The Merchant of Venice, written around 1594, was, continues to be, and always will be a highly discussed book in many academic communities. It is known to many as a play but for those who have studied it, the book is a political statement. It’s a revolutionary work meant to influence the minds of thousands. But what opinion was Shakespeare trying to plant in the minds of those who would experience his writing first hand? Could it have been one of anti-Semitism like many believe? Was he possibly trying to evoke sympathy for the Jewish community, or was it possibly about neither and were the anti-Semitic undertones simply subconscious? Anti-Semitism is defined as hostility, discrimination, or prejudice toward Jews. Shylock 's introduction, when he is first referred to as “A Jew” and nothing else, is the first, but certainly not the last, evidence of anti-Semitic language in the play. Contrary to popular belief, his language is not a major theme.
