Not going to bed? You’ve changed clothes” the concern is Torvald’s voice grows as it becomes clear that this is the first time that Torvald has had no control over Nora and has no idea of her intentions. At this point in the passage Ibsen wants the audience to know what is about to happen, however, the intentional use dramatic tension between the characters is used by Ibsen to make the audience more engaged. Throughout the first part of this passage it is clear that Ibsen is trying to show a change in Gender Roles that would cause a shock in society according to the time ‘A Doll’s House’ was written in …show more content…
These ideas are backed up by Ibsen and how he represents Nora’s frustration with the way she has been treated “I’ve been your doll-wife here, just as at home I was Daddy’s doll-child.” Ibsen’s build up to a dramatic ending shows how the societal norms have been eradicated by Nora. Most women would almost be detached from emotion due to the fact that they did not have personal time as they were always looking after their Husband and children. Furthermore their husbands would not show their wives much attention, leading to further emotional detachment. That is why in this particular passage it would be a shock to the original audience that a woman was not only speaking to a male in this manner but also with this much emotion and anger. Although the audience can see how distressed and angry Nora has become with her situation, Torvald still fails to realise how serious the situation has become. Torvald implies that Nora is overreacting “exaggerated and over-emotional” this would be a common perception that men had of women when they tried to express an opinion. In actual fact it is Torvald who has caused Nora to be exaggerated and over-emotional as it is the Doll’s (Nora) job to be lifeless and for the Owner (Torvald) to play with it and create a character and in this case Nora is being played with