What Does Kant's Categorical Imperative Mean

According to Immanuel Kant, “All the objects of inclination have only a conditioned value; for if there were not these inclinations and the needs grounded on them, their objects would be valueless. Inclinations themselves, as sources of needs, are so far from having an absolute value to make them desirable for their own sake that it must rather be the universal wish of every rational being to be wholly free from them. Kant states humans are rational beings or agents, so therefore they also have to contain rational morality. Thus, stating that a rational agent is a person who is capable of moving him/herself to act on reason. Kant believes that a universal moral principle is at play and that’s why a person’s action is based on reason not desires or pleasures, which leads to his Categorical Imperative. Kant’s categorical Imperative means or explains that a people should act only on that reason or decision through which you can at the same time will that it …show more content…
It is for them alone to pint out what we ought to do, as well as determine what we shall do.” Benedict states two sovereign masters, means controlling entity or being. Benedict is claiming that pain and pleasure is that thing that controls us, which pushes us to the way we act and behave. Bentham argues this along with the fact of utilitarian’s act in a way in which will utilize the greatest amount of pleasure among people. Meaning people seek pleasure for mostly everything them do, and despise pain. Though what a person may do is for their good but may end up hurting another in the process. Bentham also thinks that there is no evil, there’s a reason behind why a person did what they did in turn, it’s for themselves or someone else’s sake. Some will feel pain for what we do others will feel pleasure; some may feel both, this come with what indulges from pain and