Why Is Slavery Immoral

The performance of slavery in many prominent cultures in the West and Europe is deemed almost immoral by most. This will be briefly proven through philosophers such as Sartre Mappes, and Kant. The focus instead will be to verify that not only slavery being immoral and unjust, but rather the act of association with slavery. Countries purchasing from these areas that are using blood diamond workers are also committing immoral acts, that are contributing to slavery and acknowledging the use of slaves, therefore with their understanding of the use of slavery and not stopping and condoning such acts, their actions coincide with the acts of slavery. The first act that must be taken is to explain why slavery is immoral, even if it is a nearly universal law that slavery is immoral. The word “slave” by definition is owned by another and forced …show more content…
By this definition, it is presumed that the person being forced to obey has his or her choice being threatened and that they are being used as means. This can be proven to be immoral by the Kantian Principle. Mappes uses this in his argument against using another human that this action morally wrong. “According to a fundamental Kantian principle, it is morally wrong for A to use B merely as a means (to achieve A’s ends).” Another reason that the act of slavery is immoral is due to absence of choice. Choice, provided by Existentialism, is determined by a person’s own will and is defined through the free choices they make. However, if ones free will and choice is taken away by threat, then this act would be deemed immoral. The limitation of choice is not the only reason slavery would be seen as immoral. One can assume that under the circumstances where the slaver becomes the slave, their thoughts about slavery would change due to experiences such circumstances. Sartre explains this by