Paperback format:
Duration: 100 pages
Publisher: Simon & Brown (2010)
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More is Less
(The definition of ou, is not, and topos, being place... overal adds to a literal meaning of "nowhere" or "not-place")
I 've refrained from using Latin wordage which crops up in More 's 'Utopia. ' Granted, some of the phrases are somewhat peculiar sounding and disjointed, likely from the Latin translation; I assume. It wasn 't exactly a distraction - nevertheless, I made a conscious effort in not elaborating with Thomas More 's Tolkien style language and name-play. I concluded it wasn 't necessary to include it in this review, for those acquainted with 'Utopia. '
The book written by Thomas More (1478 - 1535) called 'Utopia ' is 500 years old this …show more content…
Thomas More had for a while perused the place for 'Utopia ' to commence and thrive in fictitious form. "I have already promised, at some other time; for, at present. I intend only to relate those particulars that he told us, of the manners and laws of the Utopians:" I 'm not sure if you 've spotted it, but More 's authoritarian concept in regards to the land of Utopia is laced with bewildering visions of what 'Utopia ' is - already. You 'd thought if such a place evolved, laws and manners surely were gratuitous; for each Utopian would have to be laterally single-minded to even exist in a place - the closest premise to More 's Utopian vision is an archetypal clique. I am not convinced what you can learn from More 's 'Utopia ' because it does nothing for the collective psyche; you couldn 't draw a line and point out to your local Member of Parliament: "ah, now Thomas More 's got a valid point about communal feeding, tonight it 's stewed offal for all." The analogy goes against collective freedoms, thus, for Thomas More is solves hunger; and the raison d 'être is that the land of Utopians is
Duration: 100 pages
Publisher: Simon & Brown (2010)
- - -
More is Less
(The definition of ou, is not, and topos, being place... overal adds to a literal meaning of "nowhere" or "not-place")
I 've refrained from using Latin wordage which crops up in More 's 'Utopia. ' Granted, some of the phrases are somewhat peculiar sounding and disjointed, likely from the Latin translation; I assume. It wasn 't exactly a distraction - nevertheless, I made a conscious effort in not elaborating with Thomas More 's Tolkien style language and name-play. I concluded it wasn 't necessary to include it in this review, for those acquainted with 'Utopia. '
The book written by Thomas More (1478 - 1535) called 'Utopia ' is 500 years old this …show more content…
Thomas More had for a while perused the place for 'Utopia ' to commence and thrive in fictitious form. "I have already promised, at some other time; for, at present. I intend only to relate those particulars that he told us, of the manners and laws of the Utopians:" I 'm not sure if you 've spotted it, but More 's authoritarian concept in regards to the land of Utopia is laced with bewildering visions of what 'Utopia ' is - already. You 'd thought if such a place evolved, laws and manners surely were gratuitous; for each Utopian would have to be laterally single-minded to even exist in a place - the closest premise to More 's Utopian vision is an archetypal clique. I am not convinced what you can learn from More 's 'Utopia ' because it does nothing for the collective psyche; you couldn 't draw a line and point out to your local Member of Parliament: "ah, now Thomas More 's got a valid point about communal feeding, tonight it 's stewed offal for all." The analogy goes against collective freedoms, thus, for Thomas More is solves hunger; and the raison d 'être is that the land of Utopians is