Man, Women And Slaves In Aristotle's Politics

In Politics, by Aristotle, he talks about man, women and slaves. He says how a family and city, which I think he is referring to the government here, are almost the same thing. How does he claim that we are the slaves and the upper authority are the males? We see it as us being stuck to where we are and only having to do what the government tells us. I see this true because of the woman think as their husbands as someone they love and look to for help and/or guidance. We look to the government for help and guidance but they are just controlling us in a way. We call ourselves the “greatest country on Earth” yet, all we do is go to school for sixteen years, then we work for the rest of our lives to be so called “happy.” Why do we do what the government tells us when we know there is something else we could be doing to enjoy life more?
Later on, he talks about how the male is as equal as the slave, which I agree with to an extent. Why is the male the same if he has a higher …show more content…
From what he is explaining, he says that we are all property to the males. Slaves are part of the male’s property, and we have to look at these slaves as property. So, are we property to the United States or do we have our own property in this life? Some of us have bodies of freeman and others souls, but how can we know that we are free if we live in a closed society? Speaking on that, how do we know if we are free in anyway, whether it be the bodies or souls, or even if we are free at all? No one knows if we are free, not even the highest authority because we all have jobs and set subjects on what to do and what we should be doing with our