This rendering seems to make more sense than the “wife” position. If we are to look at 1 Corinthians 7, which is used in defense of the “wife” position, we would understand that it is more about sexual relations within marriage to begin with (v. 2). Furthermore, Paul’s advice to those who are unmarried, widows, married to believers or unbelievers, and virgins in the rest of chapter 7 seems to undermine the “wife” translation of 1 Thessalonians 4.
Whatever side is taken concerning this translation, it is important for the continuity of holiness in regards to sexual behavior be in this text. To control one’s body against sexual immorality, whether in marriage or outside marriage, should be the goal of every …show more content…
Philippians 1:23 has the positive idea of lust merely meaning “desire.” In Romans 1:24 the negative idea of lust is seen as giving oneself into the “lusts of their hearts to impurity.” When it comes to passion, Romans 1:26 offer a negative insight to passion as degrading and Colossians 3:5 is equating passions along with impurity and evil desires in the sense that these things are immoral. The words, “passionate lust”, in verse 5 of 1 Thessalonians 4 are both the negative use that we have seen from the other passages.
In light of this structure, it seems more probable that “passionate lust” is referring to how the idolatrous pagans treated their bodies rather than their wives. In fact, it was seen more as an oddity for Greek or Roman men to be passionately involved with their wives. It also, suffices to say that the structure of the phrase, “passionate lust”, must refer to unbridled sexual desire; a sexual behavior outside of marriage rather than a man’s attitude toward his wife. This, in turn, makes it all the more difficult to see verse 4 as pertaining to one’s own