Therefore, Shakespeare reflects upon how society deals with women in Hamlet. Shakespeare wrote his plays during the Elizabethan age when the prejudices …show more content…
He does not respect the love between them, and he denied that he loves Ophelia when he tells her " I lov'd you not"(3.1. 121). Hamlet also insulted her when he told her: thou shalt not escape calumny. Get thee to a nunnery, farewell. Or, if thou wilt needs marry, marry a fool, for wise men know well enough what monsters you make of them. To a nunnery, go, and quickly too. Farewell [sic]. (3.1.136-140)
Therefore, Hamlet is responsible for Ophelia's madness because he used her to prove his madness. Furthermore, we don't see any scene in the play Hamlet tells her that he loves her so she becomes pessimistic of his love. In the last act Hamlet shows his love towards Ophelia when he says "I loved Ophelia. Forty thousand brothers Could not with all their quantity of love/ Make up my sum." (5.1.269-271) However, he was too late because at that time Ophelia was in her grave.
As a result, Ophelia violates the patriarchal society and its rules to show her own voice when she committed suicide, which is against the Christian law, although she represents a weak character in the play who are controlled by others. Her death also gives her a sign of innocence and evokes Hamlet's emotions and feelings towards her. (qtd in Chen