vesicles and deposits of what at the tips of dermal papillae?
|
Immunoglobulin A
2010-385 |
|
Stevens-Johnson syndrome usually has what etiology?
|
Drug reaction
2010-385 |
|
Name two clinical conditions that are associated with acanthosis nigricans.
|
Hyperlipidemia (ie., from Cushing's disease, diabetes) and hyperinsulinemia
2010-385 |
|
Cherry hemangiomas _____ (do/do not) regress spontaneously.
|
Do not
2010-385 |
|
With what disease processes is erythema nodosum associated?
|
Coccidioidomycosis, histoplasmosis, tuberculosis, leprosy, streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis
2010-385 |
|
What skin condition is associated with celiac disease?
|
Dermatitis herpetiformis
2010-385 |
|
A more severe form of Steven-Johnson syndrome is known as what?
|
Toxic epidermal necrolysis
2010-385 |
|
In what stage of life is strawberry hemangioma seen?
|
During the first few weeks of life
2010-385 |
|
Erythema nodosum is characterized by inflammatory lesions of subcutaneous fat located on which part of the body?
|
Anterior shins
2010-385 |
|
At what age do cherry hemangiomas appear?
|
30 to 49 years of age
2010-385 |
|
What infectious disease is associated with lichen planus?
|
Hepatitis C
2010-385 |
|
What kind of lesion is actinic keratosis: malignant, benign, or premalignant?
|
Premalignant
2010-385 |
|
Which skin disorder is described as small, rough, erythematous, or brownish papules?
|
Actinic keratosis
2010-385 |
|
What skin disorder is characterized by a "herald patch" followed by a "Christmas tree" distribution of lesions?
|
Pityriasis rosea
2010-385 |
|
Describe the appearance and course of pityriasis rosea.
|
Multiple papular eruptions with spontaneous remissions
2010-385 |
|
Where are basal cell carcinomas most commonly found?
|
On sun-exposed areas of the body
2010-386 |
|
Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with what environmental exposures?
|
Sunlight and arsenic
2010-386 |
|
Does squamous cell carcinoma metastasize rarely or commonly?
|
Rarely
2010-386 |
|
What aspect of a melanoma correlates best with the risk of metastases?
|
Depth of invasion
2010-386 |
|
Describe the physical appearance of melanoma on exam.
|
Dark with irregular borders
2010-386 |
|
Basal cell carcinomas are locally invasive but almost never _____.
|
Metastasize
2010-386 |
|
Where does squamous cell carcinoma most commonly occur?
|
Hands and face
2010-386 |
|
What tumor marker is associated with melanoma?
|
S-100
2010-386 |
|
What is the histopathologic finding in squamous cell carcinoma?
|
Keratin "pearls"
2010-386 |
|
Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with what chronic condition?
|
Associated with chronic draining sinuses in the skin
2010-386 |
|
Basal cell tumors have "_____" nuclei seen on histology.
|
Palisading
2010-386 |
|
What is the gross appearance of basal cell carcinomas?
|
Pearly papules
2010-386 |
|
What lesion is a precursor of melanoma?
|
Dysplastic nevus (atypical mole)
2010-386 |
|
A bald male patient presents with a lesion on the crown of his head. It has rolled edges with central ulceration. What type of cancer does he have?
|
Basal cell tumor
2010-386 |
|
What is the gross appearance of squamous cell carcinoma?
|
Ulcerative red lesion
2010-386 |
|
Keratoacanthoma is a variant of squamous cell carcinoma with what growth pattern?
|
Rapid growth (4-6 weeks) and spontaneous regression (4-8 weeks)
2010-386 |
|
What is a common precursor lesion to squamous cell carcinoma?
|
Actinic keratosis
2010-386 |
|
What drug inhibits the enzyme lipoxygenase?
|
Zileuton
2010-387 |
|
Within the arachidonic acid cascade, what two enzymes use arachidonic acid as their substrate?
|
Lipoxygenase and cyclooxygenase
2010-387 |
|
Name four effects of prostaglandins on the body.
|
Prostaglandins cause a decrease in vascular tone, increase in pain, increase in uterine tone, increase in temperature
2010-387 |
|
What is the first step of the arachidonic acid pathway?
|
Membrane lipids are converted to arachidonic acid by phospholipase A2
2010-387 |
|
Cyclooxygenase directly converts arachidonic acid into what category of compounds resulting in what two products?
|
Endoperoxides; prostaglandins G and H
2010-387 |
|
What effect does prostacyclin (PGI2) have on the vasculature?
|
Promotes vasodilation
2010-387 |
|
Hydroperoxides are the precursors of what class of arachidonic acid products?
|
Leukotrienes
2010-387 |
|
Zileuton inhibits the conversion of _____ to _____.
|
arachidonic acid to hydroperoxides
2010-387 |
|
List two drugs that inhibit leukotrienes from producing an increase in bronchial tone.
|
Zafirlukast and montelukast
2010-387 |
|
What effect do leukotrienes C4, D4, and E4 have on the bronchi and the bronchioles?
|
Bronchoconstriction
2010-387 |
|
Which arachidonic acid product is a neutrophil chemotactic agent?
|
Leukotriene B4 (remember: Neutrophils arrive "B4" others)
2010-387 |
|
What effect do leukotrienes C4, D4, and E4 have on the vasculature?
|
Vasoconstriction and increase vascular permeability
2010-387 |
|
Name three effects of prostacyclin.
|
Prostacyclin decreases platelet aggregation, causes vasodilation and decreases uterine tone
2010-387 |
|
What does the lipoxygenase pathway of the arachidonic acid pathway yield?
|
Leukotrienes (remember: L for Lipoxygenase and Leukotrienes)
2010-387 |
|
What effect does prostacyclin (PGI2) have on platelets?
|
Inhibits platelet aggregation (remember Platelet-Gathering Inhibitor)
2010-387 |
|
Endoperoxides are the precursors of what three arachidonic acid products?
|
Prostacyclin, prostaglandins, and thromboxane
2010-387 |
|
What are the two mechanisms of action of steroids on the arachidonic acid pathway?
|
Steroids inhibit the action of phospholipase and inhibit the synthesis of cyclooxygenases
2010-387 |
|
Aspirin _____ (reversibly/irreversibly) inhibits cyclooxygenase.
|
Irreversibly
2010-387 |
|
At what dose does aspirin have antiinflammatory properties?
|
High dose; 2400-4000 mg/day
2010-387 |
|
What syndrome can develop in children with viral illnesses who are given aspirin?
|
Reye's syndrome
2010-387 |
|
Chronic use of aspirin can cause what three problems?
|
Acute renal failure, interstitial nephritis, and upper gastrointestinal bleeding
2010-387 |
|
What is a common toxicity of aspirin use?
|
Gastric upset
2010-387 |
|
Aspirin causes a decrease in synthesis of what two products?
|
Thromboxane and prostaglandins
2010-387 |
|
At what dose does aspirin have antipyretic and analgesic properties?
|
Intermediate dose; 300-2400 mg/day
2010-387 |
|
At what dose does aspirin cause decreased platelet aggregation?
|
Low-dose; < 300 mg/day
2010-387 |
|
What four toxicities are associated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs?
|
Renal damage, aplastic anemia, gastrointestinal distress, and ulcers
2010-387 |
|
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs work by reversibly inhibiting what substance?
|
Cyclooxygenase
2010-387 |
|
Name four examples of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.
|
Ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin, and ketorolac
2010-387 |
|
Do ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin, and ketorolac inhibit cyclooxygenase-1, cyclooxygenase-2, or both?
|
Both
2010-387 |
|
Which nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug is used to close a patent ductus arteriosus?
|
Indomethacin
2010-387 |
|
What are the three effects of administration of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs?
|
They are antipyretics, analgesics, and antiinflammatory agents
2010-387 |
|
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs block the synthesis of what substance?
|
Prostaglandins
2010-387 |
|
There is an increased risk of _____ when taking cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors.
|
Thrombosis
2010-388 |
|
How do cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors differ from other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs?
|
Reversibly inhibit cyclooxygenase-2, found in inflammatory cells and vascular endothelium, mediates inflammation and pain; unlike nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs, it spares cyclooxygenase-1
2010-388 |
|
Individuals with an allergy to _____ should avoid taking cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors.
|
Sulfa
2010-388 |
|
What are the two clinical indications for using cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors?
|
To treat rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis
2010-388 |
|
Explain the mechanism by which cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors help maintain the gastric mucosa.
|
Cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors do not affect the cyclooxygenase-1 enzymes that produce the prostaglandins that protect the gastric mucosa
2010-388 |
|
Acetaminophen has antipyretic and analgesic activities but lacks what other property that is common to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs?
|
Antiinflammatory properties
2010-388 |
|
What are the physiologic effects of an acetaminophen overdose?
|
Hepatic necrosis
2010-388 |
|
What is the antidote to acetaminophen toxicity?
|
N-acetylcysteine; regenerates glutathione depleted by acetaminophen overdose
2010-388 |
|
Acetaminophen's metabolite depletes what reducing substance in hepatic cells?
|
Glutathione
2010-388 |
|
Acetaminophen reversibly inhibits what substance in the central nervous system?
|
Cyclooxygenase
2010-388 |
|
True or False? Acetaminophen has antiinflammatory activity.
|
False; acetaminophen is an nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug without antiinflammatory activity
2010-388 |
|
Aspirin is a Nonsteroidal Antiinflammatory Drug with what additional activity?
|
Antiplatelet activity
2010-388 |
|
Name three clinical indications for use of bisphosphonates.
|
Malignancy-associated hypercalcemia, Paget's disease of bone, postmenopausal osteoporosis
2010-388 |
|
Name four bisphosphonates.
|
Etidronate, pamidronate, alendronate, and risedronate
2010-388 |
|
What is the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates?
|
Inhibit osteoclastic activity
2010-388 |
|
Name the three major toxicities of bisphosphonates.
|
Corrosive esophagitis, nausea, and diarrhea
2010-388 |
|
Which treatment for gout inhibits xanthine oxidase, which decreases the conversion of xanthine oxidase into uric acid?
|
Allopurinol
2010-388 |
|
Which two reactions are inhibited by allopurinol and catalyzed by xanthine oxidase?
|
Conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine and conversion of xanthine to uric acid
2010-388 |
|
Which treatment for gout inhibits xanthine oxidase and is used to prevent tumor-lysis-associated urate nephropathy in individuals with lymphomas and leukemias?
|
Allopurinol
2010-388 |
|
Which two drugs inhibit the tubular reabsorption of uric acid?
|
Probenecid and high-dose salicylates
2010-388 |
|
Which medication is used more often to treat acute gout because it causes less toxicity than colchicine?
|
Indomethacin
2010-388 |
|
Which two drugs inhibit the tubular secretion of uric acid?
|
Diuretics and low-dose salicylates
2010-388 |
|
Is colchicine used to treat chronic gout or acute gout?
|
Acute gout
2010-388 |
|
Is probenecid used to treat chronic gout or acute gout?
|
Chronic gout
2010-388 |
|
Which medication for gout inhibits the reabsorption of uric acid and the secretion of penicillin?
|
Probenecid
2010-388 |
|
Colchicine has adverse effects related to which organ system, especially when taken orally?
|
The gastrointestinal system
2010-388 |
|
Is allopurinol used to treat chronic gout or acute gout?
|
Chronic gout
2010-388 |
|
What substance is converted to uric acid for excretion from the body? What are the intermediates?
|
Purines; hypoxanthine and xanthine
2010-388 |
|
Allopurinol causes increased serum levels of which drugs if taken concurrently?
|
Azathioprine and 6-MP; both normally metabolized by xanthine oxidase, which is inhibited by allopurinol
2010-388 |
|
What drug should not be used to treat gout?
|
Salicylates, which depress uric acid clearance
2010-388 |
|
Which medication used for gout depolymerizes microtubules, thereby impairing leukocyte chemotaxis and degranulation?
|
Colchicine
2010-388 |
|
What is the mechanism of action of infliximab?
|
Anti-tumor necrosis factor antibody (remember: INFLIXimab INFLIX pain on TNF)
2010-* |
|
A patient with Crohn's disease presents for treatment with infliximab. What infection does the physician worry about reactivating?
|
Latent tuberculosis
2010-* |
|
Name the drug with the following mechanism: recombinant form of human tumor necrosis factor receptor that binds tumor necrosis factor.
|
Etanercept (remember: EtanerCEPT is a TNF decoy reCEPTor)
2010-* |
|
List three clinical uses for adalimumab.
|
Rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and ankylosing spondylitis
2010-* |
|
List three clinical uses for infliximab.
|
Crohn's disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and ankylosing spondylitis
2010-* |
|
Name the drug with the following mechanism: directly binds tumor necrosis factor receptor sites.
|
Adalimumab
2010-* |
|
List three clinical uses for etanercept.
|
Rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and ankylosing spondylitis
2010-* |