The first reason for Chamberlain’s policy of appeasement was that Britain, after the First World War was weak and needed time to regrow their military strength. Additionally, their main ally, France, was weakened from the First World War (WWI), so unlike in WWI, Commonwealth support was not a guarantee for the British. In the 1930s, Britain could not afford to re-arm the military, and what resources they did have were stretched thin policing their empire (Taylor 2018). The British military lost 704,803 soldiers in WWI, around 40,000 of which were casualties in the Royal Navy, Royal Flying Corps (RFC), and Royal Air Force (RAF) (Baker). Additionally, the British economy was in a downturn in the 1920s, and effect that was worsened by the Great
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He could not start a war without the support of the people, and up until 1939 most British people supported peace at all costs. Many British people actually supported many of Germany’s claims and felt that they had been treated unfairly after the allied victory in WWI (Taylor 2018). As a result of this the only other available option available to Chamberlain was to ignore Hitler’s actions altogether, however even this could be considered appeasement as no action would have been taken. People in Britain had heard what had happened to France, and did not want the same thing to happen to their country. Additionally, people were likely much more involved in domestic affairs as they struggled in the Great Depression before the war, and as such would want to avoid any conflict. Furthermore, as the British lost 704,803 soldiers in WWI (Baker), many families were likely affected and would support measures to prevent another war such as this from happening. The British people also widely saw Chamberlain as someone who had achieved peace, from his speech about “peace for our time” to being hailed as the “saviour of Europe”. The press would also see Chamberlain in this light, some citing his “great services to peace” and the positive press surrounding appeasement at the time likely allowed for public opinion to be in support of the avoidance of war, since most people at the time would have believed it …show more content…
The first such possibility was to prevent a war from occuring altogether. The support for this reason comes from his numerous agreements with Hitler throughout his term in office and his many speeches, specifically when he mentioned that he had achieved “peace in our time”. This also would have gone with the wishes of the British people who for the majority of the time Chamberlain was in office wished for peace at all costs. If Chamberlain intended appeasement as a way to prevent war the people, and possible results of another war occuring now that better technology had been developed would have been his main motivations for doing so. If this was the case, appeasement failed. The second possible way Chamberlain used appeasement would have been to stall long enough to be in a position to go to war against Hitler. Chamberlain’s motivation for this may have come from a possible realization that war was inevitable as a result of the Treaty of Versailles, and from the knowledge that with time the British military, navy, and air force could be made ready to fight again. None of this, however, was ready by the time Hitler began to break clauses from the Treaty of Versailles, and so Chamberlain may have adopted this policy to buy time for the military to prepare. If this was how Chamberlain used appeasement, the policy ultimately succeed when the Allies won WWII.
He could not start a war without the support of the people, and up until 1939 most British people supported peace at all costs. Many British people actually supported many of Germany’s claims and felt that they had been treated unfairly after the allied victory in WWI (Taylor 2018). As a result of this the only other available option available to Chamberlain was to ignore Hitler’s actions altogether, however even this could be considered appeasement as no action would have been taken. People in Britain had heard what had happened to France, and did not want the same thing to happen to their country. Additionally, people were likely much more involved in domestic affairs as they struggled in the Great Depression before the war, and as such would want to avoid any conflict. Furthermore, as the British lost 704,803 soldiers in WWI (Baker), many families were likely affected and would support measures to prevent another war such as this from happening. The British people also widely saw Chamberlain as someone who had achieved peace, from his speech about “peace for our time” to being hailed as the “saviour of Europe”. The press would also see Chamberlain in this light, some citing his “great services to peace” and the positive press surrounding appeasement at the time likely allowed for public opinion to be in support of the avoidance of war, since most people at the time would have believed it …show more content…
The first such possibility was to prevent a war from occuring altogether. The support for this reason comes from his numerous agreements with Hitler throughout his term in office and his many speeches, specifically when he mentioned that he had achieved “peace in our time”. This also would have gone with the wishes of the British people who for the majority of the time Chamberlain was in office wished for peace at all costs. If Chamberlain intended appeasement as a way to prevent war the people, and possible results of another war occuring now that better technology had been developed would have been his main motivations for doing so. If this was the case, appeasement failed. The second possible way Chamberlain used appeasement would have been to stall long enough to be in a position to go to war against Hitler. Chamberlain’s motivation for this may have come from a possible realization that war was inevitable as a result of the Treaty of Versailles, and from the knowledge that with time the British military, navy, and air force could be made ready to fight again. None of this, however, was ready by the time Hitler began to break clauses from the Treaty of Versailles, and so Chamberlain may have adopted this policy to buy time for the military to prepare. If this was how Chamberlain used appeasement, the policy ultimately succeed when the Allies won WWII.