In the book of Leviticus, Israelite generation following those died in the dessert was given The Law before they entered the promised land. It is in that Law that we find another clue supporting the likelihood that Noah was sodomized. Both Leviticus 18 and 20 establish laws forbidding sexual interaction between familial relationships. In Leviticus 18:3, God begins by saying, “You shall not do what is done… in the land of Canaan where I am bringing you; you shall not walk in their statutes.” The chapter continues with prohibitions regarding “uncovering the nakedness” of an individual. Context suggests this exposing of a person’s nakedness is done for sexual arousal. Chapter 20 contains God’s prohibitions regarding sexual relations (intercourse)
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There is only one problem...The Bible does not teach this. The proof text to support the idea is from Matt 22:30 which says, “For in the resurrection they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven.” Where does it say in that text that angels do not procreate? By that logic, no humans procreate outside of marriage either. It simply says the institution of marriage will end. John Walvoord solves the apparent conflict of procreating angels by stating that they did so by possessing actual human men; using their bodies to have sex. This is plausible, but …show more content…
What about “holy” angels? I personally know of no circumstances in The Bible that specifically say that holy angels possess humans. But why should this phenomenon be troublesome? I know of no particular commandment prohibiting angels from possessing humans. Also, the Holy Spirit, although not an angel, is a distinct personal being who resides in millions of Christians. Is it possible that the two men are actually men whose bodies have been taken over by holy angels? I suggest this is a possibility.
Apparently, these were not angels who simply took on the mere appearance of men. They either took on a substantive and tangible human form, or possessed human men for the specific task God had ordained of them. When they arrived at Lot’s house, it says in Genesis 19:4-5, “the men of the city, the men of Sodom, surrounded the house, both young and old, all the people from every quarter; and they called to Lot and said to him, ‘Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we may have relations with
There is only one problem...The Bible does not teach this. The proof text to support the idea is from Matt 22:30 which says, “For in the resurrection they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven.” Where does it say in that text that angels do not procreate? By that logic, no humans procreate outside of marriage either. It simply says the institution of marriage will end. John Walvoord solves the apparent conflict of procreating angels by stating that they did so by possessing actual human men; using their bodies to have sex. This is plausible, but …show more content…
What about “holy” angels? I personally know of no circumstances in The Bible that specifically say that holy angels possess humans. But why should this phenomenon be troublesome? I know of no particular commandment prohibiting angels from possessing humans. Also, the Holy Spirit, although not an angel, is a distinct personal being who resides in millions of Christians. Is it possible that the two men are actually men whose bodies have been taken over by holy angels? I suggest this is a possibility.
Apparently, these were not angels who simply took on the mere appearance of men. They either took on a substantive and tangible human form, or possessed human men for the specific task God had ordained of them. When they arrived at Lot’s house, it says in Genesis 19:4-5, “the men of the city, the men of Sodom, surrounded the house, both young and old, all the people from every quarter; and they called to Lot and said to him, ‘Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we may have relations with