How Is It Morally Permissible To Do?

Morality in philosophy has been expounded on the basis that it does not relate to reality and truth, but rather on the values that can individual places on his or her actions (Solomon & Higgins, 2010). Therefore, the questions that result from moral philosophy include; what should one do or not do? What will be the effect of one’s actions to others? Is it justified to do what one wants to do? The response to these questions allows an individual to decide on the type of affiliation that he or she should establish with those within his or her vicinity (Solomon & Higgins, 2010). However, some philosophers such as Immanuel Kant hold that moral philosophy is based on the idea of good will, which offers a justified reason for doing what an individual does; that is duty. Further, Kant argued that it is not justified to blame other people for the results of actions they do, because they are beyond their control. …show more content…
To respond on the question of whether it is morally permissible to lie, Kant uses the first formulation of categorical imperative, which requires individuals to act on the maxim (Solomon & Higgins, 2010). Therefore, when an individual believes he will get what he wants by lying, he will be required to make it the case that everyone else lies to receive what they want. However, for the lie to be morally permissible, the individual is required to make the lie a maxim, or the universal law, meaning that everyone lies to get what they want. At this point, the individual makes an exception for himself, and is thus morally permissible to lie to get what he