Merriam-Webster Dictionary defines a favela as a settlement of jerry-built shacks on the outskirts of a Brazilian city. Oxford Dictionary refers to a favela as a Brazilian shack or shantytown; a slum. There are many problems with these definitions of a favela. Most of the problems with these definitions is that they have not evolved with favelas and give a negative connotation to word favela.
The definition of a favela may have been appropriate for the favelas of Rio in 1960, but modern day favelas do not fit these definitions as they have evolved from shacks to brick-and-mortar establishments (Perlman, 2009, p. 29). Most favelas now have access to water, electricity, Internet, cable, and sewage. This makes their lives a lot different in comparison …show more content…
Perlman gives several definitions of what a slum is and why the favelas of Rio do not fit each definition. One of these definitions, the Oxford English Dictionary definition, defines a slum “first as a squalid and overcrowded urban area inhabited by very poor people, and second as a house or building unfit for human habitation” (p.37). When looking at the favelas their homes are fit for human habitation and therefore do not fit this definition even if it is inhabited by poor people. Another definition for slums that Perlman (2009) states is the Cities Alliance definition. Cities Alliance defines slums by deficits such as “inadequate access to safe drinking water, sanitation, and other infrastructure, poor housing quality, overcrowding, and insecure residential status” (p. 37). As described above, most favelas have access to safe drinking water, sanitation and other infrastructure. Their housing quality is far superior to what it was when favelas were just created. Most residents of favelas are now renting their property and thus are secure in their residential status. Therefore this definition of a slum does not at all fit the modern day
The definition of a favela may have been appropriate for the favelas of Rio in 1960, but modern day favelas do not fit these definitions as they have evolved from shacks to brick-and-mortar establishments (Perlman, 2009, p. 29). Most favelas now have access to water, electricity, Internet, cable, and sewage. This makes their lives a lot different in comparison …show more content…
Perlman gives several definitions of what a slum is and why the favelas of Rio do not fit each definition. One of these definitions, the Oxford English Dictionary definition, defines a slum “first as a squalid and overcrowded urban area inhabited by very poor people, and second as a house or building unfit for human habitation” (p.37). When looking at the favelas their homes are fit for human habitation and therefore do not fit this definition even if it is inhabited by poor people. Another definition for slums that Perlman (2009) states is the Cities Alliance definition. Cities Alliance defines slums by deficits such as “inadequate access to safe drinking water, sanitation, and other infrastructure, poor housing quality, overcrowding, and insecure residential status” (p. 37). As described above, most favelas have access to safe drinking water, sanitation and other infrastructure. Their housing quality is far superior to what it was when favelas were just created. Most residents of favelas are now renting their property and thus are secure in their residential status. Therefore this definition of a slum does not at all fit the modern day