Macbeth is Shakespeare’s shortest and bloodiest tragedy. This all starts with the murder of King Duncan, and the choice Macbeth makes. Macbeth is influenced by his wife, but in his mind he also had a lust for power that she opened up for him. Macbeth was given the choice and, at one point, wanted for Duncan to live. Macbeth kills the king and leads to a bloodbath of other characters. Macbeth is guilty of killing King Duncan as his ambition is what drove him to make his choice.
Macbeth is a nobleman of Scotland. He hears a prophecy about him becoming the future Thane of Cawdor and followed by becoming the king. The three witches tell Macbeth of his future and make him confused about his future life. The witches vanish and Ross enters with Angus …show more content…
Macbeth would most likely be charged with voluntary manslaughter. Although in scene seven of Macbeth, Macbeth says to Lady Macbeth, “We will proceed no further in this business. He hath honored me of late, and I have bought golden opinions from all sorts of people, which would be worn now in their newest gloss, not cast aside so soon.” (1. 7. 34-38). This shows how Macbeth did not want to kill his king who had been so good to him. Why would Macbeth kill the king then? He simply makes a choice. He does not have to listen to his wife. Lady Macbeth is pressuring him into making him be the king. Macbeth tried to take control of the prophecy which puts him into the position of king. This is a choice that he makes. Macbeth is influenced by his wife but, he was the one that decided to kill the king. It is rather unlikely that he could be given an insanity plea as, when he committed the murder, he was perfectly fine and just had this craving for power. His lawyer could argue insanity as he was crazy by the end of the play, but Macbeth’s ambition led to his downfall. Macbeth should at least be charged with voluntary manslaughter if not mass murder as he steps on everyone to gain and hold his
Macbeth is a nobleman of Scotland. He hears a prophecy about him becoming the future Thane of Cawdor and followed by becoming the king. The three witches tell Macbeth of his future and make him confused about his future life. The witches vanish and Ross enters with Angus …show more content…
Macbeth would most likely be charged with voluntary manslaughter. Although in scene seven of Macbeth, Macbeth says to Lady Macbeth, “We will proceed no further in this business. He hath honored me of late, and I have bought golden opinions from all sorts of people, which would be worn now in their newest gloss, not cast aside so soon.” (1. 7. 34-38). This shows how Macbeth did not want to kill his king who had been so good to him. Why would Macbeth kill the king then? He simply makes a choice. He does not have to listen to his wife. Lady Macbeth is pressuring him into making him be the king. Macbeth tried to take control of the prophecy which puts him into the position of king. This is a choice that he makes. Macbeth is influenced by his wife but, he was the one that decided to kill the king. It is rather unlikely that he could be given an insanity plea as, when he committed the murder, he was perfectly fine and just had this craving for power. His lawyer could argue insanity as he was crazy by the end of the play, but Macbeth’s ambition led to his downfall. Macbeth should at least be charged with voluntary manslaughter if not mass murder as he steps on everyone to gain and hold his