Is the Idea of God Fundamentally Sexist?
Westerner Religions, also called Abrahamic religions, have the greatest influence in
Western countries. Approximately 1.4 Billion people belong to these three religions in Europe and the American continent. As explained by Robert Solomon, Kathleen Higgins, and Clancy
Martin in “Introducing Philosophy” another reason for these three religions to be closely associated is the heavy influence of Greek philosophy from Plato and Aristotle (128). The Greek civilization was famously known to give human characteristics to their gods in an effort to justify unexplained events in their environment. Thereby, giving powerful gods like Zeus, the king of
Gods, and Hades, the God of the Underworld, male characteristics. …show more content…
A century later Anselm of Canterbury would discover and articulate his so called ontological argument that proved the existence of this male, father, God that is the greatest possible being
(131). Thomas Aquinas, in the Thirteen century, followed Anselm’s argument by providing even more proof of Gods existence as a male being. In his five arguments for the existence of God he argues that; there must be a first mover, Himself unmoved, a first cause in the chain of causes, an absolutely necessary being, an absolutely perfect being, and a rational designer. His knowledge is absolutely perfect since He knows Himself and all things as appointed by Him (Aquinas, par.
7). By stating in their arguments that God has male characteristics, they unintentionally placed blinders on everyone that agreed with them. To interpret Gods’ will through the eyes of a male.
In the Fifteen century a famous philosopher would again interpret God as a male entity.
Rene Descarte would state in his ontological argument “While from the fact that I cannot conceive God without existence, it follows that existence is inseparable from Him, and hence
Armando Mejia-Alonso
Westerner Religions, also called Abrahamic religions, have the greatest influence in
Western countries. Approximately 1.4 Billion people belong to these three religions in Europe and the American continent. As explained by Robert Solomon, Kathleen Higgins, and Clancy
Martin in “Introducing Philosophy” another reason for these three religions to be closely associated is the heavy influence of Greek philosophy from Plato and Aristotle (128). The Greek civilization was famously known to give human characteristics to their gods in an effort to justify unexplained events in their environment. Thereby, giving powerful gods like Zeus, the king of
Gods, and Hades, the God of the Underworld, male characteristics. …show more content…
A century later Anselm of Canterbury would discover and articulate his so called ontological argument that proved the existence of this male, father, God that is the greatest possible being
(131). Thomas Aquinas, in the Thirteen century, followed Anselm’s argument by providing even more proof of Gods existence as a male being. In his five arguments for the existence of God he argues that; there must be a first mover, Himself unmoved, a first cause in the chain of causes, an absolutely necessary being, an absolutely perfect being, and a rational designer. His knowledge is absolutely perfect since He knows Himself and all things as appointed by Him (Aquinas, par.
7). By stating in their arguments that God has male characteristics, they unintentionally placed blinders on everyone that agreed with them. To interpret Gods’ will through the eyes of a male.
In the Fifteen century a famous philosopher would again interpret God as a male entity.
Rene Descarte would state in his ontological argument “While from the fact that I cannot conceive God without existence, it follows that existence is inseparable from Him, and hence
Armando Mejia-Alonso