Was Germany's Appeasement Justified?

The French and especially British majorly tried to avoid any potential wars after the tragic result of WW1, therefore French and British appeasement of Germany in the inter-war period is slightly justified. In the inter-war years, military spending was made less of a priority for politicians in Britain due to economic problems, demands for spending on social legislation, and particularly the anti-war movement that was occurring at the time. However, Britain became apprehensive when Chancellor of Germany, Adolf Hitler, became determined to rectify the impact of WW1 on their country and ultimately restore Germany to glory and European dominance. Hitler had already dismissed one of the terms of the Treaty of Versailles by rearming his troops, …show more content…
Therefore, the appeasement was deemed to be the only possible solution that could be made to help avoid another possible war. However, the appeasement consequently encouraged the progression to the start of WWII due to German’s and Italy’s recognition that the powers were trying to avoid any further conflict which ultimately allowed them to test their limits. As a result, Germany and Italy assisted the rebels during the Spanish Civil War and in 1938 Germany formed a union with Austria with both instances going ignored. Also, in 1938, Hitler tried to force a union between Germany and Czechoslovakia with the support of Nazis and later threatened war when they had resisted. To help appease Germany to avoid any conflict, Chamberlain in 1938 agreed to give Germany all areas of Czechoslovakia with a German population of more than 50 percent however, Hitler later demanded all the Sudetenland which France and Britain ultimately approved of hoping that their appeasement of Germany helped secure