Why Shakespeare has Hamlet and Ophelia go mad and show signs of insanity
While reading through the Shakespearean composition about Hamlet, the theme that lends itself to further scrutiny is that of deception. Each of the characters in the composition is used in one way or another to develop the theme, and Hamlet and Ophelia are not exceptions to this. For Hamlet, on the one hand, Shakespeare intends to epitomize deception through this character, and the approach he uses is that of feigning madness. When someone pretends to be mad, there is a reason for the pretense. It might be surmised that the individual does so to escape their responsibilities, to avoid being incarcerated for a crime they might have committed, or simply to see how far they can go with the ruse before being revealed as a deceptive person. Nevertheless, an attempt at figuring out the reason …show more content…
It is quite unlikely that one will be told he or she is mad, and the individual acquiesces to such declarations. Most often, they will burst out in a rage with the statement that they are not mad. Deceptive Hamlet, on the other hand, gladly welcomes the suggestions from people who sense a change in the manner in which he behaves, even going as far as preempting them toward his “madness”. While in a conversation with Guildenstem, Hamlet says he is mad “North-North-West” (Shakespeare, 562), making an allusion to the winds bringing on the madness. Ophelia, on the other hand, cannot deny being insane, because during the Renaissance pregnant women were often diagnosed with hysteria (Maki, n.p.) – a form of
While reading through the Shakespearean composition about Hamlet, the theme that lends itself to further scrutiny is that of deception. Each of the characters in the composition is used in one way or another to develop the theme, and Hamlet and Ophelia are not exceptions to this. For Hamlet, on the one hand, Shakespeare intends to epitomize deception through this character, and the approach he uses is that of feigning madness. When someone pretends to be mad, there is a reason for the pretense. It might be surmised that the individual does so to escape their responsibilities, to avoid being incarcerated for a crime they might have committed, or simply to see how far they can go with the ruse before being revealed as a deceptive person. Nevertheless, an attempt at figuring out the reason …show more content…
It is quite unlikely that one will be told he or she is mad, and the individual acquiesces to such declarations. Most often, they will burst out in a rage with the statement that they are not mad. Deceptive Hamlet, on the other hand, gladly welcomes the suggestions from people who sense a change in the manner in which he behaves, even going as far as preempting them toward his “madness”. While in a conversation with Guildenstem, Hamlet says he is mad “North-North-West” (Shakespeare, 562), making an allusion to the winds bringing on the madness. Ophelia, on the other hand, cannot deny being insane, because during the Renaissance pregnant women were often diagnosed with hysteria (Maki, n.p.) – a form of