Nikita did have enough power to construct such a hit, there were Soviet spies in America living, talking and acting like United States citizens. Oswald was said to be one of those spies that worked for Khrushchev, there was enough evidence to say he worked against the United States because after Oswald served as a marine he moved to Soviet Russia. Did Nikita brainwash Oswald into hating the United States enough to move back and really kill the President. Maybe the Soviets did have something to do with it but the year of Kennedy's death was after the Cold War was over and there was still some heat between Russia and the United States for nuclear warfare so maybe he did not want to risk the chance of a full scale nuclear …show more content…
Kennedy. Maybe our own government killed Kennedy to stop him from running their own plans. Like the CIA, after Kennedy learned of the true meaning of the " Bay of Pigs" he declared that he will cut the CIA into a million pieces and scatter the across the world. So maybe they felt threatened by Kennedy's action that they had to take care of him to insure their survival. And was Lyndon B. Johnson the person who had ordered the hit on Kennedy? Maybe, a few hours after Kennedy was declared dead Johnson ordered for the presidential limo to be remodeled and all evidence to be locked away for 75 years. So why was Oswald accused of the murder of JFK? Because he was the CIAs backboard to blame after the assassination was complete and then no one will know the truth behind the assassination. Some people believe that Oswald did really kill the president, but why did Oswald wait for the limo to turn on Elm St. and not on Houston St where he could have a clear straight shot at the president that if he missed the first time he could get him with a second shot at the intersection of Houston and Elm