Kahn claims that "[s]exually, and socially, in Shakespeare's world, fatherhood validates a man's identity" (183). When we define masculinity as the successful satisfaction of a man's functions and responsibilities, such as ensuring the preservation of his family in the society or in Macbeth's case even the transmission of his regarded rank to a son, not having any children deconstructs his manhood to some extent. Even Macbeth describes himself as having "a fruitless crown" and "a barren sceptre" (3.1.60-61), which are clear references to infertility. However, the chance to actively contribute to the continuation of his dynasty is definitively taken away with his death, which can be equated with an absolute loss of power, including not only potency, but also political, societal, and private power which symbolizes …show more content…
In the first act, she states: "Hie thee hither/that I may pour my spirits in thine ear," and feels an obligation to "chastise" him to delimit what "impedes" him from becoming king which she considers a necessity (1.5.28-33). She tries to intrude into her husband's personality, metaphorically infusing herself into her husband, in order to make him the man he cannot be (Blos 94). One could argue then, that Lady Macbeth's gender role is not inherent, but rather forced upon her by her by her husband's lack of masculine virtue and identity. This is what Chamberlains claims as well, explaining: "To overcome her husband's feminized reticence, Lady Macbeth assumes a masculinity" (72). However, as it is her who literally emasculates him with words and actions, I would consider her as the active part and hence the source of this role